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  • How can I make an AdvancedDataGrid re-display its labels when the results of the labelFunction chang

    - by Chris R
    I have an AdvancedDataGrid with a custom label function whose value can change based on other form status (specifically, there's a drop down to choose the time display format for some columns). Right now, I have this labelFunction: internal function formatColumnTime(item: Object, column: AdvancedDataGridColumn): String { var seconds: Number = item[column.dataField]; return timeFormat.selectedItem.labelFunction(seconds); } internal function formatTimeAsInterval(time: Number): String { if (isNaN(time)) return ""; var integerTime: int = Math.round(time); var seconds: int = integerTime % 60; integerTime = integerTime / 60; var minutes: int = integerTime % 60; var hours: int = integerTime / 60; return printf("%02d:%02d:%02d", hours, minutes, seconds); } internal function formatTimeAsFractions(time: Number): String { if (isNaN(time)) return ""; var hours: Number = time / 3600.0; return new String(Math.round(hours * 100) / 100); } ... and the timeFormat object is a combo box with items whose labelFunction attributes are formatTimeAsFractions and formatTimeAsInterval. The columns that have time formats have formatColumnTime as their labelFunction value, because extracting the seconds in that function and passing it in to the formatters made for a more testable app (IMHO). So, when the timeFormat.selectedItem value changes, I want to force my grid to re-calculate the labels of these colums. What method must I call on it? invalidateProperties() didn't work, so that's out.

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  • Problem with response.redirect sending incorrect HTTPMethod

    - by Andy Macnaughton-Jones
    Hi, I've got a strange problem with a Response.Redirect. I'm using VB.NET with the .NET 2 framework (so VS2005 & SP1). I've got a page that I do a form submit on (that's a proper form method="POST" hard-coded onto the page) and that properly posts me back the page data which is then processed. As part of that processing the system determines if we need to get sent to another URL after processing has been complete. So the request.httpmethod = "POST". So if the "GotoPage" parameter has a URL specified we then do a response.redirect(URL, false). (False as we want page processing to complete in order to write some timing logs etc). The page correctly redirects but instead of the response having a "GET" as the request.httpmethod it has a "POST" instead ! Now, we're using our own custom framework so that we use the HTTPRequest method to determine if a page has been posted back or is being "Getted" so the "IsPagePostBack" property doesn't work (that only works when you're using the normal .NET controls and form submissions). In all other instances our code works happily but what might be causing the Request.httpMethod to not be being set correctly ? I've tried doing a response.clear before the redirect in case headers are being written out before hand but to no avail. Any clues ?! thanks, Andy

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  • Coherent access to mainframe files from Win32 application and IBM RDZ/Eclipse?

    - by Ira Baxter
    I have a suite of tools for processing IBM COBOL source code; these tools are built as Win32 applications and talk to Windows (including network) files using traditional Windows file system calls (open, close, read, write) and work just fine, thank you. I'd like to integrate these with Eclipse; we understand how to get Eclipse to do UI for us we think. The problem is that Eclipse/RDZ users access mainframe files through some IBM magic. In How does RDZ access mainframe files I tried to understand how Eclipse accessed files on a mainframe. Apparantly Eclipse/RDZ has a secret filesystem access backdoor not available to normal mortals. At issue is how our tools, reading some Windows-accessible file (local disk file, NFS to mainframe, ...) can associate such files with the files that Eclipse can access or is using? Ideally we'd like UI-integrated versions of our tools take an Eclipse file-name string for a mainframe file, pass it to our Windows application to process, have the Windows application open/read/process the file, and return results associated with that file to the Eclipse UI. Is there a canonical file name path that would be used with mainframe NFS that would be equivalent to the name or access object the Eclipse RDZ used to access the same file? Are all operations doable internally by Eclipse, doable by the mainframe NFS [for instance, can NFS read/update an element in a partitioned data set? Can Eclipse RDZ? Does it matter?] Is the mainframe file access available to custom Java code running under Eclipse RDZ (e.g., equivalents of open/close/read/write based on filename/path/something?) If so, can somebody steer me towards documentation describing the access methods? Anybody else already solve this problem or have a good suggestion?

