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  • touches event handler for UIImageView

    - by madmik3
    I am just getting stated with iPhone development and can't seem to find the answer I am looking for what I want to do. It seems like I should be able to programmatically create a UIImageView and then set up an event handler for it's touch functions. in c# i would have something that looks like Button b = new Button(); b.Click+= my handler code right now I have this CGRect myImageRect = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 141.0f, 151.0f); UIImageView *myImage = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:myImageRect]; myImage.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [myImage setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; myImage.opaque = YES; // explicitly opaque for performance [self.view addSubview:myImage]; [myImage release]; What do I need to do to override the touch events? thanks

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  • Where to put default-servlet-handler in Spring MVC configuration

    - by gigadot
    In my web.xml, the default servlet mapping, i.e. /, is mapped to Spring dispatcher. In my Spring dispatcher configuration, I have DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping, ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping and AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter which allows me to map url to controllers either by its class name or its @Requestmapping annotation. However, there are some static resources under the web root which I also want spring dispatcher to serve using default servlet. According to Spring documentation, this can be done using <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> tag. In the configuration below, there are 4 candidate locations that I marked which are possible to insert this tag. Inserting the tag in different location causes the dispatcher to behave differently as following : Case 1 : If I insert it at location 1, the dispatcher will no longer be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name but it will be serving the static content normally. Cas 2, 3 : It will be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name as well as serving the static content if other mapping cannot be done successfully. Case 4 : It will not be able to serve the static contents. Therefore, Case 2 and 3 are desirable .According to Spring documentation, this tag configures a handler which precedence order is given to lowest so why the position matters? and Which is the best position to put this tag? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="webapp.controller"/> <!-- Location 1 --> <!-- Enable annotation-based controllers using @Controller annotations --> <bean id="annotationUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 2 --> <bean id="controllerClassNameHandlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 3 --> <bean id="annotationMethodHandlerAdapter" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <!-- Location 4 --> <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> <!-- All views are JSPs loaded from /WEB-INF/jsp --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • Verify my form workflow

    - by Shackrock
    I have a form, with some sensitive info (CC numbers). My work flow is: One page to take all form items Upon submission, values are validated. If all is well, all data is stored in a session variable, and the page reloads and displays this info from the session variable. If everything is ok on the review page, the user clicks submit and the session variable is sent to another form for processing (sending payment). Upon success, the session is destroyed. Upon failure (bad CC number, for example) - the user is sent back to the form, with all of the fields filled in just like before, so that they can check for errors and try again (session is NOT destroyed). Does anyone see anything wrong with this, from a security or best practices stand point? UPDATE I'm thinking I can get rid of a step - storing the info in a session EVER. Just have a one page checkout, no review page... makes sense.

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  • Session management with OpenID, in ASP.NET

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am currently playing with DotNetOpenAuth to make an ASP.NET (C#) website use OpenID instead of the normal login-password routine for user and session handling. Up till now, I have added the DotNetOpenAuth.dll into my project and tried a test login page with the following: <rp:OpenIdLogin ID="OpenIdLogin1" runat="server" /> When I run the page, I enter a valid myopenid url and the website redirects to the myopenid page, where I enter my password, and upon success, it returns back to my default.aspx, due to the following in my web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms defaultUrl="/Default.aspx" loginUrl="~/Login.aspx"/> </authentication> Now that the user is "logged in", how can handle my session? At the moment, I don't know how I can, for example, check if the session is still alive or how to terminate the session. My basic question is, how can I manage the session once the user is authenticated with OpenID ?

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  • jQuery event handler queue

    - by resopollution
    Overview of the problem In jQuery, the order in which you bind a handler is the order in which they will be executed if you are binding to the same element. For example: $('#div1').bind('click',function(){ // code runs first }); $('#div1').bind('click',function(){ // code runs second }); But what if I want the 2nd bound code to run first? . My current solution Currently, my solution is to modify the event queue: $.data(domElement, 'events')['click'].unshift({ type : 'click', guid : null, namespace : "", data : undefined, handler: function() { // code } }); . Question Is there anything potentially wrong with my solution? Can I safely use null as a value for the guid? Thanks in advance. .

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  • Lazy loading in Hibernate

    - by Steve
    My Java Web application uses Hibernate to perform ORM. In some of my objects, I use lazy loading to avoid getting data until I absolutely need it. The problem is that I load the initial object in a session, and then that session is destroyed. When I later attempt to resolve the lazy-loaded collections in my object I get the following error: org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: common.model.impl.User.groups, no session or session was closed I tried associating a new session with the collection and then resolving, but this gives the same results. Does anyone know how I can resolve the lazy collections once the original session is gone? Thanks... --Steve

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  • Saving HttpResponse/Request to file system

    - by chrisjlong
    Here is my scenario. User fills out this large page which is dynamically created based off DB values. Those values can change. When the user fills out the page and hits submit we want to save a copy of the page as html on the server, this way if the text or wording changes, when they go back to view their posted information, it is historically accurate. So I basically need to do this protected void buttonSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //collect information into an object to save it in the db bool result = BusinessLogic.Save(myBusinessObject); if (result) //!!! Here is where I need to save this page as an html file on my servers IFS!!!! else //whatever Response.Redirect("~/SomeOtherPage.aspx"); } Any help is greatly apprciated. Also I CANNOT just request the data from the url because query string parameters are a big no no in this case. The key to pull the database info up (at its highest level) is all in session so I cant just request a url and save it. Thanks!

