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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

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  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • SQL query for an access database needed

    - by masfenix
    Hey guys, first off all sorry, i can't login using my yahoo provider. anyways I have this problem. Let me explain it to you, and then I'll show you a picture. I have a access db table. It has 'report id', 'recpient id', and 'recipient name' and 'report req'. What the table "means" is that do the user using that report still require it or can we decommission it. Here is how the data looks like (blocked out company userids and usernames): *check the link below, I cant post pictures cuz yahoo open id provider isnt working. So basically I need to have 3 select queries: 1) Select all the reports where for each report, ALL the users have said no to 'reportreq'. In plain English, i want a listing of all the reports that we have to decommission because no user wants it. 2) Select all the reports where the report is required, and the batchprintcopy is more then 0. This way we can see which report needs to be printed and save paper instead of printing all the reports. 3)A listing of all the reports where the reportreq field is empty. I think i can figure this one out myself. This is using Access/VBA and the data will be exported to an excel spreadsheet. I just a simple query if it exists, OR an alogorithm to do it quickly. I just tried making a "matrix" and it took about 2 hours to populate. https://docs.google.com/uc?id=0B2EMqbpeBpQkMTIyMzA5ZjMtMGQ3Zi00NzRmLWEyMDAtODcxYWM0ZTFmMDFk&hl=en_US

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  • JavaScript change to DropDownList.SelectedIndex not submitted

    - by Bellfalasch
    Hi So, I have a form to submit fighters. You write his/her name, country, and then the team they fight for + the team's country. When you start typing the name I have constructed my own Ajax AutoCompleter. It will find existing fighters that might match. When you click on one of the suggestions it will populate up to four fields depending on existing data in the database. If you're lucky the fighter already exists with information on country, team, and the team's country. The problems starts when submitting. The JavaScript follows and just get's the id of the country to select (also the value of the select-option), and the select-element itself. function dropdownSelect(value, element) { var dropdown = document.getElementById(element); for (var i = 0; i < dropdown.options.length; i++) { if (dropdown.options[i].value == value) { dropdown.options[i].selected = true; return true; } } } When submitting the ASP.NET-code halt's and says that my country-field is null. So my JavaScript-change of selected field couldn't be read by ASP.NET. Is this a limitation of how ASP.NET works? Or a limitation of my skills? ;P

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  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

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  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

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  • How to take html markup from a string and escape it to work within a script?

    - by zac
    I am using wordpress as a CMS and trying to allow user fields to be input to populate the info windows in a Google Map script. I am using this to select the id and pull in the content from a custom field : $post_id = 222; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'custom-field', true); $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); $pass_to = '<div class="content">'.$snip.'</div><div class="moreLink"><a href="'.$permalink.'">Find out more » </a></div></div>'; var point = new GLatLng('<?php echo $lat; $lat; ?>','<?php echo $long; $long; ?>'); var marker = createMarker(point,"<?php echo $mapTitle; $mapTitle; ?>", '<?php echo $pass_to; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); It works fine unless there is any html in the custom-field which breaks the script. I looked at htmlspcialchar and htmlentities but rather than strip everything out I would like to have it escaped so it still works and the html is intact. Any suggestions? I am pretty new to PHP and would really appreciate any pointers.

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  • read xml in javascript problem

    - by Najmi
    hai all, i have a problem with my code to read the xml.I have use ajax to read xml data and populate it in combobox. My problem is it only read the first data.Here is my code my xml like this <area> <code>1</code> <name>area1</name> </area> <area> <code>2</code> <name>area2</name> </area> and my javascript if(http.readyState == 4 && http.status == 200) { //get select elements var item = document.ProblemMaintenanceForm.elements["probArea"]; //empty combobox item.options.length = 0; //read xml data from action file var test = http.responseXML.getElementsByTagName("area"); alert(test.length); for ( var i=0; i < test.length; i++ ){ var tests = test[i]; item.options[item.options.length] = new Option(tests.getElementsByTagName("name")[i].childNodes[i].nodeValue,tests.getElementsByTagName("code")[i].childNodes[i].nodeValue); } }

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  • Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

    - by Tara Amatista
    I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

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  • Can't get DataGridView to refresh over Linq to SQL (WinForm)

    - by GringoFrenzy
    Very strange situation here: I'm using L2S to populate a DataGridView. Code follows: private void RefreshUserGrid() { var UserQuery = from userRecord in this.DataContext.tblUsers orderby userRecord.DisplayName select userRecord; UsersGridView.DataSource = UserQuery; //I have also tried //this.UserBindingSource.DataSource = UserQuery; //UsersGridView.Datasource = UserBindingSource; UsersGridView.Columns[0].Visible = false; } Whenever I use L2S to Add/Delete records from the database, the GridView refreshes perfectly well. However, if someone is editing the grid and makes a mistake, I want them to be able to hit a refresh button and have their mistakes erased by reloading from the datasource. For the life of me, I can't get it to work. The code I am currently using on my refresh button is this: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.DataContext.Refresh(RefreshMode.OverwriteCurrentValues); RefreshUserGrid(); } But the damn GridView remains unaffected. All that happens is the selected row becomes unselected. I have tried .Refresh(), .Invalidate(), I've tried changing the DataSource to NULL and back again (all suggestions from similar posts here)....none of it works. The only time the Grid refreshes is if I restart the app. I must be missing something fundamental, but I'm totally stumped and so are my colleagues. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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  • JQuery SelectList Option Changed doesn't refresh

