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  • FF extension: saving a value in preferences and retrieving in the js file

    - by encryptor
    I am making an extension which should take a link as the user input only once. Then the entire extension keeps using that link on various functions in the JS file. When the user changes it, the value accessed by the js file also changes accordingly. I am using the following but it does not work for me var pref_manager = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/preferencesservice;1"].getService(Components.interfaces.nsIPrefService) function setInstance(){ if (pref_manager.prefHasUserValue("myvar")) { instance = pref_manager.getString("myvar"); alert(instance); } if(instance == null){ instance = prompt("Please enter webcenter host and port"); // Setting the value pref_manager.setString("myvar", instance); } } instance is the global variable in which i take the user input. The alert (instance) does not show up, which means there is some problem by the way i am saving the pref or extracting it. Can someone please help me with this. I have never worked with preferences before. so even if there are minor problems i might not be able to figure out.

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  • Python - Things one MUST avoid

    - by Anurag Uniyal
    Today I was bitten again by "Mutable default arguments" after many years. I usually don't use mutable default arguments unless needed but I think with time I forgot about that, and today in the application I added tocElements=[] in a pdf generation function's argument list and now 'Table of Content' gets longer and longer after each invocation of "generate pdf" :) My question is what other things should I add to my list of things to MUST avoid? 1 Mutable default arguments 2 import modules always same way e.g. 'from y import x' and 'import x' are totally different things actually they are treated as different modules see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1459236/module-reimported-if-imported-from-different-path 3 Do not use range in place of lists because range() will become an iterator anyway, so things like this will fail, so wrap it by list myIndexList = [0,1,3] isListSorted = myIndexList == range(3) # will fail in 3.0 isListSorted = myIndexList == list(range(3)) # will not same thing can be mistakenly done with xrange e.g myIndexList == xrange(3). 4 Catching multiple exceptions try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except KeyError,TypeError: print TypeError It prints "hmm bug", though it is not a bug, it looks like we are catching exceptions of type KeyError,TypeError but instead we are catching KeyError only as variable TypeError, instead use try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except (KeyError,TypeError): print TypeError

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  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

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  • clojure: ExceptionInInitializerError in Namespace.<init> loading from a non-default classpath

    - by Charles Duffy
    In attempting to load an AOT-compiled class from a non-default classpath, I receive the following exception: Traceback (innermost last): File "test.jy", line 10, in ? at clojure.lang.Namespace.<init>(Namespace.java:34) at clojure.lang.Namespace.findOrCreate(Namespace.java:176) at clojure.lang.Var.internPrivate(Var.java:149) at aot_demo.JavaClass.<clinit>(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError: java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError I'm able to reproduce this with the following trivial project.clj: (defproject aot-demo "0.1.0-SNAPSHOT" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.3.0"]] :aot [aot-demo.core]) ...and src/aot_demo/core.clj defined as follows: (ns aot-demo.core (:gen-class :name aot_demo.JavaClass :methods [#^{:static true} [lower [java.lang.String] java.lang.String]])) (defn -lower [str] (.toLower str)) The following Jython script is then sufficient to trigger the bug: #!/usr/bin/jython import java.lang.Class import java.net.URLClassLoader import java.net.URL import os cl = java.net.URLClassLoader( [java.net.URL('file://%s/target/aot-demo-0.1.0-SNAPSHOT-standalone.jar' % (os.getcwd()))]) java.lang.Class.forName('aot_demo.JavaClass', True, cl) However, the exception does not occur if the test script is started with the uberjar already in the CLASSPATH variable. What's going on here? I'm trying to write a plugin for the BaseX database in Clojure; the above accurately represents how their plugin-loading mechanism works for the purpose of providing a SSCE for this problem.

