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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • What is happening in this T-SQL code? (Concatenting the results of a SELECT statement)

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

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  • Extract domain from body of email

    - by iman453
    Hi, I was wondering if there is any way I could extract domain names from the body of email messages in python. I was thinking of using regular expressions, but I am not too great in writing them, and was wondering if someone could help me out. Here's a sample email body: <tr><td colspan="5"><font face="verdana" size="4" color="#999999"><b>Resource Links - </b></font><span class="snv"><a href="http://clk.about.com/?zi=4/RZ">Get Listed Here</a></span></td><td class="snv" valign="bottom" align="right"><a href="http://sprinks.about.com/faq/index.htm">What Is This?</a></td></tr><tr><td colspan="6" bgcolor="#999999"><img height="1" width="1"></td></tr><tr><td colspan="6"><map name="sgmap"><area href="http://x.about.com/sg/r/3412.htm?p=0&amp;ref=fooddrinksl_sg" shape="rect" coords="0, 0, 600, 20"><area href="http://x.about.com/sg/r/3412.htm?p=1&amp;ref=fooddrinksl_sg" shape="rect" coords="0, 55, 600, 75"><area href="http://x.about.com/sg/r/3412.htm?p=2&amp;ref=fooddrinksl_sg" shape="rect" coords="0, 110, 600, 130"></map><img border="0" src="http://z.about.com/sg/sg.gif?cuni=3412" usemap="#sgmap" width="600" height="160"></td></tr><tr><td colspan="6">&nbsp;</td></tr> <tr><td colspan="6"><a name="d"><font face="verdana" size="4" color="#cc0000"><b>Top Picks - </b></font></a><a href="http://slclk.about.com/?zi=1/BAO" class="srvb">Fun Gift Ideas</a><span class="snv"> from your <a href="http://chinesefood.about.com">Chinese Cuisine</a> Guide</span></td></tr><tr><td colspan="6" bgcolor="cc0000"><img height="1" width="1"></td></tr><tr><td colspan="6" class="snv"> So I would need "clk.about.com" etc. Thanks!

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  • How to detect if a file is PDF or TIFF ?

    - by eviljack
    Please bear with me as I've been thrown into the middle of this project without knowing all the background. If you've got WTF questions, trust me, I have them too. Here is the scenario: I've got a bunch of files residing on an IIS server. They have no file extension on them. Just naked files with names like "asda-2342-sd3rs-asd24-ut57" and so on. Nothing intuitive. The problem is I need to serve up files on an ASP.NET (2.0) page and display the tiff files as tiff and the PDF files as PDF. Unfortunately I don't know which is which and I need to be able to display them appropriately in their respective formats. For example, lets say that there are 2 files I need to display, one is tiff and one is PDF. The page should show up with a tiff image, and perhaps a link that would open up the PDF in a new tab/window. The problem: As these files are all extension-less I had to force IIS to just serve everything up as TIFF. But if I do this, the PDF files won't display. I could change IIS to force the MIME type to be PDF for unknown file extensions but I'd have the reverse problem. http://support.microsoft.com/kb/326965 Is this problem easier than I think or is it as nasty as I am expecting?

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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • How to index a table with a Type 2 slowly changing dimension for optimal performance

