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  • Save email as draft in php

    - by Yorian
    Hello, The past few days I've been trying to find out how I can save emails as drafts using php. I've created an emailaddress that uses imap (and resides on the same server). What I would like to do is to use php to create an email and store it in the drafts folder. These emails would then be recognized by the email client (ms office outlook in this case) so they can be editted and send from the email client. I've found some interesting information about the imap functions from php, they let you send mail, but I can't really figure out how to store them in the drafts folder (to which I have write access). I can actually find and read the emails, I save as drafts in my email client, using my ftp connection. However they make use of UID and message-ID's and such which I don't understand where they come from. My questions: - how could I create email drafts - How does a new UID or message-ID get created, and how would I use them for my email-draft file? Help is much appreciated, thanks. Yorian

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  • Why does RunDLL32 process exit early on Windows 7?

    - by Vicky
    On Windows XP and Vista, I can run this code: STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; BOOL bResult = FALSE; ZeroMemory(&pi, sizeof(pi)); ZeroMemory(&si, sizeof(si)); si.cb = sizeof(STARTUPINFO); si.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; si.wShowWindow = SW_SHOW; bResult = CreateProcess(NULL, "rundll32.exe shell32.dll,Control_RunDLL modem.cpl", NULL, NULL, FALSE, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); if (bResult) { WaitForSingleObject(pi.hProcess, INFINITE); CloseHandle(pi.hProcess); CloseHandle(pi.hThread); } and it operates as I would expect, i.e. the WaitForSingleObject does not return until the Modem Control Panel window has been closed by the user. On Windows 7, the same code, WaitForSingleObject returns straight away (with a return code of 0 indicating that the object signalled the requested state). Similarly, if I take it to the command line, on XP and Vista I can run start /wait rundll32.exe shell32.dll,Control_RunDLL modem.cpl and it does not return control to the command prompt until the Control Panel window is closed, but on Windows 7 it returns immediately. Is this a change in RunDll32? I know MS made some changes to RunDll32 in Windows 7 for UAC, and it looks from these experiments as though one of those changes might have involved spawning an additional process to display the window, and allowing the originating process to exit. The only thing that makes me think this might not be the case is that using a process explorer that shows the creation and destruction of processes, I do not see anything additional being created beyond the called rundll32 process itself. Any other way I can solve this? I just don't want the function to return until the control panel window is closed.

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  • Trace PRISM / CAL events (best practice?)

    - by Christian
    Ok, this question is for people with either a deep knowledge of PRISM or some magic skills I just lack (yet). The Background is simple: Prism allows the declaration of events to which the user can subscribe or publish. In code this looks like this: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Subscribe(UpdateUi, true); _eventAggregator.GetEvent<LayoutChangedEvent>().Publish("Some argument"); Now this is nice, especially because these events are strongly typed, and the declaration is a piece of cake: public class LayoutChangedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<string> { } But now comes the hard part: I want to trace events in some way. I had the idea to subscribe using a lambda expression calling a simple log message. Worked perfectly in WPF, but in Silverlight there is some method access error (took me some time to figure out the reason).. If you want to see for yourself, try this in Silverlight: eA.GetEvent<VideoStartedEvent>().Subscribe(obj => TraceEvent(obj, "vSe", log)); If this would be possible, I would be happy, because I could easily trace all events using a single line to subscribe. But it does not... The alternative approach is writing a different functions for each event, and assign this function to the events. Why different functions? Well, I need to know WHICH event was published. If I use the same function for two different events I only get the payload as argument. I have now way to figure out which event caused the tracing message. I tried: using Reflection to get the causing event (not working) using a constructor in the event to enable each event to trace itself (not allowed) Any other ideas? Chris PS: Writing this text took me most likely longer than writing 20 functions for my 20 events, but I refuse to give up :-) I just had the idea to use postsharp, that would most likely work (although I am not sure, perhaps I end up having only information about the base class).. Tricky and so unimportant topic...