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  • Validating Time & Date To Be At Least A Certain Amount Of Time In The Future

    - by MJH
    I've built a reservation form for a taxi company which works fine, but I'm having an issue with users making reservations that are due too soon in the future. Since the entire form is kind of long, I first want to make sure the user is not trying to make a reservation for less than an hour ahead of time, without them having to fill out the whole form. This is what I have come up with so far, but it's just not working: <?php //Set local time zone. date_default_timezone_set('America/New_York'); //Get current date and time. $current_time = date('Y-m-d H:i:s'); //Set reservation time variable $res_datetime = $_POST['res_datetime']; //Set event time. $event_time = strtotime($res_datetime); ?> <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>Check Date and Time</title> </head> <?php //Check to be sure reservation time is at least one hour in the future. if (($current_time - $event_time) <= (3600)) { echo "You must make a reservation at least one hour ahead of time."; } ?> <form name="datetime" action="" method="post"> <input name="res_datetime" type="datetime-local" id="res_datetime"> <input type="submit"> </form> <body> </body> </html> How can I create a validation check to make sure the date and time of the reservation is at least one hour ahead of time?

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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  • Obfuscating ASP.Net dll breaks web application.

    - by uriDium
    I wouldn't usually bother to obfuscate a web application DLL but right now I have to share some server space with someone who might have a conflict of interest and might be tempted to steal the deal and decompile it. Not an ideal solution I know but hey. So I am using VS 2005, a web deployment project (which compiles into a single DLL) and Dotfuscator community edition. When I obfuscate the DLL the web application breaks and I get some message like Could not load type 'Browse' from assembly MyAssembly So I searched around and found that if I disable renaming then it should fix it. Which it does. But now when I look at the DLL using .Net reflector I can see everything again. So this seems kind of pointless. Is there a way to get this to work? Is there a better way to protect my DLL from someone I have to share a server with? UPDATE: I figured out my problem. All the classnames have changed but now all my <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="mycode.aspx.cs" Inherits="mycode" % is incorrect because mycode no longer exists. It is now aef or something. Is there any tool out there that will also change the names of the Codefile and Inherits tags?

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  • pthreads: reader/writer locks, upgrading read lock to write lock

    - by ScaryAardvark
    I'm using read/write locks on Linux and I've found that trying to upgrade a read locked object to a write lock deadlocks. i.e. // acquire the read lock in thread 1. pthread_rwlock_rdlock( &lock ); // make a decision to upgrade the lock in threads 1. pthread_rwlock_wrlock( &lock ); // this deadlocks as already hold read lock. I've read the man page and it's quite specific. The calling thread may deadlock if at the time the call is made it holds the read-write lock (whether a read or write lock). What is the best way to upgrade a read lock to a write lock in these circumstances.. I don't want to introduce a race on the variable I'm protecting. Presumably I can create another mutex to encompass the releasing of the read lock and the acquiring of the write lock but then I don't really see the use of read/write locks. I might as well simply use a normal mutex. Thx

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  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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  • Netbeans PHP Validation sees endif as a syntax error

    - by Asaf
    I have this part of code <?php for ($j=0; $j < $count; $j++): ?> <?php if(isset(votes[$j])): ?> <dt>something something</dt> <dd> <span><?php echo $result; ?>%</span> <div class="bar"> </div> </dd> <?php else: ?> <dt>info</dt> <dd> <span>0</span> <div class="bar"> <div style="width: 0px"></div> </div> </dd> <?php endif; ?> <?php endfor; ?> now Netbeans insists that on the endif line (near the end) there's a syntax error: Error Syntax error: expected: exit, identifier, variable, function... Is there some sort of known problem with the validation of endif on Netbeans ?

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  • How to detect if a file is PDF or TIFF ?

