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  • Iterate Through JSON Data for Specific Element - Similar to XPath

    - by Highroller
    I am working on an embedded system and my theory of the overall process follows this methodology: 1. Send a command to the back end asking for account information in JSON format. 2. The back end writes a JSON file with all accounts and associated information (there could be 0 to 16 accounts). 3. Here's where I get stuck - use JavaScript (we are using the JQuery library) to iterate through the returned information for a specific element (similar to XPath) and build an array based on the number of elements found to populate a drop-down box to select the account you want to view and then do stuff with the account info. So my code looks like this: loadAccounts = function() { $.getJSON('/info?q=voip.accounts[]', function(result) { var sipAcnts = $("#sipacnts"); $(sipAcnts).empty(); // empty the dropdown (if necessarry) // Get the 'label' element and stick it in an array // build the array and append it to the sipAcnts dropdown // use array index to ref the accounts info and do stuff with it } So what I need is the JSON version of XPath to build the array of voip.accounts.label. The first account info looks something like this: { "result_set": { "voip.accounts[0]": { "label": "Dispatch1", "enabled": true, "user": "1234", "name": "Jane Doe", "type": "sip", "sip": { "lots and lots of stuff": }, } } } Am I over complicating the issue? Any wisdom anyone could thrown down would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Use jQuery's dataTable plugin with a nested Ajax call

    - by mrr0ng
    I am trying to use a nested ajax call to populate a table, and once the table is built, use jQuery's dataTable plugin to pretty it up. The problem I am running into is an order of operations question. When do I call the dataTable function so that I can be assured that the table is built AFTER the values are populated? When I try the following code, the dataTable is created before the rows are built. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url:"http://totalrockregistration.com/feeds/bands.php", dataType:"jsonp", success: function(jsonData){ $.each(jsonData.bands, function(i,bands){ if (bands.barID == "<?php echo $_GET["barID"]; ?>"){ var songIdFromBandJson = bands.song; var bandNameFromJson = bands.name; var bandScoreFromJson = bands.score; $.ajax({ url:"http://totalrockregistration.com/feeds/songs.php", dataType:"jsonp", success: function(songsJsonData){ $.each(songsJsonData.songs, function(i,songs){ if (songIdFromBandJson == songs.id){ var songName=(songs.name); $("#leaderBoardTable tbody").append("<tr><td>"+bandNameFromJson+"</td><td>"+bandScoreFromJson+"</td><td>"+songName+"</td></tr>"); } }); } }); } }); makeLeaderTable(); }, }); function makeLeaderTable(){ $('#leaderBoardTable').dataTable({ "aaSorting": [[ 1, "desc" ]], "iDisplayLength": 50 }); } }); </script>

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  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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  • [FLEX] Images won't dynamically refresh

    - by Bridget
    I am writing a Flex application to receive xml from an httpservice. That works because I can populate a datagrid with the information. The xml sends image pathnames. A combobox sends a new HttpService call onChange. This repopulates the datagrid and puts new images in the folder that flex is accessing. I want to dynamically change the image without changing the pathname of the image. <mx:Canvas id="borderCanvas"><mx:Canvas id="dropCanvas"> <mx:Tile id="adTile"><mx:Image></mx:Image> </mx:Tile></mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> This is my component. I assign my Image sources using this code: var i:Number = 0; while ( i <= dg_conads.rowCount){ var img:Image = new Image(); img.source = null; img.source = imageSource+i+".jpg"; adTile.addChild(img); i++; } My biggest problem is that the images are not refreshing. I get the same image even though I've prevented caching from the HTML wrapper and the ASP.Net website. The image automatically loads in the folder and refreshes in the folder but I can't get the image to refresh in the application. I've tried removeAllChildren(); delete(adTile.getChildAt(0)); and neither worked.

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  • How can i add to dataGridView1 a data to the last row/column?

    - by user3681442
    In top of form1 i did: private System.Timers.Timer _refreshTimer; private int _thisProcess; Then in the Form1 Load event: _thisProcess = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id; InitializeRefreshTimer(); PopulateApplications(); Then the timer init method: void InitializeRefreshTimer() { _refreshTimer = new System.Timers.Timer(5000); _refreshTimer.SynchronizingObject = this; _refreshTimer.Elapsed += new System.Timers.ElapsedEventHandler(TimerToUpdate_Elapsed); _refreshTimer.Start(); } Then the timer elapsed event: void TimerToUpdate_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { PopulateApplications(); } In the end the Populate method: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add( p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } The variable status show in the column2 but let's say i want that status will be display for each process/app in column5 ? How can i move it ? EDIT** Tried this: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { var icon = Icon.ExtractAssociatedIcon(p.MainModule.FileName); Image ima = icon.ToBitmap(); img.Image = ima; img.HeaderText = "Image"; img.Name = "img"; String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add(img, p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } I moved the variable img to the top of the form. The problem is i see in each row this: DataGridViewImageColumn { Name=img, Index=-1 } And i don't see the icon it self. Why ?