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  • Clojure agents consuming from a queue

    - by erikcw
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to use agents to consume items from a Message Queue (Amazon SQS). Right now I have a function (process-queue-item) that grabs an items from the queue, and processes it. I want to process these items concurrently, but I can't wrap my head around how to control the agents. Basically I want to keep all of the agents busy as much as possible without pulling to many items from the Queue and developing a backlog (I'll have this running on a couple of machines, so items need to be left in the queue until they are really needed). Can anyone give me some pointers on improving my implementation? (def active-agents (ref 0)) (defn process-queue-item [_] (dosync (alter active-agents inc)) ;retrieve item from Message Queue (Amazon SQS) and process (dosync (alter active-agents dec))) (defn -main [] (def agents (for [x (range 20)] (agent x))) (loop [loop-count 0] (if (< @active-agents 20) (doseq [agent agents] (if (agent-errors agent) (clear-agent-errors agent)) ;should skip this agent until later if it is still busy processing (not sure how) (send-off agent process-queue-item))) ;(apply await-for (* 10 1000) agents) (Thread/sleep 10000) (logging/info (str "ACTIVE AGENTS " @active-agents)) (if (> 10 loop-count) (do (logging/info (str "done, let's cleanup " count)) (doseq [agent agents] (if (agent-errors agent) (clear-agent-errors agent))) (apply await agents) (shutdown-agents)) (recur (inc count)))))

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  • WPF TextBlock Binding to DependencyProperty

    - by Bill Campbell
    Hi, I have what I believe to be about one of the most simple cases of attempting to bind a view to a dependencyproperty in the view model. It seems that the initial changes are reflected in the view but other changes to the DP do not update the view's TextBlock. I'm probably just missing something simple but I just can't see what it is. Please take a look... My XAML has a status bar on the bottom of the window. I want to bind to the DP "VRAStatus". <StatusBar x:Name="sbar" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="LightBlue" Opacity="0.4" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" > <StatusBarItem> <TextBlock x:Name="statusBar" Text="{Binding VRAStatus}" /> </StatusBarItem> <StatusBarItem> <Separator Style="{StaticResource StatusBarSeparatorStyle}"/> </StatusBarItem> </StatusBar> My viewmodel has the DP defined: public string VRAStatus { get { return (string)GetValue(VRAStatusProperty); } set { SetValue(VRAStatusProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for VRAStatus. public static readonly DependencyProperty VRAStatusProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("VRAStatus", typeof(string), typeof(PenskeRouteAssistViewModel),new PropertyMetadata(string.Empty)); Then, in my code I set the DP: VRAStatus = "Test Message..."; Is there something obvious here that I am missing? In my constructor for the viewmodel I set the DP like this: VRAStatus = "Ready"; I never get the Test Message to display. Please Help. thanks in advance! Bill

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  • Need advice on using Grails and Ajax to append to a div like in Rails

    - by Nate
    I'm just starting out in Grails and need some advice on using Ajax. I want to append some html to the bottom of a div inside a form. This is basically what I have: -form- -div id="listOfchildren"- childrow 1 input fields childrow 2 input fields childrow 3 input fields -/div- -form- -a-Add Child 4-/a- When I click on the "Add Child" I want to make an ajax call that results in a new childrow getting inserted into the "listOfchildren" div. So the document would look like this: -form- -div id="listOfchildren"- childrow 1 input fields childrow 2 input fields childrow 3 input fields childrow 4 input fields -/div- -form- -a-Add Child 5-/a- In Rails I would do something simple like this: render :update do |page| page.insert_html :bottom, "list_of_children", :partial = child_partial page.replace "add_link", :partial = 'add_link' end The previous code sends an javascript back to the browser with two commands. The first command tells the browser to append some html to the bottom of a div. The second command updates the "add link" counter. In grails I can only see how to replace an entire div (which would wipe out the user's existing input) and I don't see how I can call multiple functions from the ajax response. I can probably do this if I was to write some javascript functions in prototype or whatever, but I'd like to avoid that if there is a simpler way. Thanks! Nate

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  • Possible mem leak?

    - by LCD Fire
    I'm new to the concept so don't be hard on me. why doesn't this code produce a destructor call ? The names of the classes are self-explanatory. The SString will print a message in ~SString(). It only prints one destructor message. int main(int argc, TCHAR* argv[]) { smart_ptr<SString> smt(new SString("not lost")); new smart_ptr<SString>(new SString("but lost")); return 0; } Is this a memory leak? The impl. for smart_ptr is from here edited: //copy ctor smart_ptr(const smart_ptr<T>& ptrCopy) { m_AutoPtr = new T(ptrCopy.get()); } //overloading = operator smart_ptr<T>& operator=(smart_ptr<T>& ptrCopy) { if(m_AutoPtr) delete m_AutoPtr; m_AutoPtr = new T(*ptrCopy.get()); return *this; }

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  • Core-data: when accessing a relationship, the count method on NSSet fails