    - by eviljack
    Please bear with me as I've been thrown into the middle of this project without knowing all the background. If you've got WTF questions, trust me, I have them too. Here is the scenario: I've got a bunch of files residing on an IIS server. They have no file extension on them. Just naked files with names like "asda-2342-sd3rs-asd24-ut57" and so on. Nothing intuitive. The problem is I need to serve up files on an ASP.NET (2.0) page and display the tiff files as tiff and the PDF files as PDF. Unfortunately I don't know which is which and I need to be able to display them appropriately in their respective formats. For example, lets say that there are 2 files I need to display, one is tiff and one is PDF. The page should show up with a tiff image, and perhaps a link that would open up the PDF in a new tab/window. The problem: As these files are all extension-less I had to force IIS to just serve everything up as TIFF. But if I do this, the PDF files won't display. I could change IIS to force the MIME type to be PDF for unknown file extensions but I'd have the reverse problem. http://support.microsoft.com/kb/326965 Is this problem easier than I think or is it as nasty as I am expecting?

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  • XSLT: generate multiple object by incrementing attribute and value

    - by Daniel
    Hi, I have a xml as below that I'd like to copy n times while incrementing one of its element and one of its attribute. XML input: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> <number>1</number> </Person> and I'd like something like below with the number of increment to be a variable. XML output: <Person position=1> <name>John</name> <number>1</number> </Person> <Person position=2> <name>John</name> <number>2</number> </Person> .... <Person position=n> <name>John</name> <number>n</number> </Person> Any clue

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  • Jquery click bindings are not working correctly when binding multiple copies

    - by KallDrexx
    I seem to have an issue when creating copies of a template and tying the .click() method to them properly. Take the following javascript for example: var list; // Loop through all of the objects var topics = data.objects; for (x = 0; x < objects.length; x++) { // Clone the object list item template var item = $("#object_item_list_template").clone(); // Setup the click action and inner text for the link tag in the template var objectVal = objects[x].Value; item.find('a').click(function () { ShowObject(objectVal.valueOf(), 'T'); }).html(objects[x].Text); // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); } // Prepend the topics to the topic list $("#object_list").empty().append(list.contents()); The problem I am seeing with this is that no matter which item the user clicks on in the #object_list, ShowObject() is called with the last value of objectVal. So for example, if the 3rd item's <a> is clicked, ShowObject(5,'T'); is called even though objects[2].Value is successfully being seen as 2. How can I get this to work? The main purpose of this code is to take a variable number of items gotten from a JSON AJAX request, make copies of the item template, and insert those copies into the correct spot on the html page. I decided to do it this way so that I can keep all my HTML in one spot for when I need to change the layout or design of the page, and not have to hunt for the html code in the javascript.

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  • How can I get vim to draw lines correctly for remote editing?

    - by Rick Reynolds
    I'm attempting to edit files on a remote system. I've ssh'd to the system and I start editing with vim. However, I notice that all the lines are drawing 2 lines above where they really exist in the file. I assumed this was a problem I could fix by dropping my terminal settings to something simpler, but that didn't help. My TERM variable was set to xterm-color. I set it to vt100, but that didn't fix the line drawing issue. I also noticed that this seems to be specific to vim. emacs doesn't show the problem, and I haven't noticed any odd drawing artifacts in less, more or other paging tools. Other specifics: I'm ssh-ing into the remote system from a Mac, using the Terminal.app. The remote system is running Ubuntu 9.04. I'm hoping there is something I just need to set in vim to get it to play nice. If it allows me to keep syntax color highlighting, so much the better.

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  • How to parse phpDoc style comment block with php?

    - by Reveller
    Please consider the following code with which I'm trying to parse only the first phpDoc style comment (noy using any other libraries) in a file (file contents put in $data variable for testing purposes): $data = " /** * @file A lot of info about this file * Could even continue on the next line * @author [email protected] * @version 2010-05-01 * @todo do stuff... */ /** * Comment bij functie bar() * @param Array met dingen */ function bar($baz) { echo $baz; } "; $data = trim(preg_replace('/\r?\n *\* */', ' ', $data)); preg_match_all('/@([a-z]+)\s+(.*?)\s*(?=$|@[a-z]+\s)/s', $data, $matches); $info = array_combine($matches[1], $matches[2]); print_r($info) This almose works, except for the fact that everything after @todo (including the bar() comment block and code) is considered the value of @todo: Array ( [file] => A lot of info about this file Could even continue on the next line [author] => [email protected] [version] => 2010-05-01 [todo] => do stuff... / /** Comment bij functie bar() [param] => Array met dingen / function bar() { echo ; } ) How does my code need to be altered so that only the first comment block is being parsed (in other words: parsing should stop after the first "*/" encountered?

