Search Results

Search found 26283 results on 1052 pages for 'temporary table'.

Page 596/1052 | < Previous Page | 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603  | Next Page >

  • Navigation Controller with Tab Bar only on first view

    - by dinoc
    I am seeking advice on how to start my project. I need to use a combination of the navigation controller and tabbar controller but on the second screen, I need the tabbar controller not to be there. Here is a brief description of the two main screens Screen 1 will have a tabbar controller with two tabs. The first tab is a tableview and when you tap on a table cell, it drills down to Screen 2. The second tab is just a filter view that updates the table in the first tab of Screen 1. Screen two is just a details screen from the cells of Screen 1. The catch is that I don't want the TabBar on Screen 2. I am struggling with how to get started. Do I start with a Navigation-based application since I need to be able to drill down? How do I just add a tab bar to the main screen of the navigation based app? I can't start with a Tab Bar application because if I load a navigation controller inside one of the views of the tab controller, then when I drill down inside the nav controller, the tab bar still stays on the next screen when I need it to go away. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to implement button in a vector

    - by user1880497
    In my table. I want to put some buttons into each row that I can press. But I do not know how to do it public static DefaultTableModel buildTableModel(ResultSet rs) throws SQLException { java.sql.ResultSetMetaData metaData = rs.getMetaData(); // names of columns Vector<String> columnNames = new Vector<String>(); int columnCount = metaData.getColumnCount(); for (int column = 1; column <= columnCount; column++) { columnNames.add(metaData.getColumnName(column)); } // data of the table Vector<Vector<Object>> data = new Vector<Vector<Object>>(); while (rs.next()) { Vector<Object> vector = new Vector<Object>(); for (int columnIndex = 1; columnIndex <= columnCount; columnIndex++) { vector.add(rs.getObject(columnIndex)); } data.add(vector); } return new DefaultTableModel(data, columnNames); }

    Read the article

  • Batch Inserts And Prepared Query Error

    - by ircmaxell
    Ok, so I need to populate a MS Access database table with results from a MySQL query. That's not hard at all. I've got the program written to where it copies a template .mdb file to a temp name and opens it via odbc. No problem so far. I've noticed that Access does not support batch inserting (VALUES (foo, bar), (second, query), (third query)). So that means I need to execute one query per row (there are potentially hundreds of thousands of rows). Initial performance tests show a rate of around 900 inserts/sec into Access. With our largest data sets, that could mean execution times of minutes (Which isn't the end of the world, but obviously the faster the better). So, I tried testing a prepared statement. But I keep getting an error (Warning: odbc_execute() [function.odbc-execute]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver]COUNT field incorrect , SQL state 07001 in SQLExecute in D:\....php on line 30). Here's the code I'm using (Line 30 is odbc_execute): $sql = 'INSERT INTO table ([field0], [field1], [field2], [field3], [field4], [field5]) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)'; $stmt = odbc_prepare($conn, $sql); for ($i = 200001; $i < 300001; $i++) { $a = array($i, "Field1 $", "Field2 $i", "Field3 $i", "Field4 $i", $i); odbc_execute($stmt, $a); } So my question is two fold. First, is there any idea on why I'm getting that error (I've checked, and the number in the array matches the field list which matches the number of parameter ? markers)? And second, should I even bother with this or just use the straight INSERT statements? Like I said, time isn't critical, but if it's possible, I'd like to get that time as low as possible (Then again, I may be limited by disk throughput, since 900 operations/sec is high already)... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Cannot bulk load. The file "c:\data.txt" does not exist.

