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  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

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  • SQL query for an access database needed

    - by masfenix
    Hey guys, first off all sorry, i can't login using my yahoo provider. anyways I have this problem. Let me explain it to you, and then I'll show you a picture. I have a access db table. It has 'report id', 'recpient id', and 'recipient name' and 'report req'. What the table "means" is that do the user using that report still require it or can we decommission it. Here is how the data looks like (blocked out company userids and usernames): *check the link below, I cant post pictures cuz yahoo open id provider isnt working. So basically I need to have 3 select queries: 1) Select all the reports where for each report, ALL the users have said no to 'reportreq'. In plain English, i want a listing of all the reports that we have to decommission because no user wants it. 2) Select all the reports where the report is required, and the batchprintcopy is more then 0. This way we can see which report needs to be printed and save paper instead of printing all the reports. 3)A listing of all the reports where the reportreq field is empty. I think i can figure this one out myself. This is using Access/VBA and the data will be exported to an excel spreadsheet. I just a simple query if it exists, OR an alogorithm to do it quickly. I just tried making a "matrix" and it took about 2 hours to populate. https://docs.google.com/uc?id=0B2EMqbpeBpQkMTIyMzA5ZjMtMGQ3Zi00NzRmLWEyMDAtODcxYWM0ZTFmMDFk&hl=en_US

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  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • Hundreds of custom UserControls create thousands of USER Objects

    - by Andy Blackman
    I'm creating a dashboard application that shows hundreds of "items" on a FlowLayoutPanel. Each "item" is a UserControl that is made up of 12 or labels. My app queries a database and then creates an "item" instance for each record, populating ethe labels and textboxes with data before adding it to the FlowLayoutPanel. After adding about 560 items to the panel, I noticed that the USER Objects count in my Task Manager had gone up to about 7300, which was much much larger than any other app on my machine. I did a quick spot of mental arithmetic (OK, I might have used calc.exe) and figured that 560 * 13 (12 labels plus the UserControl itself) is 7280. So that suddenly gave away where all the objects were coming from... Knowing that there is a 10,000 USER object limit before windows throws in the towel, I'm trying to figure better ways of drawing these items onto the FlowLayoutPanel. My ideas so far are as follows: 1) User-draw the "item", using graphics.DrawText and DrawImage in place of many of the labels. I'm hoping that this will mean 1 item = 1 USER Object, not 13. 2) Have 1 instance of the "item", then for each record, populate the instance and use the Control.DrawToBitmap() method to grab an image and then use that in the FlowLayoutPanel (or similar) So... Does anyone have any other suggestions ??? P.S. It's a zoomable interface, so I have already ruled out "Paging" as there is a requirement to see all items at once :( Thanks everyone.

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  • Can't get DataGridView to refresh over Linq to SQL (WinForm)

    - by GringoFrenzy
    Very strange situation here: I'm using L2S to populate a DataGridView. Code follows: private void RefreshUserGrid() { var UserQuery = from userRecord in this.DataContext.tblUsers orderby userRecord.DisplayName select userRecord; UsersGridView.DataSource = UserQuery; //I have also tried //this.UserBindingSource.DataSource = UserQuery; //UsersGridView.Datasource = UserBindingSource; UsersGridView.Columns[0].Visible = false; } Whenever I use L2S to Add/Delete records from the database, the GridView refreshes perfectly well. However, if someone is editing the grid and makes a mistake, I want them to be able to hit a refresh button and have their mistakes erased by reloading from the datasource. For the life of me, I can't get it to work. The code I am currently using on my refresh button is this: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.DataContext.Refresh(RefreshMode.OverwriteCurrentValues); RefreshUserGrid(); } But the damn GridView remains unaffected. All that happens is the selected row becomes unselected. I have tried .Refresh(), .Invalidate(), I've tried changing the DataSource to NULL and back again (all suggestions from similar posts here)....none of it works. The only time the Grid refreshes is if I restart the app. I must be missing something fundamental, but I'm totally stumped and so are my colleagues. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

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  • JavaScript change to DropDownList.SelectedIndex not submitted

    - by Bellfalasch
    Hi So, I have a form to submit fighters. You write his/her name, country, and then the team they fight for + the team's country. When you start typing the name I have constructed my own Ajax AutoCompleter. It will find existing fighters that might match. When you click on one of the suggestions it will populate up to four fields depending on existing data in the database. If you're lucky the fighter already exists with information on country, team, and the team's country. The problems starts when submitting. The JavaScript follows and just get's the id of the country to select (also the value of the select-option), and the select-element itself. function dropdownSelect(value, element) { var dropdown = document.getElementById(element); for (var i = 0; i < dropdown.options.length; i++) { if (dropdown.options[i].value == value) { dropdown.options[i].selected = true; return true; } } } When submitting the ASP.NET-code halt's and says that my country-field is null. So my JavaScript-change of selected field couldn't be read by ASP.NET. Is this a limitation of how ASP.NET works? Or a limitation of my skills? ;P

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  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

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  • How to take html markup from a string and escape it to work within a script?