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi. I have this select list: <select url="/Admin/SubCategories" name="TopParentId" id="ParentList"> <option value="">Please select a parent category</option> <option value="1" selected="selected">New Store</option> <option value="2">Extensions</option> <option value="3">Remodel</option> <option value="4">Bespoke Signage</option> <option value="5">Tactical Signage</option> <option value="6">Size Chart</option> <option value="7">Contact Info</option> </select> As you can see the option 1 is marked as selected. When I change the selection, I use this code to do an ajax call to get some values to populate a new select list: $("#ParentList").unbind("change"); $("#ParentList").change(function() { var itemId = $(this).val(); var url = $(this).attr("url"); var options; $.getJSON(url, itemId, function(data) { var defaultoption = '<option value="0">Please select a sub-category</option>'; options += defaultoption; $.each(data, function(index, optionData) { var option = '<option value="' + optionData.valueOf + '">' + optionData.Text + '</option>'; options += option; }); $("#SubParentList").html(options); }); }); My problem is that whenever I change the selection, the itemId is always the id of option 1, because it is marked as selected. It doesn't pick up the value of the option it is being changed too. Can someone please enlighten me of their knowledge. Regards, Jean-Philippe

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  • Hundreds of custom UserControls create thousands of USER Objects

    - by Andy Blackman
    I'm creating a dashboard application that shows hundreds of "items" on a FlowLayoutPanel. Each "item" is a UserControl that is made up of 12 or labels. My app queries a database and then creates an "item" instance for each record, populating ethe labels and textboxes with data before adding it to the FlowLayoutPanel. After adding about 560 items to the panel, I noticed that the USER Objects count in my Task Manager had gone up to about 7300, which was much much larger than any other app on my machine. I did a quick spot of mental arithmetic (OK, I might have used calc.exe) and figured that 560 * 13 (12 labels plus the UserControl itself) is 7280. So that suddenly gave away where all the objects were coming from... Knowing that there is a 10,000 USER object limit before windows throws in the towel, I'm trying to figure better ways of drawing these items onto the FlowLayoutPanel. My ideas so far are as follows: 1) User-draw the "item", using graphics.DrawText and DrawImage in place of many of the labels. I'm hoping that this will mean 1 item = 1 USER Object, not 13. 2) Have 1 instance of the "item", then for each record, populate the instance and use the Control.DrawToBitmap() method to grab an image and then use that in the FlowLayoutPanel (or similar) So... Does anyone have any other suggestions ??? P.S. It's a zoomable interface, so I have already ruled out "Paging" as there is a requirement to see all items at once :( Thanks everyone.

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, subscript vs. pointer

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong?

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  • C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

    - by JL
    Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

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  • JQuery Bind click event to appended element with an argument

    - by Gabor Szauer
    Hi guys, I'm trying to populate a ul list with some li elements and give each li element a link that calls the same function with a different argument. However it doesn't seem to work, i've attached the code below, CheckForNewMail is called on document load. Can anyone please help me out? function CheckForNewMail() { ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // This will be dynamic MailInInbox[0] = new Array("0", "Mail One"); MailInInbox[1] = new Array("12", "Mail Two"); MailInInbox[2] = new Array("32", "Mail Three"); MailInInbox[3] = new Array("5", "Mail Four"); ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// $('#mail-in-inbox').children().remove(); size = 4; element = $('#mail-in-inbox'); for(i = 0; i < size; ++i) { var link = $('<a href="#" class="inbox-link">'+ MailInInbox[i][1] +'</a>'); link.live('click', function() { LoadMailById(i); }); li = $('<li></li>'); li.append(link); element.append(li); } } function LoadMailById(id) { alert("Button "+ id +" clicked!"); }

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  • Querying calender events even if they do not have any for the day