    - by Daniel Brink
    Hi, I'm having a problem reading data from a text file into ms sql. I created a text file in my c:\ called data.txt, but for some reason ms sql server cannot find the file. I get the error "Cannot bulk load. The file "c:\data.txt" does not exist." Any ideas? The data file (yes I know the data looks crappy, but in the real world thats how it comes from clients): 01-04 10.338,18 0,00 597.877,06- 5 0,7500 62,278- 06-04 91.773,00 9.949,83 679.700,23- 1 0,7500 14,160- 07-04 60.648,40 149.239,36 591.109,27- 1 0,7500 12,314- 08-04 220.173,70 213.804,37 597.478,60- 1 0,7500 12,447- 09-04 986.071,39 0,00 1.583.549,99- 3 0,7500 98,971- 12-04 836.049,00 1.325.234,79 1.094.364,20- 1 0,7500 22,799- 13-04 38.000,00 503.010,49 629.353,71- 1 0,7500 13,111- 14-04 286.400,00 840.126,50 75.627,21- 1 0,7500 1,575- The Sql: CREATE TABLE #temp ( vchCol1 VARCHAR (50), vchCol2 VARCHAR (50), vchCol3 VARCHAR (50), vchCol4 VARCHAR (50), vchCol5 VARCHAR (50), vchCol6 VARCHAR (50), vchCol7 VARCHAR (50) ) BULK insert #temp FROM 'c:\data.txt' WITH ( FIELDTERMINATOR = ' ', ROWTERMINATOR = '\n' ) select * from #temp drop table #temp

    Read the article

  • IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

    - by PFranchise
    Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

    Read the article

  • servlet and jsp sending query result following MVC framework

    - by kawtousse
    Hi every one, in order to separate java code and html code and be more faithful to MVC framework i am coding like that; in the servlet i put the following: net.sf.hibernate.Session s = null; net.sf.hibernate.Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom,dailytimesheet.TrackingDate,dailytimesheet.Activity," + "dailytimesheet.ProjectCode,dailytimesheet.WAName,dailytimesheet.TaskCode," + "dailytimesheet.TimeSpent,dailytimesheet.PercentTaskComplete from Opcemployees opcemployees,Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet " + "where opcemployees.Matricule=dailytimesheet.Matricule and dailytimesheet.Etat=3 " + "group by opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom" ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()){ Object[] row = (Object[]) it.next(); request.setAttribute("items", row); }} } catch (HibernateException e){ e.printStackTrace(); } request.getRequestDispatcher("EspaceValidation.jsp").forward(request, response); and in jsp i start like that: <table> <c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> <tr> <td>? </td> <td>?</td> </tr> </c:forEach> in this case what should i put exactly to obtain my result.a table fulled with the right value from the request

    Read the article

  • URL Rewriting from a subdomain to main domain!

    - by JCHASE11
    Hello. I am developing a pretty large website for a client, and its about 90% complete. It is currently hosted on a subdomain like so: now: v2.websitehere.com when complete: www.websitehere.com My problem is that SO much of this site is linked to the temporary subdomain. The newsletter service, multiple google apis, etc. I also have multiple blogs installed that would be hard to move over. Literally, I have over 20 blogs hosted on the subdomain. I also have other PHP scripts that utilize SQL databases. So, what I am getting at is that a migration would be very difficult: time consuming, frustrating, and not something I want to do. I am looking for a a good solution...similar to Wordpress's URL rewriting. Is there something I can do with .htaccess file? Any ideas would be MUCH appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: How to use modifier keys on form submit?

    - by Svish
    Say I have a form that looks like this: [ Animal name input field ] Add button If I type a name and hit enter, an animal with the given name is added to a table. Works fine. What I would like now is to call the current way of working "quick add" and add a new feature called "slow add", which I am not quite sure how to do. Basically what I want is that if for example the shift key is held down when enter or the button is clicked, I want the form submit method to do something slightly different. In my case I want it to open up a form where more details on the animal can be added before it is added to the table. Problem is I'm not quite sure how to do this. I have tried add a FireBug console.info(eventData) in my current submit function and I have found that the eventData contains an altKey, shiftKey and controlKey property, but they are always undefined even when I hold those keys down. So, does anyone know how I can do something special in my submit handler when certain modifier keys were pressed when the form was submitted?

