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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • Visual Studio breaks, and steps, but sometimes steps out

    - by James Wilkins
    Something very odd is going on. It's been going on for some time, but I've just ignored it up to now. I have both a Silverlight and WCF service in my solution, which shares .CS file between them (one project has a link to the file, which exists in the other project). While debugging the Silverlight app, pressing the F10 key steps through code as normal, and when I get to a method call which exists in the shared file (between the projects), and Press F11, it simply skips the method instead of stepping into it (and yes, the "Just My Code" option is not checked). If I put a breakpoint in the method I'm trying to get into, it works fine (as in the debugger will break on the line), but as soon as I step (F10) it exits the method (and with F11 [step into] also). Ok, on first thought, you might think it's to do with the link, but no, it isn't. I tried removing the link and using a copy instead, but the same thing happens. And no, it's not the debug symbols, I looked into that already. The method I'm trying to step through is static, and is in a non-static partial class, in a file shared by both projects. My guess: The same types and static methods exist in the WCF and Silverlight ... would the debugger get confused?

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  • Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

    - by Shubh
    Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

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  • Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

    - by prendio2
    I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

    - by Al C
    This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

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  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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  • why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

    - by AndrewSmith
    I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

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  • Observer Design Pattern - multiple event types

    - by David
    I'm currently implementing the Observer design pattern and using it to handle adding items to the session, create error logs and write messages out to the user giving feedback on their actions (e.g. You've just logged out!). I began with a single method on the subject called addEvent() but as I added more Observers I found that the parameters required to detail all the information I needed for each listener began to grow. I now have 3 methods called addMessage(), addStorage() and addLog(). These add data into an events array that has a key related to the event type (e.g. log, message, storage) but I'm starting to feel that now the subject needs to know too much about the listeners that are attached. My alternative thought is to go back to addEvent() and pass an event type (e.g. USER_LOGOUT) along with the data associated and each Observer maintains it's own list of event handles it is looking for (possibly in a switch statement), but this feels cumbersome. Also, I'd need to check that sufficient data had also been passed along with the event type. What is the correct way of doing this? Please let me know if I can explain any parts of this further. I hope you can help and see the problem I'm battling with.

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  • How to detect changing directory size in Perl

    - by materiamage
    Hello, I am trying to find a way of monitoring directories in Perl, in particular the size of a directory, and upon detecting a change in directory size, perform a particular action. The issue I have is with large files that require a noticeable amount of time to copy into this directory, i.e. 100MB. What happens (in Windows, not Unix) is the system reserves enough disk space for the entire file, even though the file is still copying in progress. This causes problems for me, because my script will try to perform an action on this file that has not finished copying over. I can easily detect directory size changes in Unix via 'du', but 'du' in Windows does not behave the same way. Are there any accurate methods of detecting directory size changes in Perl? Edit: Some points to clarify: - My Perl script is only monitoring a particular directory, and upon detecting a new file or a new directory, perform an action on this new file or directory. It is not copying any files; users on the network will be copying files into the directory I am monitoring. - The problem occurs when a new file or directory appears (copied, not moved) that is significantly large ( 100MB, but usually a couple GB) and my program fires before this copy completes - In Unix I can easily 'du' to see that the file/directory in question is growing in size, and take the appropriate action - In Windows the size is static, so I cannot detect this change - opendir/readdir/closedir is not feasible, as some of the directories that appear may contain thousands of files, and I want to avoid the overhead of Ideally I would like my program to be triggered on change, but I am not sure how to do this. As of right now it busy waits until it detects a change. The change in file/directory size is not in my control.

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  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • Moving UIScrollView in App

    - by jsetting32
    Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

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  • Multiple websites, Single sign-on design

    - by Yannis
    Hi all, I have a question. A client I have been doing some work recently has a range of websites with different login mechanisms. He is looking to slowly migrate to a single sign-on mechanism for his websites (all written in asp.net mvc). I am looking at my options here, so here is a list of requirements: 1) It has to be secure (duh) 2) It needs to support extra user properties over and above the usual name, address stuff (such as money or credits for a user) 3) It has to provide a centralized user management web console for his convenience (I understand that this will be a small project on top of whatever design solution I choose to go for) 4) It has to integrate with the existing websites without re-engineering the whole product (I understand that this depends on the current product implementation). 5) It has to deal with emailing the user when he registers (in order for him to activate his account) 6) It has to deal with activating the user when he clicks the activate me link in the email (I understand that 5 and 6 require some form of email templating system to support different emails per application) I was thinking of creating a library working together with forms authentication that exposes whatever methods are required (e.g. login, logout, activate, etc. and a small restful service to implement activation from email, registration processing etc. Taking into account that loads of things have been left out to make this question brief and to the point, does this sound like a good design? But this looks like a very common problem so arent there any existing projects that I could use? Thanks for reading.

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

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  • Rails 3 : Can't get form_for to work as a 'delete' following the RESTful achitecture => always giving a ROUTING ERROR

    - by Alex
    I have a very simple render that goes as follow: <%= form_for(:relationships, :url => relationships_path, :html => {:method => 'delete'}) do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :user_id_to_unfollow, :value => @user.id %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Unfollow" %></div> <% end %> When I submit this form it will always give me a Routing Error No route matches "/relationships" on my page. In my relationships controller, I have created all the propers methods: def create ... end def destroy ... end def update ... end def show ... end And in my routes config I have made sure to allow all routes for the relationships controller resources :relationships But I can't seem to get into the destroy method of the controller :( However if I remove the :html => {:method => 'delete'} method parameter in the form_for then I get to the create method of the controller no pb. I don't get it.... Alex

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  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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  • Force sending a user to custom QuerySet.

    - by Jack M.
    I'm trying to secure an application so that users can only see objects which are assigned to them. I've got a custom QuerySet which works for this, but I'm trying to find a way to force the use of this additional functionality. Here is my Model: class Inquiry(models.Model): ts = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) assigned_to_user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True, related_name="assigned_inquiries") objects = CustomQuerySetManager() class QuerySet(QuerySet): def for_user(self, user): return self.filter(assigned_to_user=user) (The CustomQuerySetManager is documented over here, if it is important.) I'm trying to force everything to use this filtering, so that other methods will raise an exception. For example: Inquiry.objects.all() ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.filter(pk=69) ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user).filter(pk=69) ## Should work. inqs = Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user) ## Should work. inqs.filter(pk=69) ## Should work. It seems to me that there should be a way to force the security of these objects by allowing only certain users to access them. I am not concerned with how this might impact the admin interface.

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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