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  • android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

    - by moonlightcheese
    I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? edit (4/30/2010-18:24): Just compiled some code where I got the above stated error. I closed some web browser windows and recompiled the same exact code with no edits and it compiled with no issue. this is definitely a compiler issue related to memory usage. Any help would be great.... because I have no idea where to go from here. Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12 Sorry I had to repost this question because regardless of whether I use the native HttpClient class in the Android SDK or my custom version downloaded from apache, the error still occurs.

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  • Django Admin: not seeing any app (permission problem?)

    - by Facundo
    I have a site with Django running some custom apps. I was not using the Django ORM, just the view and templates but now I need to store some info so I created some models in one app and enabled the Admin. The problem is when I log in the Admin it just says "You don't have permission to edit anything", not even the Auth app shows in the page. I'm using the same user created with syncdb as a superuser. In the same server I have another site that is using the Admin just fine. Using Django 1.1.0 with Apache/2.2.10 mod_python/3.3.1 Python/2.5.2, with psql (PostgreSQL) 8.1.11 all in Gentoo Linux 2.6.23 Any ideas where I can find a solution? Thanks a lot. UPDATE: It works from the development server. I bet this has something to do with some filesystem permission but I just can't find it. UPDATE2: vhost configuration file: <Location /> SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE gpx.settings PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/var/django'] + sys.path" </Location> UPDATE 3: more info /var/django/gpx/init.py exists and is empty I run python manage.py from /var/django/gpx directory The site is GPX, one of the apps is contable and lives in /var/django/gpx/contable the user apache is webdev group and all these directories and files belong to that group and have rw permission UPDATE 4: confirmed that the settings file is the same for apache and runserver (renamed it and both broke) UPDATE 5: /var/django/gpx/contable/init.py exists This is the relevan part of urls.py: urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) urlpatterns += patterns('gpx', (r'^$', 'menues.views.index'), (r'^adm/$', 'menues.views.admIndex'),

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  • Using Apache Camel how do I unmarshal my deserialized object that comes in through a CXF Endpoint?

    - by ScArcher2
    I have a very simple camel route. It starts with a CXF Endpoint exposed as a web service. I then want to convert it to xml and call a method on a bean. Currently i'm getting a CXF specific object after the web service call. How do I take my serialized object out of the CXF MessageList and use it going forward? My Route: <camel:route> <camel:from uri="cxf:bean:helloEndpoint" /> <camel:marshal ref="xstream-utf8" /> <camel:to uri="bean:hello?method=hello"/> </camel:route> The XML Serialized Message: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <org.apache.cxf.message.MessageContentsList serialization="custom"> <unserializable-parents /> <list> <default> <size>1</size> </default> <int>6</int> <com.whatever.Person> <firstName>Joe</firstName> <middleName></middleName> <lastName>Buddah</lastName> <dateOfBirth>2010-04-13 12:09:00.137 CDT</dateOfBirth> </com.whatever.Person> </list> </org.apache.cxf.message.MessageContentsList> I would expect the XML to be more like this: <com.whatever.Person> <firstName>Joe</firstName> <middleName></middleName> <lastName>Buddah</lastName> <dateOfBirth>2010-04-13 12:09:00.137 CDT</dateOfBirth> </com.whatever.Person>

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  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance!

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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  • Flex 4 vs JavaScript Options (Cappuccino, JQuery, etc.)

    - by user320681
    Rehashing an older post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1570070/jquery-vs-flex-choosing-a-platform-for-saas We are preparing to develop an application that is exceptionally dynamic and interactive. It's particularly heavy on the graphics side. We are 85% convinced that Adobe Flash built atop Flex is the right path to take, however Cappuccino is quite nice and seems as though it may be able to nearly fit the bill. The only pause we have right now is portability for the iPhone. With the lack of blessings from Apple we will most certainly have to create a 2nd interface for the iPhone for the site, however... Having two interfaces may not be bad as it will likely have to be custom anyway to take advantage of the differences that it affords. Any further thoughts or reevaluations of points enumerated in the noted article? Further, Flex 4 adds a lot of strength to the position mentioned previously regarding UI development. Fx4 is very nice vs Fx3 and shaves 90% from the development time when coupled with Flash Catalyst, which is not really always fully appropriate, but with some round trip tricks it seems as though it can cut through things rather well... Please do advise and many thanks.