    Read the article

  • Form:has selector does not work on IE

    - by Joel
    Hey, I am trying to use "form:has" selector which works on Chrome but not on IE. http://jsbin.com/uvumu/2 Does anyone have any idea why it is not working on IE? (when pushing the Post button there should be an alert box) Edited: Here is the code: JS: $(document).ready(function() { $(".comment-link").live('click',function() { return false; }); $("#morefeeds-link").click(function () { return false; }); // Form submittion - doesnt work $("form:has(.commentBtn)").live('submit',function () { alert("a"); return false; }); return false; });? HTML <form> <a href="#" class="comment-link" style="font-size:12px;">Comment</a> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td valign="middle"> <input type="hidden" name="commentkey" value="1"> <input type="text" name="commenttext" class="commentfocus" value="Express your opinion"> </td> <td valign="middle"><input type="submit" class="commentBtn" value="Post"></td> </tr> </table> </form>

    Read the article

  • Magento, 1 db field not saved

    - by david parloir
    Hi there, I have a problem with 1 field of the db. With this code: $expireMonth = Mage::getStoreConfig('points_options/config_points/expiration_period', Mage::app()->getStore()->getId()); if (!is_null($expireMonth) && ($expireMonth > 0)) { $expireDate = date("Y-m-d H:i:s", strtotime("+" . $expireMonth . " month")); } else { $expireDate = NULL; } //die($expireDate); //store in points history table $this->_pointsModel->setCustomerId($this->_customer->getId()) ->setOrdersId('welcome') ->setPointsPending($pointsForNewCustomer) ->setPointsComment(Mage::helper('points')->__('welcome points')) ->setDateAdded(date('Y-m-d H:i:s')) ->setPointsStatus(2)//confirmed ->setPointsType('WE') ->setStoreId(Mage::app()->getStore()->getId()) ->setExpireDate($expireDate) ->save(); every field is saved in the table, except for expire_date. If I uncoment the die($expireData), I see the correct value, something like 2012-01-13 13:21:12. The filed is defined as: `expire_date` datetime NULL Any thaughts? edit: the solution is: $expireDate = date("Y-m-d H:i:s", strtotime("+" . $expireMonth . " months")); check out the "s" in my strtotime expression

    Read the article

  • My MYSQL & PHP while code is out of memory, when there is only one row

    - by Sam
    Hey all, why is this code throwing an out of memory error, when there is only 1 row in the database.. $request_db = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM requests WHERE haveplayed='0'") or die(mysql_error()); $request = mysql_fetch_array( $request_db ); echo "<table border=\"1\" align=\"center\">"; while ( $request['haveplayed'] == "0" ) { echo "<tr><td>"; echo $request['SongName']; echo "</td><td>"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $request['Artist']; echo "</td><td>"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $request['DedicatedTo']; echo "</td><td>"; } echo "</table>"; Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Creation of model in core data on the fly

    - by user1740045
    How can we create a model in core data on the fly? I.e getting the schema of database from somewhere and then creating a Core Data Object graph? *QuesTion:* Yes thats fine, agreed with all the advantages. But, can anybody can tell practically, what is the benefit of integrating Core Data into project instead of using SQL directly. 1.No need to write SQL boiler plate code [but need to learn Core Data Model (steep curve)] 2.WE can undo and redo changes [but practically who needs it] 3.we can migrate to another schema [that can be done by SQLite as well jus need to add another field into table] 4.For say aggregation on some field in table,in Core Data we need to loop through Core Data Objects whereas in SQLite we need to first write SQLite Boiler Plate Code and then the basic aggregation SQL query,which is easy to write,only length of code will increase...But in case of Core Data (need to learn a lot). So apart from reducing the length of Code,does it actually adds value to project? or in terms of Memory Efficiency,Performance,etc.. PS: If anybody has actualy worked on Core Data(Model Creation On the Fly) , if possible share and gve pointers..thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I introspect on a SQL Server?