    - by The Lazy DBA
    Suppose you have a table with a Type 2 slowly-changing dimension. Let's express this table as follows, with the following columns: * [Key] * [Value1] * ... * [ValueN] * [StartDate] * [ExpiryDate] In this example, let's suppose that [StartDate] is effectively the date in which the values for a given [Key] become known to the system. So our primary key would be composed of both [StartDate] and [Key]. When a new set of values arrives for a given [Key], we assign [ExpiryDate] to some pre-defined high surrogate value such as '12/31/9999'. We then set the existing "most recent" records for that [Key] to have an [ExpiryDate] that is equal to the [StartDate] of the new value. A simple update based on a join. So if we always wanted to get the most recent records for a given [Key], we know we could create a clustered index that is: * [ExpiryDate] ASC * [Key] ASC Although the keyspace may be very wide (say, a million keys), we can minimize the number of pages between reads by initially ordering them by [ExpiryDate]. And since we know the most recent record for a given key will always have an [ExpiryDate] of '12/31/9999', we can use that to our advantage. However... what if we want to get a point-in-time snapshot of all [Key]s at a given time? Theoretically, the entirety of the keyspace isn't all being updated at the same time. Therefore for a given point-in-time, the window between [StartDate] and [ExpiryDate] is variable, so ordering by either [StartDate] or [ExpiryDate] would never yield a result in which all the records you're looking for are contiguous. Granted, you can immediately throw out all records in which the [StartDate] is greater than your defined point-in-time. In essence, in a typical RDBMS, what indexing strategy affords the best way to minimize the number of reads to retrieve the values for all keys for a given point-in-time? I realize I can at least maximize IO by partitioning the table by [Key], however this certainly isn't ideal. Alternatively, is there a different type of slowly-changing-dimension that solves this problem in a more performant manner?

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  • In Python, how can I find the index of the first item in a list that is NOT some value?

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    Python's list type has an index(x) method. It takes a single parameter x, and returns the (integer) index of the first item in the list that has the value x. Basically, I need to invert the index(x) method. I need to get the index of the first value in a list that does NOT have the value x. I would probably be able to even just use a function that returns the index of the first item with a value != None. I can think of a 'for' loop implementation with an incrementing counter variable, but I feel like I'm missing something. Is there an existing method, or a one-line Python construction that can handle this? In my program, the situation comes up when I'm handling lists returned from complex regex matches. All but one item in each list have a value of None. If I just needed the matched string, I could use a list comprehension like '[x for x in [my_list] if x is not None]', but I need the index in order to figure out which capture group in my regex actually caused the match.

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  • Jquery click bindings are not working correctly when binding multiple copies

    - by KallDrexx
    I seem to have an issue when creating copies of a template and tying the .click() method to them properly. Take the following javascript for example: var list; // Loop through all of the objects var topics = data.objects; for (x = 0; x < objects.length; x++) { // Clone the object list item template var item = $("#object_item_list_template").clone(); // Setup the click action and inner text for the link tag in the template var objectVal = objects[x].Value; item.find('a').click(function () { ShowObject(objectVal.valueOf(), 'T'); }).html(objects[x].Text); // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); } // Prepend the topics to the topic list $("#object_list").empty().append(list.contents()); The problem I am seeing with this is that no matter which item the user clicks on in the #object_list, ShowObject() is called with the last value of objectVal. So for example, if the 3rd item's <a> is clicked, ShowObject(5,'T'); is called even though objects[2].Value is successfully being seen as 2. How can I get this to work? The main purpose of this code is to take a variable number of items gotten from a JSON AJAX request, make copies of the item template, and insert those copies into the correct spot on the html page. I decided to do it this way so that I can keep all my HTML in one spot for when I need to change the layout or design of the page, and not have to hunt for the html code in the javascript.

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • Obfuscating ASP.Net dll breaks web application.

    - by uriDium
    I wouldn't usually bother to obfuscate a web application DLL but right now I have to share some server space with someone who might have a conflict of interest and might be tempted to steal the deal and decompile it. Not an ideal solution I know but hey. So I am using VS 2005, a web deployment project (which compiles into a single DLL) and Dotfuscator community edition. When I obfuscate the DLL the web application breaks and I get some message like Could not load type 'Browse' from assembly MyAssembly So I searched around and found that if I disable renaming then it should fix it. Which it does. But now when I look at the DLL using .Net reflector I can see everything again. So this seems kind of pointless. Is there a way to get this to work? Is there a better way to protect my DLL from someone I have to share a server with? UPDATE: I figured out my problem. All the classnames have changed but now all my <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="mycode.aspx.cs" Inherits="mycode" % is incorrect because mycode no longer exists. It is now aef or something. Is there any tool out there that will also change the names of the Codefile and Inherits tags?