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  • Objective-C Protocols within Protocols

    - by LucasTizma
    I recently began trying my hand at using protocols in my Objective-C development as an (obvious) means of delegating tasks more appropriately among my classes. I completely understand the basic notion of protocols and how they work. However, I came across a roadblock when trying to create a custom protocol that in turn implements another protocol. I since discovered the solution, but I am curious why the following DOES NOT work: @protocol STPickerViewDelegate < UIPickerViewDelegate > - ( void )customCallback; @end @interface STPickerView : UIPickerView { id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; } @property ( nonatomic, assign ) id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; @end Then in a view controller, which conforms to STPickerViewDelegate: STPickerView * pickerView = [ [ STPickerView alloc ] init ]; pickerView.delegate = self; - ( void )customCallback { ... } - ( NSString * )pickerView:( UIPickerView * )pickerView titleForRow:( NSInteger )row forComponent:( NSInteger )component { ... } The problem was that pickerView:titleForRow:forComponent: was never being called. On the other hand, customCallback was being called just fine, which isn't too surprising. I don't understand why STPickerViewDelegate, which itself conforms to UIPickerViewDelegate, does not notify my view controller when events from UIPickerViewDelegate are supposed to occur. Per my understanding of Apple's documentation, if a protocol (A) itself conforms to another protocol (B), then a class (C) that conforms to the first protocol (A) must also conform to the second protocol (B), which is exactly the behavior I want and expected. What I ended up doing was removing the id< STPickerViewDelegate > delegate property from STViewPicker and instead doing something like the following in my STViewPicker implementation where I want to evoke customCallback: if ( [ self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ] ) { [ self.delegate performSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ]; } This works just fine, but I really am puzzled as to why my original approach did not work.

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  • Setting nested object to null when combobox has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • Retrieve input entered in a JDialog

    - by Jules Olléon
    I extended JDialog to create a custom dialog where the user must fill some fields : How should I retrieve the data entered ? I came up with a solution that works. It mimics JOptionPane but the way I do it looks ugly to me because of the static fields involved... Here is roughly my code : public class FObjectDialog extends JDialog implements ActionListener { private static String name; private static String text; private JTextField fName; private JTextArea fText; private JButton bAdd; private JButton bCancel; private FObjectDialog(Frame parentFrame) { super(parentFrame,"Add an object",true); // build the whole dialog buildNewObjectDialog(); setVisible(true); } @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent ae) { if(ae.getSource()==bAdd){ name=fName.getText(); text=fText.getText(); } else { name=null; text=null; } setVisible(false); dispose(); } public static String[] showCreateDialog(Frame parentFrame){ new FObjectDialog(parentFrame); String[] res={name,text}; if((name==null)||(text==null)) res=null; return res; } } As I said, that works properly, but I guess that might raise serious concurrency issues... Is there a cleaner way to do that ? How is it done in JOptionPane ?

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  • Using kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck on iPhone

    - by Cliff
    Hello, I'm trying to get consistant behavior out of the kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck property on the iPhone to allow iPod music blending and I'm having trouble. At the start of my app I set an Ambient category like so: -(void) initialize { [[AVAudioSession sharedInstance] setCategory: AVAudioSessionCategoryAmbient error: nil]; } Later on when I attempt to play audio I set the duck property using the following method: //this will crossfade the audio with the ipod music - (void) toggleCrossfadeOn:(UInt32)onOff { //crossfade the ipod music AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck,sizeof(onOff),&onOff); AudioSessionSetActive(onOff); } I call this passing a numeric "1" just before playing audio like so: [self toggleCrossfadeOn:1]; [player play]; I then call the crossfade method again passing a zero when my app's audio completes using a playback is stopping callback like so: -(void) playbackIsStoppingForPlayer:(MQAudioPlayer*)audioPlayer { NSLog(@"Releasing player"); [audioPlayer release]; [self toggleCrossfadeOn:0]; } In my production app this exact code works as expected, causing the ipod to fade out just before playing my app's audio then fade back in when the audio finishes playing. In a new project I recently started, I get different behavior. The iPod audio fades down and never fades back in. In my production app I use the AVAudioPlayer where in my new app I've written a custom audio player that uses audio queues. Could somebody help me understand the differences and how to properly use this API?