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    I have a server with a vendor application which is heavily database-reliant. I need to make some minor changes to the data in a few tables in the database in an automated fashion. Just INSERTs and UPDATEs, nothing fancy. Vendors being vendors, I can never be quite sure when they change the schema of a database during upgrade. To that end, how do I ask the SQL server, in some scriptable fashion, "Hey, does this table still exist? Yeah, cool, okay, but does it have this column? What's the data type and size on that? Is it nullable? Could you give me a list of tables? In this table, could you give me a list of columns? Any primary keys there?" I do not need to do this for the whole schema, only part of it, just a quick check of the database before I launch into things. We have Microsoft SQL Server 2005 on it currently, but it might easily move to Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I am probably not using the correct terminology when searching. I do know that ORM is not only too much overhead for this sort of thing, but also that I have no chance of pitching it to my coworkers.

    Read the article

  • how to compare two tables fields name with another value in mysql?

    - by I Like PHP
    I have two tables table_school school_open_time|school_close_time|school_day 8:00 AM | 9:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 7:00PM | Wednesday table_college college_open_time|college_close_time|college_day 10:00 AM | 8:00PM | Monday 10:00 AM | 9:00PM | Tuesday 10:00 AM | 5:00PM | Wednesday Now I want to select school_open_time school_close time, college_open_time and college_close_time according to today (means college_day=school_day=today), and also if there is no row for a specific day in any of one table then it display blank field ( LEFT JOIN , I think I can use). Please suggest me best and optimized query for this. UPDATE: if there is no open time and close time for school then college_open_time and college_close_time has to be returned( not to be filled in database,just return) as school_open_time and school_close_time. and there always must be college_open_time and college_close_time for a given day MORE UPDATE: i m using below query SELECT college_open_time,college_close_time ,school_open_time, school_close_time FROM tbl_college LEFT JOIN tbl_school ON school_owner_id=college_owner_id WHERE college_owner_id='".$_session['user_id']."' AND college_day='".date('l',time())."'"; it return single row (left hand having some value and right hand having blank value) when there is no row of a given day in table_school, BUT display seven rows with same value on left hand side(college_open_time, college_close_time) and 6 blank row on right hand side (school_open_time and school_close_time) i need only one row when both table have a row of a given day but using above query take only first row of corresponding table_school where school_owner_id is 50(let), it not see the condition that school_day name should be given day

    Read the article

  • Return the Column Name for row with last non-null value "Ms Access 2007"

    - by bri1969
    I have a Table, which contains a list of league players. Each season, we record their Points per Dart. Their total PPD for that season is stored in other tables and extracted through other queries, which in turn are imported to the master table "Player History" at the end of the season for use as historical data. The current query retrieves each players PPD for each season they played, when they played last, and how many seasons played. The code for Last season Played has become too long and unstable to use. it was originally created, and split into two separate columns because a single SQL was to long. (LSP1) and LSP2) which work, but as I add seasons, Access does not like the length of code. In short, i need to find a more simple code that will look at each row, and look in that row for the last non null cell and report which column that last non null value is in. So if a player played seasons 30 & 31, but did not play 32..but did play 33, the Column with the code should be titled Last Season Played, and for that Player, it would state "33" in that cell, indicating that this player last played season "33" I will provide both tables and the query.. Please help

    Read the article

  • Strange DataTable behaviour

    - by DocSnuggles
    There´s a strange behaviour in my code which I can´t explain... I have worked arround it but I´d like to know the reason of this behaviour. My Code: If dataset.Tables.Count > 0 Then Dim rows() As DataRow = dataset.Tables(0).Select("FileID = " + fileid.ToString) For Each row As DataRow In rows... the one and only table in dataset is: 18 1 1 testpara42 19 1 2 Para2 23 2 1 Para1 24 2 2 Para42 Where the colums are: ParamID - FileID - ParaPos - Paravalue. I want do filter it so that the only rows I get are the ones with the correct fileid... the result when the selection string is "FileID = 1" is an array with 2 rows... everything is fine... but the filter string "FileID = 2" will return 0 Rows... A filter like "FileID < 1" returns 2 Rows correctly. I really cant´t explain this od behaviour, maybe one of the community does. The Table does have more entries but the Filter string just works with the "FileID = 1" selection. Excuse my bad english. Please explain my mistake to me.

