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• Android - Two different programs at the same time in an emulator

  - by Léa Massiot

  I'm new to Android development. My OS is WinXP. I'm trying to install two different applications on an Android Device Emulator in command line. I have two Android projects "ap1" and "ap2". In the "ap1" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap1.apk" executable. In the "ap2" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap2.apk" executable. I created an Android Virtual Device: cmd_line android create avd -n avd1 -t 1 --abi x86 I launched the emulator: cmd_line emulator -avd avd1 -verbose The "adb devices" command returns: List of devices attached emulator-5554 device I installed the first program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap1.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 = It worked. I installed the second program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap2.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg2.android/.AnotherActivity1 = It worked. All this works except that the second executable "replaced" of the first one. If I try to run the first executable, I get an error: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 Starting: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cmp=my.pkg.android/.Activity1 } Error type 3 Error: Activity class {my.pkg.android/my.pkg.android.Activity1} does not exist. It looks like I can't have the two apps at the same time in the emulator. What do you think? What do I have to do to have the two apps available (at the same time) in the emulator? Thank you for helping. Best regards.

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• Cannot connect Nexus One Phone to Android adb

  - by appbee

  I am running Android SDK 2.2 and am trying to get the adb to connect to the Google Nexus One phone. Its a new phone, shipped straight from Google - haven't installed any apps on it yet. (I have Windows XP) Here is what I have done so far: Followed the instructions on setting up the device for development as given on the Android Developer's site: http://developer.android.com/guide/developing/device.html added android:debuggable="true" to my application manifest USB debuggable is checked on the phone downloaded the Device Drivers For Windows Revision 3 (this supports Nexus One phones) Went through the Hardware Installation wizard to install the device - the device shows up as "Android Composite ADB Interface". When I run adb devices on the shell, the device appears for a moment, then disappears. On the Eclipse console, I get the following message: [2010-11-13 11:54:42 - DeviceMonitor]Failed to start monitoring I have rebooted the pc several times, uninstalled and reinstalled the drivers several times, but I get the same error each time. As I was researching this problem, someone had recommended rebooting the phone. I am a bit confused by that - is that a soft or hard reboot? Do I just power the phone off/on and is there something more complex involved? Do I have to hard reboot it to reset to factory version - even though its brand new? Has anyone run into a similar problem? Any help on this would be great. I can't test my application on the device if the adb cannot view the device. Thanks so much in advance.

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• Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

  - by jishi

  I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

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• Micro Second resolution timestamps on windows.

  - by Nikhil

  How to get micro second resolution timestamps on windows? I am loking for something better than QueryPerformanceCounter, QueryPerformanceFrequency (these can only give you an elapsed time since boot, and are not necessarily accurate if they are called on different threads - ie QueryPerformanceCounter may return different results on different CPUs. There are also some processors that adjust their frequency for power saving, which apparently isn't always reflected in their QueryPerformanceFrequency result.) There is this, http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163996.aspx but it does not seem to be solid. This looks great but its not available for download any more. http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/library/i-seconds/ This is another resource. http://www.lochan.org/2005/keith-cl/useful/win32time.html But requires a number of steps, running a helper program plus some init stuff also, I am not sure if it works on multiple CPUs Also looked at the Wikipedia link on the subject which is interesting but not that useful. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_Stamp_Counter If the answer is just do this with BSD or Linux, its a lot easier thats fine, but I would like to confirm this and get some explanation as to why this is so hard in windows and so easy in linux and bsd. Its the same damm hardware...

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• .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

  - by Yoooder

  This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

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• C# generics when T could be an array

  - by bufferz

  I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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• Database structure for ecommerce site

  - by imanc

  Hey Guys, I have been tasked with designing an ecommerce solution. The aspect that is causing me the most problems is the database. Currently the site consists of 10+ country based shops each with their own database (all residing on the same mysql instance). For the new site I'd rather all these shop databases be merged into one database so that all tables (products, orders, customers etc.) have a shop_id field. From a programming perspective this seems to make the most sense as we won't have to manage data across multiple databases. Currently the entire site generates about 120k orders a year, but is experiencing fairly heavy growth and we need to design a solution that will scale. In 5 years there may be more than a million orders per year and a database that contains 5 years order history (archiving maybe a solution here). The question is - do we use a single database, or do we keep the database-per-shop structure? I am currently trying to find supporting evidence for either avenue. The company I am designing the solution for prefer the per-shop database structure because they believe it will allow the sites to scale. But my argument is that the shop's database probably won't get that busy over the next few years that they exceed the capacity of a mysql database and a "no expenses spared" hardware set-up. I am wondering if anyone has any advice either way? Does anyone have experience with websites / ecommerce sites that have tables containing millions of records? I know there is probably not a clear answer here, but at what stage do we have too many records or too large table files to have a fast loading site? Also, if anyone has any advice on sources of information - books, websites, etc. where I can do further research, it would be highly appreciated! Cheers, imanc

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• Trying to make a plugin system in C++/Qt

  - by Pirate for Profit

  I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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• Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

  - by vivek m

  I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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• How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

  - by Barrett Kuethen

  I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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• How good is the memory mapped Circular Buffer on Wikipedia?