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  • desktop shortcut icon not showing in web setup project

    - by davsan
    i've created a web setup project and i wanted it to create a desktop shortcut to the web application (ex: http://localhost/xx/yy.aspx). up to this point it was pretty easy: i created a shortcut (doesnt matter where), gave it the url i wanted, added this to the User's Desktop special folder of my web setup project, and it was placed on the desktop after the installation. but then i wanted to display my custom shortcut icon. i set the icon of the shortcut i've created on my file system. then i re-included this to the setup project. however after the installation the shortcut kept showing the default IE icon again. (i tried these on windows 2003 server, on win xp the shortcut showed up iconless) after some trials i found another way: i recreated an iconless shortcut on my file system, opened my web setup project, included this shortcut and my icon to Web Application Folder under File System on Target Machine, then clicked on User's Desktop, right clicked on the right hand side blank area, selected Create New Shortcut and chose the shortcut i've just added. Then under User's Desktop i clicked on the newly created shortcut, opened the Properties window and set its Icon property to my included icon. These steps solved it all both on 2003 server and win xp. Though this wasnt really a question i wanted to share it anyways because it was quite annoying.

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  • drupal_add_css not working

    - by hfidgen
    Hiya, I need to use drupal_add_css to call stylesheets onto single D6 pages. I don't want to edit the main theme stylesheet as there will be a set of individual pages which all need completely new styles - the main sheet would be massive if i put it all in there. My solution was to edit the page in PHP editor mode and do this: <?php drupal_add_css("/styles/file1.css", "theme"); ?> <div id="newPageContent">stuff here in html</div> But when i view source, there is nothing there! Not even a broken css link or anything, it's just refusing to add the css sheet to the css package put into the page head. Variations don't seem to work either: drupal_add_css($path = '/styles/file1.css', $type = 'module', $media = 'all', $preprocess = TRUE) My template header looks like this, i've not changed anything from the default other than adding a custom JS. <head> <?php print $head ?> <title><?php print $head_title ?></title> <?php print $styles ?> <?php print $scripts ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php print base_path() ?>misc/askme.js"></script> <!--[if lt IE 7]> <?php print phptemplate_get_ie_styles(); ?> <![endif]--> </head> Can anyone think of a reason why this function is not working? Thanks!

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • Using jQuery delay() with separate elements

    - by boomturn
    I want to fake a simple animation on page load by sequentially revealing several pngs, each appearing instantly but with unique, precisely timed delay before the next one. Using the latest version of jQuery (1.4.2 at writing), which provides a delay method. My first (braindead) impulse was: $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800); $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200); $('#image3').show('fast'); Of course all come up simultaneously. jQuery doc examples refer to a single item being chained, not handling multiple items. OK... try again using nested callbacks from show(): $('#image1').show('fast', function() { $('#image2').show('fast', function() { $('#image3').show('fast', function() { }); }); }); Looks ugly (imagine doing 10, also wonder what processor hit would be) but hey, it works sequentially! Without delay though. So... chain delay() after show() using a callback function from it (not even sure if it supports one): $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800, function() { $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200, function() { $('#image3').show('fast'); }); }); Hm. Opposite result of what I thought might happen: the callback works, but still no delay. So... should I be using some combination of queue and delay instead of nested callbacks? jQuery doc examples for queue again only use one element for example. Guessing this would involve using a custom queue, but am uncertain how to implement this. Or maybe I'm missing a simple way? (For a simple problem!)

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  • MonoRail: Testing, Route Extensions, Folder Structures

    - by Kezzer
    I've got a few questions related to the use of MonoRail Testing Does everyone tend to use NUnit for their testing? I haven't worked enough with testing to know if this is a good testing framework to use. I'm just looking to get more into testing my applications a lot more than before and wanted to know if there's any general guidelines. Are you supposed to copy the controller over to a test area and just rename it with test in the name and re-run it? How do you ensure your test project and main project coincide with one another? Is it just a case of copying everything over again or are there tools available to do it for you? Route Extensions MonoRail tends to use <action>.rails, can you omit the .rails part if you configure your routing correctly? Why does this seem to be the standard? Folder Structures I haven't found anywhere which really points out your standard folder structure. Sure, you have Controllers, Models, and Views. But your Models folder should contain your data access objects as well. I've seen some have something like -> Models -> DaoClasses -> Entities But what about custom structures used to get data out of views? And if you're using NHibernate, where's a good place to stick the mappings? I know it's entirely dependent on the developer, but I haven't really seen any standard approach. Cheers

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  • Are Django template tags cached?