    Read the article

  • asp.net: moving from session variables to cookies

    - by P a u l
    My forms are losing session variables on shared hosting very quickly (webhost4life), and I think I want to replace them with cookies. Does the following look reasonable for tracking an ID from form to form: if(Request.Cookies["currentForm"] == null) return; projectID = new Guid(Request.Cookies["currentForm"]["selectedProjectID"]); Response.Cookies["currentForm"]["selectedProjectID"] = Request.Cookies["currentForm"]["selectedProjectID"]; Note that I am setting the Response cookie in all the forms after I read the Request cookie. Is this necessary? Do the Request cookies copy to the Response automatically? I'm setting no properties on the cookies and create them this way: Response.Cookies["currentForm"]["selectedProjectID"] = someGuid.ToString(); The intention is that these are temporary header cookies, not persisted on the client any longer than the browser session. I ask this since I don't often write websites.

    Read the article

  • Browser-Incompatability with image alignment in CSS using YUI grid (Firefox + Opera)

    - by Rotimi
    I'm having trouble with the alignment of two images on the footer of my temporary website (http://www.rotimioyewole.com). I'm new to the YUI grid, which I think may be a factor. It should look roughly like this (works correctly in Chrome and Safari, haven't tested IE yet): (http://cl.ly/44fH) But on FF and Opera look like this: http://cl.ly/44aO If I can have some sort of consistency then the website would at least be presentable. Ideally, I would also like to align both images on the same Y axis, as well as the text next to the icons. I had trouble figuring out how to search for a solution..can anybody help me? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Sorting nested set by name while keep depth integrity

    - by wb
    I'm using the nested set model that'll later be used to build a sitemap for my web site. This is my table structure. create table departments ( id int identity(0, 1) primary key , lft int , rgt int , name nvarchar(60) ); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (1, 10, 'departments'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (2, 3, 'd'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (4, 9, 'a'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (5, 6, 'b'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (7, 8, 'c'); How can I sort by depth as well as name? I can do select replicate('----', count(parent.name) - 1) + ' ' + node.name , count(parent.name) - 1 as depth , node.lft from departments node , departments parent where node.lft between parent.lft and parent.rgt group by node.name, node.lft order by depth asc, node.name asc; However, that does not match children with their parent for some reason. department lft rgt --------------------------- departments 0 1 ---- a 1 4 ---- d 1 2 -------- b 2 5 -------- c 2 7 As you can see, department 'd' has department 'a's children! Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

    - by Angela
    I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to aggregate over differing where clauses?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Is it possible to calculate multiple aggregates based on differing where clauses? For instance: Let's say I have two tables, one for Invoice and one for InvoiceLineItems. The invoice table has a total field for the invoice total, and each of the invoice line item records in the InvoiceLineItems table contains a field that denotes whether the line item is discountable or not. I want three sum totals, one where Discountable = 0 and one where Discountable = 1 and one where Discountable is irrelevant. Such that my output would be: InvoiceNumber Total DiscountableTotal NonDiscountableTotal ------------- ----- ----------------- -------------------- 1 53.27 27.27 16.00 2 38.94 4.76 34.18 3... The only way I've found so far is by using something like: Select i.InvoiceNumber, i.Total, t0.Total As DiscountableTotal, t1.Total As NonDiscountableTotal From Invoices i Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount), From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 0 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t0 On i.InvoiceNumber = t0.InvoiceNumber Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 1 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t1 On i.InvoiceNumber = t1.InvoiceNumber This seems somewhat cumbersome, it would be nice if I could do something like: Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 1 As Discountable Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 0 As NonDiscountable Group By InvoiceNumber I realize that SQL is completely invalid, but it logically portrays what I'm trying to do... TIA P.S. I need this to run on a SQL Server 2000 instance, but I am also interested (for future reference) if/how I would achieve this on SQL Server 2005/2008.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 FREETEXT() Perfomance Issue