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  • jquery problem in IE working fine in FF

    - by Bharanikumar
    function populate_customer_details(){ $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'populate_customer_details.php', data: { email : $('#txt_email_id').val() }, success : function(data){ if(data=="NOROWSFOUND"){ alert("Sorry, Email ID not exist in our database"); document.getElementById("txt_email_id").focus(); }else{ var val = explode_all_into_arr(data,"|=|"); document.getElementById("FirstName").value = val[0]; document.getElementById("LastName").value = val[1]; document.getElementById("mobilecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[2]); document.getElementById("MobileNo").value = val[3]; document.getElementById("homecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[4]); document.getElementById("HomeNo").value = val[5]; document.getElementById("PaxEmail").value = val[6]; document.getElementById("PaxEmailConf").value = val[6]; } }, }); } This is my snippet purpose is getting the customer details and populate into textfield and combo box , That is Firstname will append into Firstname text field , Secondname will append into Secondname text field , Same like mobilecountrycode (but this is dropdown combo), Some time combo selectedindex work fine, but some time not selecting the value , I am not sure what s problem in that... Nothing works in IE , Also showing object expected error in IE , i have ajax_common.js : in this i added above script , in the page top first i included the jquery.js , Then i include ajax_common.js file, But no idea why this problem. Regards (NOTE i included the jquery.js ) ,

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  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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  • rake db:migrate fails when trying to do inserts

    - by anthony
    I'm trying to get a database populate so I can begin working on a project. THis project is already built and I'm being brought in to helpwith front-end work. Problem is I can't get rake db:migrate to do any inserts. Every time I run rake db:migrate I get this: ... == 20081220084043 CreateTimeDimension: migrating ============================== -- create_table(:time_dimension) - 0.0870s INSERT time_dimension(time_key, year, month, day, day_of_week, weekend, quarter) VALUES(20080101, 2008, 1, 1, 'Tuesday', false, 1) rake aborted! Could not load driver (uninitialized constant Mysql::Driver) ... I'm building on a MBP with Snow Leopard. I've installed XCode from the disk that comes with the mac. I've updated ruby, installed rails and all the needed gems. I have the 64 bit version of MySQL installed. I've tried the 32 bit version of MySQL and I've even tried installing from macports (via http://www.robbyonrails.com/articles/2010/02/08/installing-ruby-on-rails-passenger-postgresql-mysql-oh-my-zsh-on-snow-leopard-fourth-edition) The mysql gemis installed using: sudo env ARCHFLAGS="-arch x86_64" gem install mysql -- --with-mysql-config=/path/to/mysql/bin/mysql_config the migrate creates the tables just fine but it dies every. single. time. it trys an insert. Any help would be great

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  • WordPress update_post_meta values. Delete when empty or just test for ""?

    - by Scott B
    My function below, will take the values from my custom meta fields (after a post has been edited, and save or publish has been clicked) and update or insert the posted meta values. However, if the user leaves this field blank, I believe I want to delete the meta altogether (so I can test for its presence and display accordingly vs just checking for ""). For example, one of my meta options gives the user the ability to add a Custom title to their post, which when present, will populate the page's tag. However, if the field is left empty, I want to default the tag to the_title(), which is simply the Post title used to identify the page/post. Since I'm not deleting the meta on save, its always present after the first time a user enters something in there, get_post_meta($post-ID,'MyCustomTitle', true) is always true. Further, they cannot blank it out by clearing the title field and hitting publish. What am I missing in the save in order to clear the value to "" when the user clears the field? if ($_POST['MyCustomTitle']) { update_custom_meta($postID, $_POST['MyCustomTitle'], 'MyCustomTitle'); } function update_custom_meta($postID, $newvalue, $field_name) { // To create new meta if(!get_post_meta($postID, $field_name)){ add_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); }else{ // or to update existing meta update_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); } }

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  • How with lambda function in MVC3

