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• How is it possible to extend an SWFLoader with MXML?

  - by michael-cereda

  I'm currently doing the following.. Main application: " " In the Component: First Try: ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations></fx:Declarations> <mx:SWFLoader x="0" y="0" id="loader"/> </s:Group> Second Try: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Group xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var source:String; ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:SWFLoader x="0" y="0" source="{source}"/> </s:Group> But the component displays only a "Not Found" icon in both cases. Thanks

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• connecting to secure database from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• Http authentication with apache httpcomponents

  - by matdan

  Hi, I am trying to develop a java http client with apache httpcomponents 4.0.1. This client calls the page "https://myHost/myPage". This page is protected on the server by a JNDIRealm with a login form authentication, so when I try to get https://myHost/myPage I get a login page. I tried to bypass it unsuccessfully with the following code : //I set my proxy HttpHost proxy = new HttpHost("myProxyHost", myProxyPort); //I add supported schemes SchemeRegistry supportedSchemes = new SchemeRegistry(); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 80)); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 443)); // prepare parameters HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); HttpProtocolParams.setVersion(params, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); HttpProtocolParams.setContentCharset(params, "UTF-8"); HttpProtocolParams.setUseExpectContinue(params, true); ClientConnectionManager ccm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, supportedSchemes); DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(ccm, params); httpclient.getParams().setParameter(ConnRoutePNames.DEFAULT_PROXY, proxy); //I add my authentication information httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( new AuthScope("myHost/myPage", 443), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("username", "password")); HttpHost host = new HttpHost("myHost", 443, "https"); HttpGet req = new HttpGet("/myPage"); //show the page ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String rsp = httpClient.execute(host, req, responseHandler); System.out.println(rsp); When I run this code, I always get the login page, not myPage. How can I apply my credential parameters to avoid this login form? Any help would be fantastic

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• When is factory method better than simple factory and vice versa?

  - by Bruce

  Hi all Working my way through the Head First Design Patterns book. I believe I understand the simple factory and the factory method, but I'm having trouble seeing what advantages factory method brings over simple factory. If an object A uses a simple factory to create its B objects, then clients can create it like this: A a = new A(new BFactory()); whereas if an object uses a factory method, a client can create it like this: A a = new ConcreteA(); // ConcreteA contains a method for instantiating the same Bs that the BFactory above creates, with the method hardwired into the subclass of A, ConcreteA. So in the case of the simple factory, clients compose A with a B factory, whereas with the factory method, the client chooses the appropriate subclass for the types of B it wants. There really doesn't seem to be much to choose between them. Either you have to choose which BFactory you want to compose A with, or you have to choose the right subclass of A to give you the Bs. Under what circumstances is one better than the other? Thanks all!

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• Why do I get a Illegal Access Error when running my Android tests?

  - by Janusz

  I get the following stack trace when running my Android tests on the Emulator: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: client.HttpHelper at client.Helper.<init>(Helper.java:14) at test.Tests.setUp(Tests.java:15) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:164) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:151) at android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner.onStart(InstrumentationTestRunner.java:425) at android.app.Instrumentation$InstrumentationThread.run(Instrumentation.java:1520) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalAccessError: cross-loader access from pre-verified class at dalvik.system.DexFile.defineClass(Native Method) at dalvik.system.DexFile.loadClass(DexFile.java:193) at dalvik.system.PathClassLoader.findClass(PathClassLoader.java:203) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:573) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:532) ... 11 more I run my tests from an extra project. And it seems there are some problems with loading the classes from the other project. I have run the tests before but now they are failing. The project under tests runs without problems. Line 14 of the Helper Class is: this.httpHelper = new HttpHelper(userProfile); I start a HttpHelper class that is responsible for executing httpqueries. I think somehow this helper class is not available anymore, but I have no clue why.

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• Setting CPU target to x86 on .NET 2.0 project adds .NET 3.5 dependencies.

  - by AngryHacker

  I have a project in VS2008 that targets .NET 2.0 framework. It was original set to build for AnyCPU. I changed it to x86 and for whatever reason, VS adds the following lines to .csproj: <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Client.3.5"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework Client Profile</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> ... ... <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5.SP1"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework 3.5 SP1</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> </ItemGroup> Can someone explain as to why this is being added and whether I can safely remove it, as I still have to target the .NET 2.0 framework. Thanks.