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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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  • How do I use my own debugger visualiser to edit variables runtime?

    - by C Sharper
    I'm writing my own debugger visualiser. All works great to show up to visualiser with the data. Now I add the code for more clearness: public class MyVisualiserObjectSource : VisualizerObjectSource { public override void GetData(object target, Stream outgoingData) { string data= target as string; var writer = new StreamWriter(outgoingData); writer.Write(data); writer.Flush(); } } public class MyVirtualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { var streamReader = new StreamReader(objectProvider.GetData()); string data = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); using (var form = new MyVirtualizerForm(data)) { windowService.ShowDialog(form); } } } The string here is passed to the visualizer and show my own form. It works. But now I want to pass back the modified data from the form to the variable. How do I do that? Edit: I found out that I need to override the TransferData method in VisualizerObjectSource. But in the MSDN is no detail information about how I implement this correctly. Can someone help me please?

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  • Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

    - by superselector
    I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • Finding the Column Index for a Specific Value

    - by Btibert3
    Hi All, I am having a brain cramp. Below is a toy dataset: df <- data.frame( id = 1:6, v1 = c("a", "a", "c", NA, "g", "h"), v2 = c("z", "y", "a", NA, "a", "g"), stringsAsFactors=F) I have a specific value that I want to find across a set of defined columns and I want to identify the position it is located in. The fields I am searching are characters and the trick is that the value I am looking for might not exist. In addition, null strings are also present in the dataset. Assuming I knew how to do this, the variable position indicates the values I would like returned. > df id v1 v2 position 1 1 a z 1 2 2 a y 1 3 3 c a 2 4 4 <NA> <NA> 99 5 5 g a 2 6 6 h g 99 The general rule is that I want to find the position of value "a", and if it is not located or if v1 is missing, then I want 99 returned. In this instance, I am searching across v1 and v2, but in reality, I have 10 different variables. It is also worth noting that the value I am searching for can only exist once across the 10 variables. What is the best way to generate this recode? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Create an instance of an exported C++ class from Delphi

    - by Alan G.
    I followed an excellent article by Rudy Velthuis about using C++ classes in DLL's. Everything was golden, except that I need access to some classes that do not have corresponding factories in the C++ DLL. How can I construct an instance of a class in the DLL? The classes in question are defined as class __declspec(dllexport) exampleClass { public: void foo(); }; Now without a factory, I have no clear way of instantiating the class, but I know it can be done, as I have seen SWIG scripts (.i files) that make these classes available to Python. If Python&SWIG can do it, then I presume/hope there is some way to make it happen in Delphi too. Now I don't know much about SWIG, but it seems like it generates some sort of map for C++ mangled names? Is that anywhere near right? Looking at the exports from the DLL, I suppose I could access functions & constructor/destructor by index or the mangled name directly, but that would be nasty; and would it even work? Even if I can call the constructor, how can I do the equivalent of "new CClass();" in Delphi?

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  • Best method to select an object from another unknown jQuery object

    - by Yosi
    Lets say I have a jQuery object/collection stored in a variable named obj, which should contain a DOM element with an id named target. I don't know in advance if target will be a child in obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="parent"><div id="target"></div></div>'); or if obj equals target, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"></div>'); or if target is a top-level element inside obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"/><span id="other"/>'); I need a way to select target from obj, but I don't know in advance when to use .find and when to use .filter. What would be the fastest and/or most concise method of extracting target from obj? What I've come up with is: var $target = obj.find("#target").add(obj.filter("#target")); UPDATE I'm adding solutions to a JSPERF test page to see which one is the best. Currently my solution is still the fastest. Here is the link, please run the tests so that we'll have more data: http://jsperf.com/jquery-selecting-objects

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  • Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

    - by MarceloRamires
    I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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