    - by doogdeb
    I have a model which contains view models for each view. This model is held in session and is initialised when application starts. I need to be able to populate a field from one view model with the value from another so have used a lambda function. Below is my model. I am using a lambda so that when I get Test2.MyProperty it will use the FunctionTestProperty to retrieve the value from Test1.TestProperty. public class Model { public Model() { Test1 = new Test1() Test2 = new Test2(FunctionTestProperty () => Test1.TestProperty) } } public class Test1 { public string TestProperty { get; set; } } public class Test2 { public Test2() : this (() => string.Empty) {} public Test2(Func<string> functionTestProperty) { FunctionTestProperty = functionTestProperty; } public Func<string> FunctionTestProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty { get{ return FunctionTestProperty() ?? string.Empty; } } } This works perfectly when I first run the application and navigate from Test1 to Test2; I can see that when I get the value for MyProperty it calls back to Model constructor and retrieves the Test1.TestProperty value. However when I then submit the form (Test2) it calls the default constructor which sets it to string.Empty. So if I go back to Test1 and back to Test2 again it always then calls the Test2 default constructor. Does anyone know why this works when first running the application but not after the view is submitted, or if I have made an obvious mistake?

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  • Declaration of struct variables in other class when obtained by getters

    - by liaK
    Hi, I am using Qt 4.5 so do C++. I have a class like this class CClass1 { private: struct stModelDetails { QString name; QString code; ..... // only variables and no functions over here }; QList<stModelDetails> m_ModelDetailsList; public: QList<stModelDetails> getModelDetailsList(); ... }; In this I have functions that will populate the m_ModelDetailsList; I have another class say CClassStructureUsage, where I will call the getModelDetailsList() function. Now my need is that I have to traverse the QList and obtain the name, code from each of the stModelDetails. Now the problem is even the CClass1's header file is included it is not able to identify the type of stModelDetails in CClassStructureUsage. When I get the structure list by QList<stModelDetails> ModelList = obj->getModelInformationList(); it says stModelDetails : undeclared identifier. How I can able to fetch the values from the structure? Am I doing anything wrong over here?

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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • Showing newly added table row using .show("slow")

    - by Sam Mackrill
    I am cloning a hidden table row then populating it and after validation I want to show the row using a jquery effect ... say .show("slow") var baseRow = $("#tasks tr#baseTaskLine"); var newRow = baseRow.clone(); var lastRow = $("#tasks tr[id^='TaskLine_']" + dayClass + ":last"); var newRowId; if (lastRow.length == 0) { newRowId = "TaskLine_new0"; } else { newRowId = "TaskLine_new" + lastRow[0].rowIndex; } newRow.attr("id", newRowId); : [populate new row] : if (lastRow.length == 0) { baseRow.after(newRow); } else { lastRow.after(newRow); } newRow.hide(); : : [validate via webservice call] : newRow.show("slow"); This does show the row but it appears instantly. I have tried hiding all the <td> elements of the row then showing those and that does seem to work but some strange styles get added to each <td> which interfere with the formatting i.e. style="display: block;"

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  • How do I manipulate the format on a DataGridView that is bound to a Data Source?

    - by Jack Johnstone
    I´m using SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2008, C#. In the data source (the SQL Server data table) I use the DateTime format mm/dd/yyyy, however, in a forms overview (DataGridView) users would like to see a completely other format, with year, week number and day number of week (yyww,d) which is in string format. I´ve created an algorithm for the transformation between values (date to weekday), but can I populate the affected cells with yyww,d (string) instead of mm/dd/yyyy (DateTime)? This is what I´ve been testing out, without success (and note, it´s on the last line the problem becomes obvious, as the cell value won´t accept a string on runtime - it still wants to be a DateTime...) private void DataGridViewQueryFindRequests_CellFormatting( object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { string weekAndDay = ""; DataGridViewCell cell = DataGridViewQueryFindRequests.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex]; if (cell.ColumnIndex == 13 && cell.Value == null) mEmptyRow = true; if ((cell.ColumnIndex == 14 || cell.ColumnIndex == 15) && !mEmptyRow) { weekAndDay = ClassWeeksAndDates.dateToWeekNumber(Convert.ToDateTime(cell.Value)); cell.ValueType = typeof(string); cell.Value = weekAndDay; } }

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  • Is this a good way to generically deserialize objects?