    - by zac
    I am using wordpress as a CMS and trying to allow user fields to be input to populate the info windows in a Google Map script. I am using this to select the id and pull in the content from a custom field : $post_id = 222; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'custom-field', true); $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); $pass_to = '<div class="content">'.$snip.'</div><div class="moreLink"><a href="'.$permalink.'">Find out more » </a></div></div>'; var point = new GLatLng('<?php echo $lat; $lat; ?>','<?php echo $long; $long; ?>'); var marker = createMarker(point,"<?php echo $mapTitle; $mapTitle; ?>", '<?php echo $pass_to; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); It works fine unless there is any html in the custom-field which breaks the script. I looked at htmlspcialchar and htmlentities but rather than strip everything out I would like to have it escaped so it still works and the html is intact. Any suggestions? I am pretty new to PHP and would really appreciate any pointers.

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  • JQuery - Set TBODY

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a table defined as follows: <table id="myTable" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <thead><tr> <th>Date</th> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> </tr></thead> <tbody> <!-- rows will go here --> </tbody> </table> I am trying to dynamically populate 'myTable' at runtime via JavaScript. To accomodate for this, I am using JQuery. I want to write some HTML into the tbody element within 'myTable'. However, I am having problems understanding how to do this with the selectors. I know that I can get 'myTable' using: $("#myTable") I know that I can set the HTML of myTable by using the following: $("#myTable").html(someHtmlString); However, that sets the HTML of the entire table. In reality, I just want to set the HTML within the TBODY of 'myTable'. How do I do this with JQuery? Thank you!

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  • iPhone inputting NSUserDefaults into a UITextField

    - by Rob
    I am writing a program where I where the first time a user runs it - they will have to fill out about 10 different UITextFields. I am trying to save the fields so that on subsequent runs of the program that whatever they previously put will already be displayed in those UITextFields so the wont have to re-input it in - unless they want to edit something in which case they still have that option. I think that I have figured out a good way to save the strings using NSUserDefaults but now I am trying to figure out how to have those fields populate a UITextField - it doesnt seem as easy as if they were UILabels. This is the route I am attempting: // in the viewDidLoad portion. NSUserDefaults *userData = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; //Hooks. NSString *placeHolderName = [userData stringForKey:@"name"]; txtName.text = @"%@", placeHolderName; When I do this, it simply displays the '%@' in the textfields. I want whatever variable being held by placeHolderName to be automatically put into that UITextField. Is this possible?

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  • JQuery SelectList Option Changed doesn't refresh

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi. I have this select list: <select url="/Admin/SubCategories" name="TopParentId" id="ParentList"> <option value="">Please select a parent category</option> <option value="1" selected="selected">New Store</option> <option value="2">Extensions</option> <option value="3">Remodel</option> <option value="4">Bespoke Signage</option> <option value="5">Tactical Signage</option> <option value="6">Size Chart</option> <option value="7">Contact Info</option> </select> As you can see the option 1 is marked as selected. When I change the selection, I use this code to do an ajax call to get some values to populate a new select list: $("#ParentList").unbind("change"); $("#ParentList").change(function() { var itemId = $(this).val(); var url = $(this).attr("url"); var options; $.getJSON(url, itemId, function(data) { var defaultoption = '<option value="0">Please select a sub-category</option>'; options += defaultoption; $.each(data, function(index, optionData) { var option = '<option value="' + optionData.valueOf + '">' + optionData.Text + '</option>'; options += option; }); $("#SubParentList").html(options); }); }); My problem is that whenever I change the selection, the itemId is always the id of option 1, because it is marked as selected. It doesn't pick up the value of the option it is being changed too. Can someone please enlighten me of their knowledge. Regards, Jean-Philippe

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  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

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  • Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

    - by Tara Amatista
    I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

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  • Have something loaded only when JList item is visibile

    - by elvencode
    Hello, i'm implementing a Jlist populated with a lot of elements. Each element corresponds to a image so i'd like to show a resized preview of them inside each row of the list. I've implemented a custom ImageCellRenderer extending the Jlabel and on getListCellRendererComponent i create the thumbnail if there'snt any for that element. Each row corresponds to a Page class where i store the path of the image and the icon applied to the JLabel. Each Page object is put inside a DefaultListModel to populate the JList. The render code is something like this: public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { Page page = (Page) value; if (page.getImgIcon() == null) { System.out.println(String.format("Creating thumbnail of %s", page.getImgFilename())); ImageIcon icon = new ImageIcon(page.getImgFilename()); int thumb_width = icon.getIconWidth() > icon.getIconHeight() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconWidth() * 128) / icon.getIconHeight()); int thumb_height = icon.getIconHeight() > icon.getIconWidth() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconHeight() * 128) / icon.getIconWidth()); icon.setImage(getScaledImage(icon.getImage(), thumb_width, thumb_height)); page.setImgIcon(icon); } setIcon(page.getImgIcon()); } I was thinking that only a certain item is visibile in the List the cell renderer is called but i'm seeing that all the thumnails are created when i add the Page object to the list model. I've tried to load the items and after set the model in the JList or set the model first and after starting appending the items but the results are the same. Is there any way to load the data only when necessary or do i need to create a custom control like a JScrollPanel with stacked items inside where i check myself the visibility of each elements? Thanks