    - by Zenon
    I have a query with about 6-7 joined tables and a FREETEXT() predicate on 6 columns of the base table in the where. Now, this query worked fine (in under 2 seconds) for the last year and practically remained unchanged (i tried old versions and the problem persists) So today, all of a sudden, the same query takes around 1-1.5 minutes. After checking the Execution Plan in SQL Server 2005, rebuilding the FULLTEXT Index of that table, reorganising the FULLTEXT index, creating the index from scratch, restarting the SQL Server Service, restarting the whole server I don't know what else to try. I temporarily switched the query to use LIKE instead until i figure this out (which takes about 6 seconds now). When I look at the query in the query performance analyser, when I compare the ´FREETEXT´query with the ´LIKE´ query, the former has 350 times as many reads (4921261 vs. 13943) and 20 times (38937 vs. 1938) the CPU usage of the latter. So it really is the ´FREETEXT´predicate that causes it to be so slow. Has anyone got any ideas on what the reason might be? Or further tests I could do?

    Read the article

  • What is the best signature for overloaded arithmetic operators in C++?

    - by JohnMcG
    I had assumed that the canonical form for operator+, assuming the existence of an overloaded operator+= member function, was like this: const T operator+(const T& lhs, const T& rhs) { return T(lhs) +=rhs; } But it was pointed out to me that this would also work: const T operator+ (T lhs, const T& rhs) { return lhs+=rhs; } In essence, this form transfers creation of the temporary from the body of the implementation to the function call. It seems a little awkward to have different types for the two parameters, but is there anything wrong with the second form? Is there a reason to prefer one over the other?

    Read the article

  • JPA Problems mapping relationships

    - by Rosen Martev
    Hello. I have a problem when I try to persist my model. An exception is thrown when creating the EntityManagerFactory: Blockquote javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: NIF] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:126) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:52) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:34) at project.serealization.util.PersistentManager.createSession(PersistentManager.java:24) at project.serealization.SerializationTest.testProject(SerializationTest.java:25) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:79) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in nif.action_element for column FLOW_ID. Found: double, expected: bigint at org.hibernate.mapping.Table.validateColumns(Table.java:284) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.validateSchema(Configuration.java:1116) at org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaValidator.validate(SchemaValidator.java:139) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.(SessionFactoryImpl.java:349) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1327) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.buildSessionFactory(AnnotationConfiguration.java:867) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:669) ... 24 more The code for SimpleActionElement and SimpleFlow is as follows: @Entity public class SimpleActionElement { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, targetEntity = SimpleFlow.class) @JoinColumn(name = "FLOW_ID") private SimpleFlow<T> flow; ... } @Entity public class SimpleFlow<T> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "ELEMENT_ID") private Long element_id; ... }

    Read the article

  • how to disable an onclick event?

    - by user1819709
    <form id="QandA" action="<?php echo htmlentities($action); ?>" method="post"> <table id="question"> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <a onclick="return plusbutton();"> <img src="Images/plussign.jpg" width="30" height="30" alt="Look Up Previous Question" class="plusimage" id="mainPlusbutton" name="plusbuttonrow"/> </a> <span id="plussignmsg">(Click Plus Sign to look up Previous Questions)</span> </td> </tr> </table> </form> In the code above I am able to replace an image with another image when the if statement is met. But my problem is that when the image is replaced, it does not disable the on click event. My question is that when the image is replaced, how do I disable the onclick event onclick="return plusbutton();?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603  | Next Page >