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• Class initialization and synchronized class method

  - by nybon

  Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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• Converting Python Script to Vb.NET - Involves Post and Input XML String

  - by Jason Shoulders

  I'm trying to convert a Python Script to Vb.Net. The Python Script appears to accept some XML input data and then takes it to a web URL and does a "POST". I tried some VB.NET code to do it, but I think my approach is off because I got an error back "BadXmlDataErr" plus I can't really format my input XML very well - I'm only doing string and value. The input XML is richer than that. Here is an example of what the XML input data looks like in the Python script: <obj is="MyOrg:realCommand_v1/" > <int name="priority" val="1" /> <real name="value" val="9.5" /> <str name="user" val="MyUserName" /> <reltime name="overrideTime" val="PT60S"/> </obj> Here's the Vb.net code I attempted to convert that: Dim reqparm As New Specialized.NameValueCollection reqparm.Add("priority", "1") reqparm.Add("value", "9.5") reqparm.Add("user", "MyUserName") reqparm.Add("overrideTime", "PT60S") Using client As New Net.WebClient Dim sTheUrl As String = "[My URL]" Dim responsebytes = client.UploadValues(sTheUrl, "POST", MyReqparm) Dim responsebody = (New System.Text.UTF8Encoding).GetString(responsebytes) End Using I feel like I should be doing something else. Can anyone point me to the right direction?

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• Cassandra Batch_insert example in C#.net

  - by Sandeep

  Can any one please give me an example on how to work on Cassandra batch_insert in C# thrift client? If possible please let me know where am I going wrong in the following code. Dictionary dictionary = new Dictionary(); Dictionary subColumns = new Dictionary(); List listOfMutations = new List(); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("AA"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Answer Automation"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("CT"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Call Tracker"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add( new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("TL"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Track That Lead"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); SuperColumn superColumn = new SuperColumn() { Name=utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Indatus") }; subColumns.Add("Super1", listOfMutations); dictionary.Add("Indatus", subColumns); client.batch_mutate("Keyspace1",dictionary, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); I understand that SuperColumn struct expects List but I does not have a list of Columns. Rather I have List. Thanks in Advance.

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• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• Boost::Asio - Remove the "null"-character in the end of tcp packets.

  - by shump

  I'm trying to make a simple msn client mostly for fun but also for educational purposes. And I started to try some tcp package sending and receiving using Boost Asio as I want cross-platform support. I have managed to send a "VER"-command and receive it's response. However after I send the following "CVR"-command, Asio casts an "End of file"-error. After some further researching I found by packet sniffing that my tcp packets to the messenger server got an extra "null"-character (Ascii code: 00) at the end of the message. This means that my VER-command gets an extra character in the end which I don't think the messenger server like and therefore shuts down the connection when I try to read the CVR response. This is how my package looks when sniffing it, (it's Payload): (Hex:) 56 45 52 20 31 20 4d 53 4e 50 31 35 20 43 56 52 30 0a 0a 00 (Char:) VER 1 MSNP15 CVR 0... and this is how Adium(chat client for OS X)'s package looks: (Hex:) 56 45 52 20 31 20 4d 53 4e 50 31 35 20 43 56 52 30 0d 0a (Char:) VER 1 MSNP15 CVR 0.. So my question is if there is any way to remove the null-character in the end of each package, of if I've misunderstood something and used Asio in a wrong way. My write function (slightly edited) looks lite this: int sendVERMessage() { boost::system::error_code ignored_error; char sendBuf[] = "VER 1 MSNP15 CVR0\r\n"; boost::asio::write(socket, boost::asio::buffer(sendBuf), boost::asio::transfer_all(), ignored_error); if(ignored_error) { cout << "Failed to send to host!" << endl; return 1; } cout << "VER message sent!" << endl; return 0; } And here's the main documentation on the msn protocol I'm using. Hope I've been clear enough.

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• Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

  - by Ikke

  I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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• PHP static function self:: in joomla JFactory class explanation?