    - by Damien Wildfire
    I have a stream onto which serialized objects representing messages are dumped periodically. The objects are one of a very limited number of types, and other than the actual sequence of bytes that arrives, I have no way of knowing what type of message it is. I would like to simply try to deserialize it as an object of a particular type, and if an exception is thrown, try again with the next type. I have an interface that looks like this: public interface IMessageHandler<T> where T : class, IMessage { T Handle(string message); } // elsewhere: // (These are all xsd.exe-generated classes from an XML schema.) public class AppleMessage : IMessage { ... } public class BananaMessage : IMessage { ... } public class CoconutMessage : IMessage { ... } Then I wrote a GenericHandler<T> that looks like this: public class GenericHandler<T> : IMessageHandler<T> where T: class, IMessage { public class MessageHandler : IMessageHandler { T IMessageHandler.Handle(string message) { T result = default(T); try { // This utility method tries to deserialize the object with an // XmlSerializer as if it were an object of type T. result = Utils.SerializationHelper.Deserialize<T>(message); } catch (InvalidCastException e) { result = default(T); } return result; } } } Two questions: Using my GenericHandler<T> (or something similar to it), I'd now like to populate a collection with handlers that each handle a different type. Then I want to invoke each handler's Handle method on a particular message to see if it can be deserialized. If I get a null result, move onto the next handler; otherwise, the message has been deserialized. Can this be done? Is there a better way to deserialize data of unknown (but restricted) type?

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  • Want to convert whole PHP script in RUBY ON RAILS

    - by user303058
    // set image quality (from 0 to 100, not applicable to gif) $imgquality = 100; // get data from $_POST or $_GET ? $data = &$_POST; // get image dimensions $width = (int) $data['width']; $height = (int) $data['height']; // create image object $img = imagecreatetruecolor($width, $height); // populate image with pixels for ($y = 0; $y < $height; $y++) { // innitialize $x = 0; // get row data $row = explode(',', $data['r'.$y]); // place row pixels $cnt = sizeof($row); for ($r = 0; $r < $cnt; $r++) { // get pixel(s) data $pixel = explode(':', $row[$r]); // get color $pixel[0] = str_pad($pixel[0], 6, '0', STR_PAD_LEFT); $cr = hexdec(substr($pixel[0], 0, 2)); $cg = hexdec(substr($pixel[0], 2, 2)); $cb = hexdec(substr($pixel[0], 4, 2)); // allocate color $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $cr, $cg, $cb); // place repeating pixels $repeat = isset($pixel[1]) ? (int) $pixel[1] : 1; for ($c = 0; $c < $repeat; $c++) { // place pixel imagesetpixel($img, $x, $y, $color); // iterate column $x++; } } } // set proper content type header('Content-type: image/'.$imgtype); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="chart.'.$imgtype.'"'); // stream image $function = 'image'.$imgtype; if ($imgtype == 'gif') { $function($img); } else { $function($img, null, $imgquality); } // destroy imagedestroy($img); ?

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  • Why is my rspec test failing?

    - by Justin Meltzer
    Here's the test: describe "admin attribute" do before(:each) do @user = User.create!(@attr) end it "should respond to admin" do @user.should respond_to(:admin) end it "should not be an admin by default" do @user.should_not be_admin end it "should be convertible to an admin" do @user.toggle!(:admin) @user.should be_admin end end Here's the error: 1) User password encryption admin attribute should respond to admin Failure/Error: @user = User.create!(@attr) ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Email has already been taken # ./spec/models/user_spec.rb:128 I'm thinking the error might be somewhere in my data populator code: require 'faker' namespace :db do desc "Fill database with sample data" task :populate => :environment do Rake::Task['db:reset'].invoke admin = User.create!(:name => "Example User", :email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar", :password_confirmation => "foobar") admin.toggle!(:admin) 99.times do |n| name = Faker::Name.name email = "example-#{n+1}@railstutorial.org" password = "password" User.create!(:name => name, :email => email, :password => password, :password_confirmation => password) end end end Please let me know if I should reproduce any more of my code. UPDATE: Here's where @attr is defined, at the top of the user_spec.rb file: require 'spec_helper' describe User do before(:each) do @attr = { :name => "Example User", :email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar", :password_confirmation => "foobar" } end

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  • Is a python dictionary the best data structure to solve this problem?