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  • Add event to all elements except the given with jQuery

    - by Metropolis
    Hey everyone I created a date picker that uses ajax to populate an element with an id of calendarContainer. When the user clicks on a button to bring the calendar up, I want the user to be able to click anywhere else on the screen besides the calendar and have it hide. The calendarContainer is at the root of the dom and I have tried everything I can think of to get this working. I have gotten the calendar to go away when it is not clicked on. However, when I click on the calendar it is also going away. I only want the calendar to go away when it is not clicked on. Here are all of the things I have tried. $(":not(#calendarContainer > table)").live('click', function() { $.Calendar.hide(); }); $(":not(#calendarContainer").live('click', function() { $.Calendar.hide(); }); $(":not(#calendarContainer)").click(function() { $.Calendar.hide(); }); $("body:not(#calendarContainer)").click(function() { $.Calendar.hide(); }); $(":not(#calendarContainer, #calendarData)").live('click', function() { $.Calendar.hide(); }); Thanks for any help, Metropolis

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  • Managing StringBuilder Resources

    - by Jim Fell
    My C# (.NET 2.0) application has a StringBuilder variable with a capacity of 2.5MB. Obviously, I do not want to copy such a large buffer to a larger buffer space every time it fills. By that point, there is so much data in the buffer anyways, removing the older data is a viable option. Can anyone see any obvious problems with how I'm doing this (i.e. am I introducing more performance problems than I'm solving), or does it look okay? tText_c = new StringBuilder(2500000, 2500000); private void AppendToText(string text) { if (tText_c.Length * 100 / tText_c.Capacity > 95) { tText_c.Remove(0, tText_c.Length / 2); } tText_c.Append(text); } EDIT: Additional information: In this application new data is received very rapidly (on the order of milliseconds) through a serial connection. I don't want to populate the multiline textbox with this new information so frequently because that kills the performance of the application, so I'm saving it to a StringBuilder. Every so often, the application copies the contents of the StringBuilder to the textbox and wipes out the StringBuilder contents.

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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • JQuery Bind click event to appended element with an argument

    - by Gabor Szauer
    Hi guys, I'm trying to populate a ul list with some li elements and give each li element a link that calls the same function with a different argument. However it doesn't seem to work, i've attached the code below, CheckForNewMail is called on document load. Can anyone please help me out? function CheckForNewMail() { ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // This will be dynamic MailInInbox[0] = new Array("0", "Mail One"); MailInInbox[1] = new Array("12", "Mail Two"); MailInInbox[2] = new Array("32", "Mail Three"); MailInInbox[3] = new Array("5", "Mail Four"); ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// $('#mail-in-inbox').children().remove(); size = 4; element = $('#mail-in-inbox'); for(i = 0; i < size; ++i) { var link = $('<a href="#" class="inbox-link">'+ MailInInbox[i][1] +'</a>'); link.live('click', function() { LoadMailById(i); }); li = $('<li></li>'); li.append(link); element.append(li); } } function LoadMailById(id) { alert("Button "+ id +" clicked!"); }

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  • cakephp hasMany through and multiselect form

    - by Zoran Kalinic
    I'm using cakephp 2.2.2 and I have a problem with the editing view Models and relationships are: Person hasMany OrganizationPerson Organization hasMany OrganizationPerson OrganizationPerson belongs to Person,Organization A basic hasMany through relationship as found within cake documentation. Tables are: people (id,...) organizations (id,...) organization_people (id, person_id,organization_id,...) In the person add and edit forms there is a select box allowing a user to select multiple organization. The problem I have is, when a user edits an existing person, the associated organizations aren't pre-selected. Here is the code in the PeopleController: $organizations = $this->Person->OrganizationPerson->Organization->find('list'); $this->set(compact('organizations')); Related part of the code in the People/edit code looks like: $this->Form->input('OrganizationPerson.organization_id', array('multiple' => true, 'empty' => false)); This will populate the select field, but it does not pre-select it with the Person's associated organizations. Format and content of the $this-data: Array ( [Person] => Array ( [id] => 1 ... ) [OrganizationPerson] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [person_id] => 1 [organization_id] => 1 ... ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [person_id] => 1 [organization_id] => 2 ... ) ) ) What I have to add/change in the code to get pre-selected organizations? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, subscript vs. pointer

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong?

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