    - by StealthRT
    Hey everyone, i am trying to figure out a way of query my mysql server so that even if a company does not have anything posted for the day the user clicks on their logo, it still adds them to the list. That sounds a little confusing so let me try to explain it another way. Say i have 3 company's in my database: Comp1 Comp2 Comp3 And Comp1 & Comp3 have something for today on the calender but Comp2 does not. I still need it to populate and place that company on the page but have something along the lines of "nothing on the calender for today". The other 2 companys (Comp1 & Comp3) would show the calender posting for that day. This is the code i have right now: SELECT clientinfo.id, clientinfo.theCompName, clientinfo.theURL, clientinfo.picURL, clientinfo.idNumber, clientoffers.idNumber, clientoffers.theDateStart, clientoffers.theDateEnd FROM clientinfo, clientoffers WHERE clientinfo.accountStats = 'OPEN' AND clientinfo.idNumber = clientinfo.idNumber AND '2010-05-08' BETWEEN clientoffers.theDateStart AND clientoffers.theDateEnd GROUP BY clientinfo.idNumber ORDER BY clientinfo.theCompName ASC That executes just fine but for Comp2, it just places the calender info from Comp1 into it when it really doesn't have anything. The output looks like this: Comp1 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc Comp2 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc comp3 | 2010-05-09 | this is the calender event 2 | etc etc Any help would be great :o) David

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  • Have something loaded only when JList item is visibile

    - by elvencode
    Hello, i'm implementing a Jlist populated with a lot of elements. Each element corresponds to a image so i'd like to show a resized preview of them inside each row of the list. I've implemented a custom ImageCellRenderer extending the Jlabel and on getListCellRendererComponent i create the thumbnail if there'snt any for that element. Each row corresponds to a Page class where i store the path of the image and the icon applied to the JLabel. Each Page object is put inside a DefaultListModel to populate the JList. The render code is something like this: public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { Page page = (Page) value; if (page.getImgIcon() == null) { System.out.println(String.format("Creating thumbnail of %s", page.getImgFilename())); ImageIcon icon = new ImageIcon(page.getImgFilename()); int thumb_width = icon.getIconWidth() > icon.getIconHeight() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconWidth() * 128) / icon.getIconHeight()); int thumb_height = icon.getIconHeight() > icon.getIconWidth() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconHeight() * 128) / icon.getIconWidth()); icon.setImage(getScaledImage(icon.getImage(), thumb_width, thumb_height)); page.setImgIcon(icon); } setIcon(page.getImgIcon()); } I was thinking that only a certain item is visibile in the List the cell renderer is called but i'm seeing that all the thumnails are created when i add the Page object to the list model. I've tried to load the items and after set the model in the JList or set the model first and after starting appending the items but the results are the same. Is there any way to load the data only when necessary or do i need to create a custom control like a JScrollPanel with stacked items inside where i check myself the visibility of each elements? Thanks

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  • WCF REST Starter Kit not filling base class members on POST

    - by HJG
    I have a WCF REST Starter Kit service. The type handled by the service is a subclass of a base class. For POST requests, the base class members are not correctly populated. The class hierarchy looks like this: [DataContract] public class BaseTreeItem { [DataMember] public String Id { get; set; } [DataMember] public String Description { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class Discipline : BaseTreeItem { ... } The service definition looks like: [WebHelp(Comment = "Retrieve a Discipline")] [WebGet(UriTemplate = "discipline?id={id}")] [OperationContract] public Discipline getDiscipline(String id) { ... } [WebHelp(Comment = "Create/Update/Delete a Discipline")] [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "discipline")] public WCF_Result DisciplineMaintenance(Discipline discipline) { ... } Problem: While the GET works fine (returns the base class Id and Description), the POST does not populate Id and Description even though the XML contains the fields. Sample XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Discipline xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/xxx.yyy.zzz"> <DeleteFlag>7</DeleteFlag> <Description>2</Description> <Id>5</Id> <DisciplineName>1</DisciplineName> <DisciplineOwnerId>4</DisciplineOwnerId> <DisciplineOwnerLoginName>3</DisciplineOwnerLoginName> </Discipline> Thanks for any assistance.

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  • JPA: persisting object, parent is ok but child not updated

    - by James.Elsey
    Hello, I have my domain object, Client, I've got a form on my JSP that is pre-populated with its data, I can take in amended values, and persist the object. Client has an abstract entity called MarketResearch, which is then extended by one of three more concrete sub-classes. I have a form to pre-populate some MarketResearch data, but when I make changes and try to persist the Client, it doesn't get saved, can someone give me some pointers on where I've gone wrong? My 3 domain classes are as follows (removed accessors etc) public class Client extends NamedEntity { @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name = "MARKET_RESEARCH_ID") private MarketResearch marketResearch; ... } @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class MarketResearch extends AbstractEntity { ... } @Entity(name="MARKETRESEARCHLG") public class MarketResearchLocalGovernment extends MarketResearch { @Column(name = "CURRENT_HR_SYSTEM") private String currentHRSystem; ... } This is how I'm persisting public void persistClient(Client client) { if (client.getId() != null) { getJpaTemplate().merge(client); getJpaTemplate().flush(); } else { getJpaTemplate().persist(client); } } To summarize, if I change something on the parent object, it persists, but if I change something on the child object it doesn't. Have I missed something blatantly obvious? Thanks

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  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

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  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

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