    - by lordsandwich
    I'm trying to access a relationship (one to many) programatically. My Data model contains an NSManagedEntity called language (with a two string attributes) with a relationship to an entity called WordCategory (one-to-many). I use an NSFetchRequest to get all the Language entities. that works fine. I get the valueForKey for the relationship and that works fine. I can work with its objects. However, when I try to send the message count to the NSSet that stores the WordCategory objects I get a In other words, this line works: NSLog(@"word category count %@",[[wordCategory anyObject] valueForKey:@"name"]); This one doesn't: NSLog(@"word category count %@",[wordCategory count] I get a the message: EXC_BAD_ACCESS in the debugger. Here's the rest of the code: NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [myAppDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Language" inManagedObjectContext:moc]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *results = [moc executeFetchRequest:request error: &error]; if (error) { [NSApp presentError:error]; return; } NSManagedObject *obj = [results objectAtIndex:0]; NSSet *wordCategory = [obj valueForKey:@"category"]; NSLog(@"word category count %@",[wordCategory count]); I'll appreciate any light than anybody can shed in this mystery. Thanks for your help!

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  • Issues with Rails, Amazon S3, and protected URLs

    - by Shpigford
    So I followed this little tutorial about protecting downloads of files that are uploaded to Amazon S3 with Paperclip. When I've developed locally, it's worked fine, but since pushing the exact same code to a production server...I now get this error from Amazon when I try to access the files: <Error> <Code>InvalidArgument</Code> <Message>Either the Signature query string parameter or the Authorization header should be specified, not both</Message> <ArgumentValue>Basic dGVjaHVrdWxlbGU6ZWxlbHVrdWhjZXQ=</ArgumentValue> <ArgumentName>Authorization</ArgumentName> <RequestId>F6E455857C54F95A</RequestId> <HostId>X4QA2pw9wpHtJtJ2T8qxCyINjq4PLHQVF4VrlYjpX7Ayh694BgQprh5p8H7NRCAt</HostId> </Error> Example URL: http://s3.amazonaws.com/media.example.com/assets/videos/1/original.mov?AWSAccessKeyId=MY_ACCESS_KEY&Expires=1271972624&Signature=7wWH2WYHPO0o9szwPJbimUMqAig%3D That URL is generated using AWS::S3::S3Object.url_for using the aws-s3 gem. So...not even sure where to start. The fact that it works fine when the app is running locally but not when in production really doesn't make sense. The production server is running Ubuntu 8.04.4 LTS (Hardy).

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  • Memory leak of java.lang.ref.WeakReference objects inside JDK classes

    - by mandye
    The following simple code reproduces the growth of java.lang.ref.WeakReference objects in the heap: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { while (true) { java.util.logging.Logger.getAnonymousLogger(); Thread.sleep(1); } } Here is the output of jmap command within a few seconds interval: user@t1007:~ jmap -d64 -histo:live 29201|grep WeakReference 8: 22493 1079664 java.lang.ref.WeakReference 31: 1 32144 [Ljava.lang.ref.WeakReference; 106: 17 952 com.sun.jmx.mbeanserver.WeakIdentityHashMap$IdentityWeakReference user@t1007:~ jmap -d64 -histo:live 29201|grep WeakReference 8: 23191 1113168 java.lang.ref.WeakReference 31: 1 32144 [Ljava.lang.ref.WeakReference; 103: 17 952 com.sun.jmx.mbeanserver.WeakIdentityHashMap$IdentityWeakReference user@t1007:~ jmap -d64 -histo:live 29201|grep WeakReference 8: 23804 1142592 java.lang.ref.WeakReference 31: 1 32144 [Ljava.lang.ref.WeakReference; 103: 17 952 com.sun.jmx.mbeanserver.WeakIdentityHashMap$IdentityWeakReference Note that jmap command forces FullGC. JVM settings: export JVM_OPT="\ -d64 \ -Xms200m -Xmx200m \ -XX:MaxNewSize=64m \ -XX:NewSize=64m \ -XX:+UseParNewGC \ -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC \ -XX:MaxTenuringThreshold=10 \ -XX:SurvivorRatio=2 \ -XX:CMSInitiatingOccupancyFraction=60 \ -XX:+UseCMSInitiatingOccupancyOnly \ -XX:+CMSParallelRemarkEnabled \ -XX:+DisableExplicitGC \ -XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled \ -XX:+PrintGCTimeStamps \ -XX:+PrintGCDetails \ -XX:+PrintTenuringDistribution \ -XX:+PrintGCApplicationConcurrentTime \ -XX:+PrintGCApplicationStoppedTime \ -XX:+PrintGCApplicationStoppedTime \ -XX:+PrintClassHistogram \ -XX:+ParallelRefProcEnabled \ -XX:SoftRefLRUPolicyMSPerMB=1 \ -verbose:gc \ -Xloggc:$GCLOGFILE" java version "1.6.0_18" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_18-b07) Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (build 16.0-b13, mixed mode) Solaris 10/Sun Fire(TM) T1000