    - by thebossman
    I have gone through the (painful) process of writing a custom template tag for use in Django. It is registered as an inclusion_tag so that it renders a template. However, this tag breaks as soon as I try to change something. I've tried changing the number of parameters and correspondingly changing the parameters when it's called. It's clear the new tag code isn't being loaded, because an error is thrown stating that there is a mismatch in the number of parameters, and it's evident that it's attempting to call the old function. The same problem occurs if I try to change the name of the template being rendered and correspondingly change the name of the template on disk. It continues to try to call the old template. I've tried clearing old .pyc files with no luck. Overall, the system is acting as though it's caching the template tags, likely due to the register command. I have dug through endless threads trying to find out if this is so, but all could find it James Bennett stating here that register doesn't do anything. Please help!

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  • Problems with native Win32api RichEdit control and its IRichEditOle interface

    - by Michael
    Hi All! As part of writing custom command (dll with class that implements Interwoven command interface) for one of Interwoven Worksite dialog boxes,I need to extract information from RichEdit textbox. The only connection to the existing dialog box is its HWND handle; Seemingly trivial task , but I got stuck : Using standard win32 api functions (like GetDlgItemText) returns empty string. After using Spy++ I noticed that the dialog box gets IRichEditOle interface and seems to encapsulate the string into OLE object. Here is what I tried to do: IRichEditOle richEditOleObj = null; IntPtr ppv = IntPtr.Zero; Guid guid = new Guid("00020D00-0000-0000-c000-000000000046"); Marshal.QueryInterface(pRichEdit, ref guid, out ppv); richEditOleObj = (IRichEditOle)Marshal.GetTypedObjectForIUnknown(ppv,typeof(IRichEditOle)); judging by GetObjectCount() method of the interface there is exactly one object in the textbox - most likely the string I need to extract. I used GetObject() method and got IOleObject interface via QueryInterface : if (richEditOleObj.GetObject(0, reObject, GetObjectOptions.REO_GETOBJ_ALL_INTERFACES) == 0) //S_OK { IntPtr oleObjPpv = IntPtr.Zero; try { IOleObject oleObject = null; Guid objGuid = new Guid("00000112-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"); Marshal.QueryInterface(reObject.poleobj, ref objGuid, out oleObjPpv); oleObject = (IOleObject)Marshal.GetTypedObjectForIUnknown(oleObjPpv, typeof(IOleObject)); To negate other possibilites I tried to QueryInteface IRichEditOle to ITextDocument but this also returned empty string; tried to send EM_STREAMOUT message and read buffer returned from callback - returned empty buffer. And on this point I got stuck. Googling didn't help much - couldn't find anything that was relevant to my issue - it seems that vast majority of examples on the net about IRichEditOle and RichEdit revolve around inserting bitmap into RichEdit control... Now since I know only basic stuff about COM and OLE , I guess I am missing something important here. I would appreciate any thoughts suggestions or remarks.

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  • WinForms databind to collection property (such as count)

    - by Ornus
    I want to databind to a collection property, such as Count. in general, when I data bind I specify data member for the object property in the collection, not for the actual properties collection itself exposes. for example, I have a list of custom objects. I show them in datagridview. but I also want to show their total count using a separate label. is there a way to do this through databinding? I imagine that somehow I need to force PropertyManager to be used, instead of CurrentyManager? I get the following exception. Notice that DataSource is collection and has TotalValue property. System.ArgumentException: Cannot bind to the property or column TotalValue on the DataSource. Parameter name: dataMember at System.Windows.Forms.BindToObject.CheckBinding() at System.Windows.Forms.Binding.SetListManager(BindingManagerBase bindingManagerBase) at System.Windows.Forms.ListManagerBindingsCollection.AddCore(Binding dataBinding) at System.Windows.Forms.BindingsCollection.Add(Binding binding) at System.Windows.Forms.BindingContext.UpdateBinding(BindingContext newBindingContext, Binding binding) at System.Windows.Forms.Binding.SetBindableComponent(IBindableComponent value) at System.Windows.Forms.ControlBindingsCollection.AddCore(Binding dataBinding) at System.Windows.Forms.BindingsCollection.Add(Binding binding)

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  • Designing a fluid Javascript interface to hide callback asynchrony

