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  • Separating columnName and Value in C#

    - by KungfuPanda
    hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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  • Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

    - by derMax
    The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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  • stuck with enable session state

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • .net user control event handler lost on postback

    - by user154008
    I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

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  • How to loop a video in Flash

    - by james
    So i had a video that was in quicktime format, threw it into flash, encoded it without a problem and here is the result i got: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html I would like the video to "loop" or "autorewind" as soon as it ends but i am having the hardest time trying to figure how to do this. Here is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated... if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true&autorewind=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object>

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  • Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

    - by Kyralessa
    We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • .NET Speech recognition plugin Runtime Error: Unhandled Exception. What could possibly cause it?

    - by manuel
    I'm writing a plugin (dll file) for speech recognition, and I'm creating a WinForm as its interface/dialog. When I run the plugin and click the 'Speak' to start the initialization, I get an unhandled exception. Here is a piece of the code: public ref class Dialog : public System::Windows::Forms::Form { public: SpeechRecognitionEngine^ sre; private: System::Void btnSpeak_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { Initialize(); } protected: void Initialize() { if (System::Threading::Thread::CurrentThread->GetApartmentState() != System::Threading::ApartmentState::STA) { throw gcnew InvalidOperationException("UI thread required"); } //create the recognition engine sre = gcnew SpeechRecognitionEngine(); //set our recognition engine to use the default audio device sre->SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice(); //create a new GrammarBuilder to specify which commands we want to use GrammarBuilder^ grammarBuilder = gcnew GrammarBuilder(); //append all the choices we want for commands. //we want to be able to move, stop, quit the game, and check for the cake. grammarBuilder->Append(gcnew Choices("play", "stop")); //create the Grammar from th GrammarBuilder Grammar^ customGrammar = gcnew Grammar(grammarBuilder); //unload any grammars from the recognition engine sre->UnloadAllGrammars(); //load our new Grammar sre->LoadGrammar(customGrammar); //add an event handler so we get events whenever the engine recognizes spoken commands sre->SpeechRecognized += gcnew EventHandler<SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^> (this, &Dialog::sre_SpeechRecognized); //set the recognition engine to keep running after recognizing a command. //if we had used RecognizeMode.Single, the engine would quite listening after //the first recognized command. sre->RecognizeAsync(RecognizeMode::Multiple); //this->init(); } void sre_SpeechRecognized(Object^ sender, SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^ e) { //simple check to see what the result of the recognition was if (e->Result->Text == "play") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"play", 0, 0); } if (e->Result->Text == "stop") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"stop", 0, 0); } } };

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

    - by Goysar
    I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

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  • Multiple table relationships in Zend Help

    - by Zogi
    Hi Guys I have been doing some DB mapping to link two tables to no avail. Everytime I run the code I get the following error: Message: File "Role.php" does not exist or class "Role" was not found in the file Stack trace: #0 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Db\Table\Row\Abstract.php(867): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->_getTableFromString('Role') #1 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\models\admin\User.php(56): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->findDependentRowset('Role') #2 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\controllers\AdminController.php(110): Application_Model_Admin_User->getUsers() #3 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): AdminController->usersAction() #4 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('usersAction') #5 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #6 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #7 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #8 C:\wamp\www\uwi\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #9 {main} Code & DB below: application/models/admin/User.php class Application_Model_Admin_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Role'); public function getUsers() { $rows = $this->fetchAll($this->select()->where('active = ?', 1)); $rows1 = $rows->current(); $rows2 = $rows1->findDependentRowset('Role'); return $rows2; } } application/models/admin/Role.php class Application_Model_Admin_Role extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'role'; protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'Role' => array( 'columns' => array('id'), 'refTableClass' => 'User', 'refColumns' => array('role_id') ); } DB tables CREATE TABLE role ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, name varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, username varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id), FOREIGN KEY(role_id) REFERENCES role(id) );

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  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Qt and variadic functions

    - by Noah Roberts
    OK, before lecturing me on the use of C-style variadic functions in C++...everything else has turned out to require nothing short of rewriting the Qt MOC. What I'd like to know is whether or not you can have a "slot" in a Qt object that takes an arbitrary amount/type of arguments. The thing is that I really want to be able to generate Qt objects that have slots of an arbitrary signature. Since the MOC is incompatible with standard preprocessing and with templates, it's not possible to do so with either direct approach. I just came up with another idea: struct funky_base : QObject { Q_OBJECT funky_base(QObject * o = 0); public slots: virtual void the_slot(...) = 0; }; If this is possible then, because you can make a template that is a subclass of a QObject derived object so long as you don't declare new Qt stuff in it, I should be able to implement a derived templated type that takes the ... stuff and turns it into the appropriate, expected types. If it is, how would I connect to it? Would this work? connect(x, SIGNAL(someSignal(int)), y, SLOT(the_slot(...))); If nobody's tried anything this insane and doesn't know off hand, yes I'll eventually try it myself...but I am hoping someone already has existing knowledge I can tap before possibly wasting my time on it.

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  • iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

    - by Brian515
    Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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  • C# - Naming a value combined "getter/setter" method (WebForms & Binding)

    - by tyndall
    Looking for some help on some names for a project I'm currently working on. I don't have a compsci degree so I don't know what to call this. I have a method called TryToGetSetValue(Direction direction, object value, object valueOnFail) Then there would be a Direction enum public enum Direction { ModelToForm, FormToModel } Background This is a legacy ASP.NET application. The models, database, and mainframe are designed poorly. I can't put in MVP or MVC patterns yet (too much work). ASP.NET code is a ridiculous mess (partial pages, single-page design, 5x the normal amount of jQuery, everything is a jQuery UI dialog). I'm just trying to put in a bridge so then I can do more refactoring over the next year. I have ~200 fields that need to be set on a GET and written back on a POST. I trying not to x2 these 200 fields and have 400 lines of code to support. What would you call my method? enum? Is there so other form of binding that would be easy to use instead? I'm not a fan of the DetailsView or FormView built-ins of ASP.NET WebForms.

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  • transfer database from local machine to hosting server

    - by c11ada
    hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

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  • Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

    - by Oscar Reyes
    I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

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