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  • Getting base address of a process

    - by yoni0505
    I'm trying to make a program that read the timer value from Minesweeper. (OS is windows 7 64bit) Using cheat engine I found the base address of the variable, but it changes every time I run Minesweeper. What do I need to do to find out the base address automatically? Does it have something to do with the executable base address? Here's my code: #include <windows.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { DWORD baseAddress = 0xFF1DAA38;//always changing DWORD offset1 = 0x18; DWORD offset2 = 0x20; DWORD pAddress1; DWORD pAddress2; float value = 0; DWORD pid; HWND hwnd; hwnd = FindWindow(NULL,"Minesweeper"); if(!hwnd)//didn't find the window { cout <<"Window not found!\n"; cin.get(); } else { GetWindowThreadProcessId(hwnd,&pid); HANDLE phandle = OpenProcess(PROCESS_VM_READ,0,pid);//get permission to read if(!phandle)//failed to get permission { cout <<"Could not get handle!\n"; cin.get(); } else { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(baseAddress),&pAddress1,sizeof(pAddress1),0); ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress1 + offset1),&pAddress2,sizeof(pAddress2),0); while(1) { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress2 + offset2),&value,sizeof(value),0); cout << value << "\n"; Sleep(1000); } } } }

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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • Textfield - what is wxTextCtrlNameStr?

    - by Wallter
    I'm trying to create a basic wxWidgets program with a text entry box, in the constructor there is a variable wxTextCtrlNameStr - in researching I can't seem to find wxTextCtrlNameStr? any help? wxTextCtrl(wxWindow* parent, wxWindowID id, const wxString& value = "", const wxPoint& pos = wxDefaultPosition, const wxSize& size = wxDefaultSize, long style = 0, const wxValidator& validator = wxDefaultValidator, const wxString& name = wxTextCtrlNameStr) My Code: MainFrame::MainFrame(const wxString& title) : wxFrame(NULL, wxID_ANY, title) { wxButton * Centigrade = new wxButton(this, BUTTON_CENTIGRADE, _T("to Centigrade"), wxPoint(20, 20), wxDefaultSize, 0); wxButton * Fahrenheit = new wxButton(this, BUTTON_FAHRENHEIT, _T("to Fahrenheit"), wxPoint(20, 40), wxDefaultSize, 0); F_txt = new wxTextCtrl(this, TXT_F_Main, "0", wxDefaultPosition, wxDefaultSize, wxDefaultValidator, wxTextCtrlNameStr); /***********************************************/ C_txt = new wxTextCtrl(this, TXT_C_Main, "0", wxDefaultPosition, wxDefaultSize, wxDefaultValidator, wxTextCtrlNameStr); /***********************************************/ ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ...

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  • Read Java in as Hex

    - by James
    Hi, I have tried to solve this but I keep coming up with stuff that is no help I'm sure this is easy (when you know how of course ;) ) What I would like to do is read in a file using a byte stream like below: while((read = in.read()) != -1){ //code removed to save space Integer.toHexString(read); System.out.println(read); } When it prints out the Hex to the screen it will print out numbers fine e.g 31 13 12 0 but when it comes to a hex code that should be 01 31 it will print 0 131. I want to read it in to a variable like you would see in a hex editor i.e 00 11 21 31 no single numbers as i need to scan the whole file and look for patterns which I know how to do I'm just stuck on this :/ so in short i need a variabe to contain the two hex characters i.e int temp = 01 not int temp = 0 , I hope this all makes sense, I'm a little confused as it's 3am! If anyone knows how to do this I would be most greatful, p.s thanks for the help in advance this site has saved me loads of research and have learnt a lot! Many thanks.

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

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  • Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

    - by marc_s
    Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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