  - by Carbon6

  Hi I'm looking at the code of Joomla and trying to figure out what exactly happends in this function. index.php makes a call to function $app = JFactory::getApplication('site'); jfactory.php code public static function getApplication($id = null, $config = array(), $prefix='J') { if (!self::$application) { jimport('joomla.application.application'); self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); } return self::$application; } application.php code.. public static function getInstance($client, $config = array(), $prefix = 'J') { static $instances; if (!isset($instances)) { $instances = array(); } ....... more code ........ return $instances[$client]; } Now I cannot figure out in function getApplication why is self:$application used. self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); $application is always null, what is the purpose of using this approach. I tryied modifying it to $var = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); and returnig it but it doesn't work. I would be very glad if someone with more knowledge could explain what is happening here detailed as possible. Many thanks.

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• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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• C++/Win32 : XP Visual Styles - no controls are showing up?

  - by mrl33t

  Okay, so i'm pretty new to C++ & the Windows API and i'm just writing a small application. I wanted my application to make use of visual styles in both XP, Vista and Windows 7 so I added this line to the top of my code: #pragma comment(linker,"\"/manifestdependency:type='win32' name='Microsoft.Windows.Common-Controls' version='6.0.0.0' processorArchitecture='*' publicKeyToken='6595b64144ccf1df' language='*'\"") It seemed to work perfectly on my Windows 7 machine and also Vista machine. But when I tried the application on XP the application wouldn't load any controls (e.g. buttons, labels etc.) - not even messageboxes would display. This image shows a small test application which i've just put together to demonstrate what i'm trying to explain: http://img704.imageshack.us/img704/2250/myapp.png In this test application i'm not using any particularly fancy or complicated code. I've effectively just taken the most basic sample code from the MSDN Library (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff381409.aspx) and added a section to the WM_CREATE message to create a button: MyBtn = CreateWindow(L"Button", L"My Button", BS_PUSHBUTTON | WS_CHILD | WS_VISIBLE, 25, 25, 100, 30, hWnd, NULL, hInst, 0); But I just can't figure out what's going on and why its not working. Any ideas guys? Thank you in advanced. (By the way the application works in XP if i remove the manifest section from the top - obviously without visual styles though. I should also probably mention that the app was built using Visual C++ 2010 Express on a Windows 7 machine - if that makes a difference?)

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• Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

  - by Pretzel

  So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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• How to reliably identify users across Internet?

  - by amn

  I know this is a big one. In fact, it may be used for some SO community wiki. Anyways, I am running a website that DOES NOT use explicit authentication of users. It's public as in open to everybody. However, due to the nature of the service, some users need to be locked out due to misbehavior. I am currently blocking IP addresses, but I am aware of the supposed fact that many people purposefully reset their DHCP client cache to have their ISP assign them new addresses. Is that a fact? I think it certainly is a lucrative possibility for some people who want to circumvent being denied access. So IPs turn out to be a suboptimal way of dealing with this. But there is nothing else, is it? MAC addresses don't survive on WAN (change from hop to hop?), and even if they did - these can also be spoofed, although I think less easily than IP renewal. Cookies and even Flash cookies are out of the question, because there are tons of "tutorials" how to wipe these, and those intent on wreaking havoc on Internet are well aware and well equipped against such rudimentary measures I would employ. Is there anything else to lean on? I was thinking heuristical profiling - collecting available data from client-side and forming some key with it, but have not gone as far as to implementing it - is it an option?

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• Why I get this error in CXF

  - by Milan

  I want to make dynamic web service invoker in JSF with CXF. But when I load this simple code I get error. The code: JaxWsDynamicClientFactory dcf = JaxWsDynamicClientFactory.newInstance(); Client client = dcf.createClient("http://ws.strikeiron.com/IPLookup2?wsdl"); The error: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException - No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Any Idea how to solve the problem?

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• How to define a batching routing service in WCF

  - by mattx

  I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

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• Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

  - by Sergey

  My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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• Oracle manually add an FK constraint

  - by Oxymoron

  Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

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• TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

  - by Alan G.

  I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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• Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

  - by vivek m

  I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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