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  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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  • Using a JMS Session from different threads

    - by Evan
    From the javadoc for Session it states: A Session object is a single-threaded context for producing and consuming messages. So I understand that you shouldn't use a Session object from two different threads at the same time. What I'm unclear on is if you could use the Session object (or children such as a Queue) from a different thread than the one it created. In the case I'm working on, I'm considering putting my Session objects into a pool of available sessions that any thread could borrow from, use, and return to the pool when it is finished with it. Is this kosher? (Using ActiveMQ BTW, if that impacts the answer at all.)

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  • tomcat 6 - Cluster / BackupManager

    - by Kevin
    Hi, I have a question regarding Clustering (session replication/failover) in tomcat 6 using BackupManager. Reason I chose BackupManager, is because it replicates the session to only one other server. I am going to run through the example below to try and explain my question. I have 6 nodes setup in a tomcat 6 cluster with BackupManager. The front end is one Apache server using mod_jk with sticky session enabled Each node has 1 session each. node1 has a session from client1 node2 has a session from client2 .. .. Now lets say node1 goes down ; assuming node2 is the backup, node2 now has two sessions (for client2 and client1) The next time client1 makes a request, what exactly happens ? Does Apache "know" that node1 is down and does it send the request directly to node2 ? =OR= does it try each of the 6 instances and find out the hard way who the backup is ?

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  • Django: accessing session variables from within a template?

    - by AP257
    Hi all If I set a session variable in Django, like: request.session["name"] = "name" Is there a way I can access it from within a template, or do I have to retrieve it from within a view, and then pass it to a template? Asking because I have around 10 little session variables that I'd like to access within a template, and passing all 10 from the view to the template could get a bit messy. (I have to use session variables because it's a HttpResponseRedirect, but storing the variables in a database is overkill for my purposes.) So - any way to grab session variables directly within a template?

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  • Can't resolve CalledFromWrongThreadException with Handler

    - by michel
    I will try to keep it simple: In my main activity I make a handler: public class ARViewer extends ARDisplayActivity { public final MHandler mHandler = new MHandler(this); public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { ... The class MHandler: public final class MHandler extends Handler{ //main activity private ARViewer arnv; public MHandler(ARViewer arnv){ this.arnv = arnv; } @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { ... case H_RR : arnv.setContentView(R.layout.routeplanner); break; ... super.handleMessage(msg); } } But if I call the handleMessage method from a callback function in a other Class, definitely from a other thread, I still get the exception message: CalledFromWrongThreadException (Only the original thread that created a view hierarchy can touch its views) : public void rFound(Route route) { Message msg = new Message(); msg.what = MHandler.H_RR; ARViewer.arnv.mHandler.handleMessage(msg); }

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  • Issue using Session in MVC Actions with [authorice]

    - by Pablo Gonzalez
    Hi all, first of all sorry for my poor English! When I use the [Authorice` attribute i can't get Session data that i stored before. For example: public ViewResult Index() { // do some stuffs Session["Test"] = "Hi stackoverflow!"; } And then i try to get it in another action, but with the [Authorize] attibute [Authorize] public ViewResult Test() { // do some stuffs if(Session["Test"] == null) { //do some stuffs } } Session["Test"] is always null, but if i remove the attribute it's work, may anyone help me?, thanks a lot!!! P.S: I instance Session["Test"] in Session_Start

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  • ASP control event handler not firing on postback?

    - by Polaris878
    Hello, I have a control which has an ImageButton which is tied to an OnClick event... Upon clicking this control, a postback is performed and the event handler is not called. AutoEventWireup is set to true, and I've double checked spelling etc.... We haven't touched this control in over a year and it has been working fine until a couple of weeks ago. We have made changes to controls which load this control... so I'm wondering, what kind of changes could we have made to stop this event handler from being called? There is quite a bit of Javascript going on, so this could be the culprit too... Thanks

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  • Approach for authentication and storing user details.

    - by cappuccino
    Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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  • NHibernate parent-childs save redundant sql update executed

    - by Broken Pipe
    I'm trying to save (insert) parent object with a collection of child objects, all objects are new. I prefer to manually specify what to save\update and when so I do not use any cascade saves in mappings and flush sessions by myself. So basically I save this object graph like: session.Save(Parent) foreach (var child in Parent.Childs) { session.Save(child); } session.Flush() I expect this code to insert Parent row, then each child row, however NHibernate executes this SQL: INSERT INTO PARENT.... INSERT INTO CHILD .... UPDATE CHILD SET ParentId=@1 WHERE Id=@2 This update statement is absolutely unnecessary, ParentId was already set correctly in INSERT. How do I get rid of it? Performance is very important for me.