    - by mikip
    Hi I have a number of processes running which are controlled by remote clients. A tcp server controls access to these processes, only one client per process. The processes are given an id number in the range of 0 - n-1. Were 'n' is the number of processes. I use a dictionary to map this id to the client sockets file descriptor. On startup I populate the dictionary with the ids as keys and socket fd of 'None' for the values, i.e no clients and all pocesses are available When a client connects, I map the id to the sockets fd. When a client disconnects I set the value for this id to None, i.e. process is available. So everytime a client connects I have to check each entry in the dictionary for a process which has a socket fd entry of None. If there are then the client is allowed to connect. This solution does not seem very elegant, are there other data structures which would be more suitable for solving this? Thanks

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  • How to select "child" entities in subview?

    - by Andy
    I am trying to manage a drill-down list of data. I've got an entity, Contact, that has a to-many relationship with another entity, Rule. In my root view controller, I use a fetched results controller to manage and display the list of Contacts. When a Contact is tapped, I push a new view controller onto the stack with a list of the Contact's Rules. I have not been able to figure out how to use a second fetched results controller to display the Rules, so I'm using the following: // create a set of the contact's rules rules = [NSMutableSet set]; rules = [self.contact mutableSetValueForKey:@"rule"]; // create an array of rules from the set arrayOfRules = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:[rules count]]; for (id oneObject in rules) [arrayOfRules addObject:oneObject]; // sort the array of rules NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"phoneLabel" ascending:YES]; [arrayOfRules sortUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:descriptor]]; [descriptor release]; I create a set of Rules, then use that to create an array of Rules for sorting. I then use these two collections to populate the grouped table view. All of this appears to be working correctly. Here's my problem: There are several different actions a user can take in this view, and most of them require that I know which Rule was tapped. But I can't figure out how to get that. For instance, say a user wants to delete a Rule. It seems to me the proper approach is something like... [rules removeObject:ruleObjectToBeRemoved] ...but I can't figure out how to specifiy ruleObjectToBeRemoved. I hope all of this makes sense. As usual, thanks in advance for any advice you can offer.

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  • Joomla User Login Question

    - by user277127
    I would like to enable users of my existing web app to login to Joomla with the credentials already stored in my web app's database. By using the Joomla 1.5 authentication plugin system -- http://docs.joomla.org/Tutorial:Creating_an_Authentication_Plugin_for_Joomla_1.5 -- I would like to bypass the Joomla registration process and bypass creating users in the Joomla database altogether. My thought had been that I could simply populate a User object, which would be stored in the Session, and that this would replace the need to store a user in the Joomla database. After looking through the code surrounding user management in Joomla, it seems like any time you interact with the User object, the database is being queried. It therefore seems like my initial idea won't work. Is that right? It looks like, in order to achieve the effect I want, I will have to actually register a user from within the authentication plugin at the time they first login. This is not ideal, so before I go forward with it, I wanted to check with Joomla developers whether it is possible to do what I described above. Thanks in advance -- I am new to Joomla and greatly appreciate your help!

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  • Create a new site programmatically and select parent site? (SharePoint)

    - by peter
    Hi, I am using the following code to create a new site: newWeb = SPContext.GetContext(HttpContext.Current).Web.Webs.Add(newSiteUrl, newSiteName, null, (uint)1033, siteTemplate, true, false); try { newWeb.Update(); } NewSiteUrl and newSiteName are values from two textboxes and on whichever site I use this code (in a web part) the new site will be a subsite to this site. I would now like to be able to select a parent site so that the new site can sit anywhere in the site collection, not just as a subsite to the site where I use the web part. I created the following function to get all the sites in the site collection and populate a drop down with the name and url for every site private void getSites() { SPSite oSiteCollection = SPContext.Current.Site; SPWebCollection collWebsite = oSiteCollection.AllWebs; for (int i = 0; i < collWebsite.Count; i++) { ddlParentSite.Items.Add(new ListItem(collWebsite[i].Title, collWebsite[i].Url)); } oSiteCollection.Dispose(); } If the user selects a site in the dropdown, is it possible to use that URL in newSiteUrl so decide where the new site should be? I don't get it to work really and the new site still becomes a subsite to the current one. I guess it has to do with HttpContext.Current? Any ideas on how I should do it instead? It's the first time I write custom web parts and the sharepoint object model is a bit overwhelming at the moment. Thanks in advance.

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  • Sorting text and attached images in MFMailCompositeViewController?