  - by abroun

  I'm trying to implement a circular buffer in C, and have come across this example on Wikipedia. It looks as if it would provide a really nice interface for anyone reading from the buffer, as reads which wrap around from the end to the beginning of the buffer are handled automatically. So all reads are contiguous. However, I'm a bit unsure about using it straight away as I don't really have much experience with memory mapping or virtual memory and I'm not sure that I fully understand what it's doing. What I think I understand is that it's mapping a shared memory file the size of the buffer into memory twice. Then, whenever data is written into the buffer it appears in memory in 2 places at once. This allows all reads to be contiguous. What would be really great is if someone with more experience of POSIX memory mapping could have a quick look at the code and tell me if the underlying mechanism used is really that efficient. Am I right in thinking for example that the file in /dev/shm used for the shared memory always stays in RAM or could it get written to the hard drive (performance hit) at some point? Are there any gotchas I should be aware of? As it stands, I'm probably going to use a simpler method for my current project, but it'd be good to understand this to have it in my toolbox for the future. Thanks in advance for your time.

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• Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

  - by Sam

  This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

  - by Aki Iskandar

  Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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• User to kernel mode big picture?

  - by fsdfa

  I've to implement a char device, a LKM. I know some basics about OS, but I feel I don't have the big picture. In a C programm, when I call a syscall what I think it happens is that the CPU is changed to ring0, then goes to the syscall vector and jumps to a kernel memmory space function that handle it. (I think that it does int 0x80 and in eax is the offset of the syscall vector, not sure). Then, I'm in the syscall itself, but I guess that for the kernel is the same process that was before, only that it is in kernel mode, I mean the current PCB is the process that called the syscall. So far... so good?, correct me if something is wrong. Others questions... how can I write/read in process memory?. If in the syscall handler I refer to address, say, 0xbfffffff. What it means that address? physical one? Some virtual kernel one?

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• mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

  - by axeoth

  See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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• ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

  - by MattSlay

  This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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• odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

  - by giddy

  This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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• How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

  - by skolima

  I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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• How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

  - by RWC

  In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Web API Getting Http 500 error : Issue Solved See Below

  - by Joe Grasso

  Here is my MVC Controller and everything is fine: private UnitOfWork UOW; public InventoryController() { UOW = new UnitOfWork(); } // GET: /Inventory/ public ActionResult Index() { var products = UOW.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return View(products); } Same method call in API Controller gives me an Http 500 Error: private UnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public TestController() { _unitOfWork = new UnitOfWork(); } public IEnumerable<Product> Get() { var products = _unitOfWork.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return products; } Debugging shows that indeed there is data being returned in both controllers' UOW calls. I then added a customer configuration in Global: public static void CustomizeConfig(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Formatters.Remove(config.Formatters.XmlFormatter); var json = config.Formatters.JsonFormatter; json.SerializerSettings.ContractResolver = new CamelCasePropertyNamesContractResolver(); } I am still receiving an Http 500 in API Controller ONLY and at a loss as to why. Any ideas? UPDATE: It appears using lazy loading caused the problem. When I set the associated properties to NON-VIRTUAL the Test API provided the necessary JSON string. However, whereas before I had the Vendor class included, I only have VendorId. I really wanted to included the associated classes. Any ideas? I know there are alot of smart people out there. Anyone?

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• Attach an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. LINQ to SQL -

  - by soldieraman

  Alright How I got this error I got one application sitting on a server 2 users accessing this application - doing some bulk data processing . eg. entering values and then the application is working with another system to extract values for them and then saving. I can't recreate the error The error logs show: The error happend at the same time in both the application Both happend on a Attach/Submit (but two different functions) There is no way they are using the same DataContext object as I save the DataContext in the HttpContext.Items My hunch / guess is: One datacontext was not refreshed i.e. the an object was created for the same item twice as it was new in both the forms. eg. Customer Number - a customer was created (as one couldn't be found) by one datacontext - the other one couldn't find it either (i am using compiled queries to find it in the datacontext) so it created another object and on attaching failed. The HttpContext.Items lost its value somehow (i am using a virtual pc as server - maybe something went wrong there) I am going more of the second as I can't recreate the error - but it just might be a timing (for attach/save) thing - also the error makes me think of the 2nd too.

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• Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

  - by goober

  Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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• Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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