    - by Anurag
    How would I design an API to hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX and HTTP requests, or basically delay it to provide a fluid interface. To show an example from Twitter's new Anywhere API: // get @ded's first 20 statuses, filter only the tweets that // mention photography, and render each into an HTML element T.User.find('ded').timeline().first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); function filterer(status) { return status.text.match(/photography/); } vs this (asynchronous nature of each call is clearly visible) T.User.find('ded', function(user) { user.timeline(function(statuses) { statuses.first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); }); }); It finds the user, gets their tweet timeline, filters only the first 20 tweets, applies a custom filter, and ultimately uses the callback function to process each tweet. I am guessing that a well designed API like this should work like a query builder (think ORMs) where each function call builds the query (HTTP URL in this case), until it hits a looping function such as each/map/etc., the HTTP call is made and the passed in function becomes the callback. An easy development route would be to make each AJAX call synchronous, but that's probably not the best solution. I am interested in figuring out a way to make it asynchronous, and still hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX.

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  • LinkageError thrown when attempting to pass instance of class between 2 eclipse plugins

    - by Ed
    I have found many people with simliar issues but no soultions...basically I have two eclipse plug-ins that both in ther class path rely on the same jar. The UI plug-in replies on the Driver plug-in (implementing a custom ODA driver and UI for it). Both rely on a jar containing some other classes of mine and is called plugin-dto.jar When the UI plug-in calls a method on one of the classes in the Driver plug-in that returns an object whose class is found in the plugin-dto jar I get the error: java.lang.LinkageError: Class com/test/reporting/NrDsDriverProvider violates loader constraints at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:620) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.defineClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:183) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.defineClass(ClasspathManager.java:576) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:546) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:477) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass_LockClassLoader(ClasspathManager.java:465) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass(ClasspathManager.java:445) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.findLocalClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:211) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findLocalClass(BundleLoader.java:381) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClassInternal(BundleLoader.java:457) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:410) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:398) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.loadClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:105) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:251) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:319) Any ideas how I get around this issue? Thanks in advance.

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  • Setting Access-Control-Allow-Origin in Dreamhost possible?

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Just wanted a confirmation for this: Firefox currently doesn't play well for picking custom fonts through a sub-domain via the font-face tag. Other browsers do this without any problems. A little research showed up saying that i am required to set the Access-Control-Allow-Origin as is shown in the link here: http://pastie.org/653265 Essentially i have my blog at kaushikgopal.com/blog and i was trying to access fonts that within this blog that are available at font.kaushikgopal.com. I tried changing the same in my .htaccess file but couldn't resolve the issue.(I placed a .htaccess file within the font sub-domain folder and directly pasted code from the above pastie link). I submitted a ticket to dreamhost asking for assistance and they were helpful in clearly stating "We do not support Access-Control-Allow-Origin on shared hosting servers". So i didn't go the sub-domain route for fonts. But i'm a little curious, has anyone tried this (with a dreamhost hosting account would be helpful)? Just want to confirm what the tech-support guy suggested is accurate and there's no other way. Thanks. Another nice link clearly stating the problem : http://www.stevesouders.com/tests/font-face/xdomain.php

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  • Lucene complex structure search

    - by archer
    Basically I do have pretty simple database that I'd like to index with Lucene. Domains are: // Person domain class Person { Set<Pair> keys; } // Pair domain class Pair { KeyItem keyItem; String value; } // KeyItem domain, name is unique field within the DB (!!) class KeyItem{ String name; } I've tens of millions of profiles and hundreds of millions of Pairs, however, since most of KeyItem's "name" fields duplicates, there are only few dozens KeyItem instances. Came up to that structure to save on KeyItem instances. Basically any Profile with any fields could be saved into that structure. Lets say we've profile with properties - name: Andrew Morton - eduction: University of New South Wales, - country: Australia, - occupation: Linux programmer. To store it, we'll have single Profile instance, 4 KeyItem instances: name, education,country and occupation, and 4 Pair instances with values: "Andrew Morton", "University of New South Wales", "Australia" and "Linux Programmer". All other profile will reference (all or some) same instances of KeyItem: name, education, country and occupation. My question is, how to index all of that so I can search for Profile for some particular values of KeyItem::name and Pair::value. Ideally I'd like that kind of query to work: name:Andrew* AND occupation:Linux* Should I create custom Indexer and Searcher? Or I could use standard ones and just map KeyItem and Pair as Lucene components somehow?

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