    - by eOgas
    In the app I'm currently writing I'd like to populate the message body of an e-mail with a combination of text and images. It took me forever to find out that in order to get an embedded image, you had to have bold tags in the message body (...uhhh, yeah), otherwise the image just shows up as an attachment. But now I have the problem that all of the images just go to the end of the body, and I can't programmatically put text after or in between any of the attachments. So far I've tried: Adding images as part of the body string using tags and a base64 string. This would have worked, but most e-mail clients reject images embedded in this manner. Using normal tags with a references to the attached files, using the assigned filenames. Didn't work at all. Attaching images normally, but also attaching blocks of text to the e-mail. The text is not embedded in the same manner as the images. Turns out to be an attached txt file on the receiving end. Apple has restricted their MFMailComposieViewController class to the point of ridiculousness, but I know there has to be a way to do this, because they add in their stupid "Sent from my *apple device name here*" message at the end of every e-mail. So does anyone have any ideas?

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  • UITableView populating EVERY OTHER launch

    - by Joshmattvander
    I am having a problem that I cant seem to get to the bottom of. In my view did load code, I am creating an array and attempting to populate the table. For some reason it only populates the data on EVERY OTHER time the app is run. I put logs in viewDidLoad which runs as does viewWillAppear and outputs the correct count for the array. Also, the UITableView specicic methods get called when it works and they just don't get called when it doesnt work. I cant figure out the root of this problem. Again this occurrence happens exactly 50% of the time. Theres no dynamic data that could be tripping up or anything. #import "InfoViewController.h" @implementation InfoViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"Info View Loaded"); // This runs infoList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Set The Data //Theres 8 similar lines [infoList addObject :[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Scrubbed", @"name", @"scrubbed", @"url", nil]]; NSLog(@"%d", [infoList count]); // This shows the count correctly every time [super viewDidLoad]; } -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Info Will Appear"); // This Runs } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // This WILL NOT RUN when it doesnt work, and DOES show the count when it does run NSLog(@"Counted in numberOfRowsInSection %d", [infoList count]); return [infoList count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"ROW"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"infoCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; cell.textLabel.text = [[infoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; return cell; } @end

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  • android: error on SQLiteDatabase rawQuery (fetching data)

    - by Jin
    So I have a SQliteDatabase mDb. It only has one column, and its data are Strings for previously saved inputs. I'm trying to populate all the data from mDb into a String[] for AutoCompleteTextView (so that the autocomplete is based on previous inputs), and here's my code to get all of the String. public String[] fetchAllSearch() { ArrayList<String> allSearch = new ArrayList<String>(); Cursor c = mDb.rawQuery("select * from " + DATABASE_TABLE, null); c.moveToFirst(); if (c.getCount() > 0) { do { allSearch.add(c.getString(c.getColumnIndex("KEY"))); } while (c.moveToNext()); } String[] foo = (String[]) allSearch.toArray(); if (foo == null) { foo = new String[] {""}; } return foo; } my CREATE_TABLE command is private static final String DATABASE_CREATE = "create table " + DATABASE_TABLE; .. public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL(DATABASE_CREATE); } But for some reason the line mDb.rawQuery(...) is giving me "no such table found" exception, and for the life of me I can't figure out why. Any pointers?

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  • Repeater not working fine when passed a dataprovider (array) having a single element

    - by baltusaj
    I am using a Repeater in an Accordian which does not appear to see a single element in userArray. If I add another entry to userArray then the Repeater works fine. Thoughts?? private function currUsersServiceHandler(event:ResultEvent):void{ if (event.result.currentUsers != null) { if (event.result.currentUsers.user is ArrayCollection) // if more than one elements are present { usersArray = event.result.currentUsers.user; } else if (event.result.currentUsers is ObjectProxy) { //FIXIT usersArray populate by following line has some issue usersArray = new ArrayCollection(ArrayUtil.toArray(event.result.currentUsers)); } } } <mx:HTTPService id="currUsersService" url="currUsers.xml" result="currUsersServiceHandler(event)"/> <mx:Accordion includeIn="UserList" x="10" y="10" width="554" height="242" > <mx:Repeater id="rep" dataProvider="{usersArray}"> <mx:Canvas width="100%" height="100%" label="{rep.currentItem.firstName}" > <mx:HBox> <s:Label text="{rep.currentItem.firstName}"/> <s:Label text="{rep.currentItem.lastName}"/> <mx:/HBox> </mx:Canvas> </mx:Repeater> </mx:Accordian> Edit: There is another thing I have just noticed i.e. that the accordian does show a single tab (when Array has a single element) but it's not labeled with the first name which I am setting. If I enter another user, two tabs appear and both are labeled with names I am setting. The first tab appears labeled too then.

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