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  • Installing a condition handler in Common Lisp

    - by Paul Nathan
    The HTTP library Drakma on CLISP generates an error USOCKET:UNSUPPORTED due to a bug in Drakma+CLISP. However, it turns out that the CONTINUE restart seems to work fine. Therefore, I spent some time with CLtL and other references trying to determine how to write a restart handler. (defun http-request (url param) (handler-bind ((USOCKET:UNSUPPORTED #'(lambda (x) (invoke-restart 'continue))))) (drakma:http-request url :method :post :parameters param)) According to my best understanding, the above code should trap the error USOCKET:UNSUPPORTED. It doesn't; it seems to ignore the error binder. How do I fix this?

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  • glReadPixels and save to image

    - by Julius Petraška
    I have app, where user drags and drops image, and it is being redrawn with OpenGL for some aviable processing. Everything works. And when user wants to save his image it works like that: glReadPixels -> NSBitmapImageRep -> NSData -> Write to file This works too. Almost. With some images it is not working as it should work. For example: .png when I open and save this image: I get: And if I open and save this image: I get: .jpg If I open and save: I get: And when I open and save: I get: So sometimes images saves badly. Why is it happening?

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  • jQuery/javascript events - prototype event handler

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    The following code doesn't work as I intuitively expect it to: function MyObject(input) { input.change(this._foo); this.X = undefined; } MyObject.prototype._foo = function() { alert("This code is never called"); // but if it did this.X = true; } var test_input = $("input#xyz"); // a random, existing input var m = MyObject(test_input); // attach handler (or try to) test_input.change(); // trigger event alert(m.X); // undefined I'd expect that _foo() would be called (and, if that ever happens, that the this variable in _foo() would be an instantiation of MyObject. Does anyone know why this doesn't work, and of any alternative pattern for passing an object to an event handler? Thank you for reading. Brian

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  • Visual Studio Macro: How to perform "File -> Save All" programatically

    - by Sean B
    I am looking for the equivalent of running "File - Save All" before certain Rake macros. What I have so far is: Private Sub Pre_Rake() Dim i As Integer DTE.Documents.SaveAll() For i = 1 To DTE.Solution.Projects.Count If Not DTE.Solution.Projects.Item(i).Saved Then DTE.Solution.Projects.Item(i).Save() End If Next End Sub DTE.Documents.SaveAll works fine, but the for loop does not save the project files as I would expect. If I make a copy of a file in the solution explorer, that file is not included in the project file (.CSPROJ) after Pre_Rake() runs. I would still have to press CTRL-SHIFT-S or File - Save All. So, how to Save All with a Visual Studio Macro?

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  • how to check if internal storage file has any data

    - by user3720291
    public class Save extends Activity { int levels = 2; int data_block = 1024; //char[] data = new char[] {'0', '0'}; String blankval = "0"; String targetval = "0"; String temp; String tempwrite; String string = "null"; TextView tex1; TextView tex2; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.save); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle b = intent.getExtras(); tex1 = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textView1); tex2 = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textView2); if(b!=null) { string =(String) b.get("string"); } loadprev(); save(); } public void save() { if (string.equals("Blank")) blankval = "1"; if (string.equals("Target")) targetval = "1"; temp = blankval + targetval; try { FileOutputStream fos = openFileOutput("data.gds", MODE_PRIVATE); fos.write(temp.getBytes()); fos.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IOException e) {e.printStackTrace();} tex1.setText(blankval); tex2.setText(targetval); } public void loadprev() { String final_data = ""; try { FileInputStream fis = openFileInput("data.gds"); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(fis); char[] data = new char[data_block]; int size; while((size = isr.read(data))>0) { String read_data = String.copyValueOf(data, 0, size); final_data += read_data; data = new char[data_block]; } } catch (FileNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IOException e) {e.printStackTrace();} char[] tempread = final_data.toCharArray();; blankval = "" + tempread[0]; targetval = "" + tempread[1]; } } After much tinkering i have finally managed to get my save/load function to work, but it does have an error, pretty much i got it to work then i did a fresh reintall deleting data.gds, afterwards the save/load function crashes because the data.gds file has no previous values. can i use a if statment to check if data.gds has any values in it, if so how do i do it and if not, then what could i use instead?

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  • Updating a session variable on a page that uses enablesessionstate=readonly attribute doesn't fail f

    - by chandmk
    Asp.Net allows you you set the session state to readonly at individual page level or in the web.config for all pages. But it doesn't prevent you from creating a brand new session variable on that page or modify an existing session variable. But when you try to use that session variable it is either not available or its value is not modified. Why wouldn't the asp.net framework throw a run time error, if not compile time error, when a write attempt is made to a session on the pages where that is not allowed?

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