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  • Unit test for Web Forms MVP presenter has a null Model

    - by jacksonakj
    I am using Web Forms MVP to write an DotNetNuke user control. When the 'SubmitContactUs' event is raised in my unit test the presenter attempts to set the 'Message' property on the Modal. However the View.Modal is null in the presenter. Shouldn't the Web Forms MVP framework automatically build a new View.Model object in the presenter? It could be that the 'Arrange' portion of my test is missing something that the presenter needs. Any help would be appreciated. Here is my test: using System; using AthleticHost.ContactUs.Core.Presenters; using AthleticHost.ContactUs.Core.Views; using Xunit; using Moq; namespace AthleticHost.ContactUs.Tests { public class ContactUsPresenterTests { [Fact] public void ContactUsPresenter_Sets_Message_OnSubmit() { // Arrange var view = new Mock<IContactUsView>(); var presenter = new ContactUsPresenter(view.Object); // Act view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, new EventArgs()); view.Raise(v => v.SubmitContactUs += null, new SubmitContactUsEventArgs("Chester", "Tester", "[email protected]", "http://www.test.com", "This is a test of the emergancy broadcast system...")); presenter.ReleaseView(); // Assert Assert.Contains("Chester Tester", view.Object.Model.Message); } } }

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  • script to find "deny" ACE in ACLs, and remove it

    - by Tom
    On my 100TB cluster, I need to find dirs and files that have a "deny" ACE within their ACL, then remove that ACE on each instance. I'm using the following: # find . -print0 | xargs -0 ls -led | grep deny -B4 and get this output (partial, for example only) -r--rw---- 1 chris GroupOne 4096 Mar 6 18:12 ./directoryA/fileX.txt OWNER: user:chris GROUP: group:GroupOne 0: user:chris allow file_gen_read,std_write_dac,file_write_attr 1: user:chris deny file_write,append,file_write_ext_attr,execute -- -r--rwxrwx 1 chris GroupOne 14728221 Mar 6 18:12 ./directoryA/subdirA/fileZ.txt OWNER: user:chris GROUP: group:GroupOne 0: user:chris allow file_gen_read,std_write_dac,file_write_attr 1: user:chris deny file_write,append,file_write_ext_attr,execute -- OWNER: user:bob GROUP: group:GroupTwo 0: user:bob allow dir_gen_read,dir_gen_write,dir_gen_execute,std_write_dac,delete_child,object_inherit,container_inherit 1: group:GroupTwo allow std_read_dac,std_write_dac,std_synchronize,dir_read_attr,dir_write_attr,object_inherit,container_inherit 2: group:GroupTwo deny list,add_file,add_subdir,dir_read_ext_attr,dir_write_ext_attr,traverse,delete_child,object_inherit,container_inherit -- As you can see, depending on where the "deny" ACE is, I can see/not-see the path. I could increase the -B value (I've seen up to 8 ACEs on a file) but then I would get more output to distill from... What I need to do next is extract $ACENUMBER and $PATHTOFILE so that I can execute this command: chmod -a# $ACENUMBER $PATHTOFILE Additional issue is that the find command (above) gives a relative path, whereas I need the full path. I guess that would need to be edited somehow. Any guidance on how to accomplish this?

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  • Invalid iPhone Application Binary

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I'm trying to upload an application to the iPhone App Store, but I get this error message from iTunes Connect: The binary you uploaded was invalid. The signature was invalid, or it was not signed with an Apple submission certificate. My guess is that it is not properly signed. I have downloaded my App Store distribution certficate, but I can't figure out how to "sign" my application with it. The SDK's documentation about code signing is not very helpful. (FWIW, I can install the app on my iPhone just fine using the development provisioning profile.) However, it is possible that I screwed things up on a more basic level. Here's what I did to try to prepare it for upload: In Xcode, select the Device|Release target Select the target and click the Info button. Change "Code Signing Identity" to "iPhone Distribution", and change "Code Signing Provisioning Profile" to my App Store distribution profile. Build Go to the directory where the built MyApp.app bundle is, control-click and choose "Compress" to create MyApp.zip Upload MyApp.zip to the App Store via iTunes Connect (which resulted in the above error message). Can anybody give me any hints? Edit: Found someone with the same problem. Unfortunately, he won't tell us how he fixed it. http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/18/seattlebus-diary-ongoing-update-saga/#comments http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/22/seattlebus-diary-update-is-pending-review/ (Note: For general information on submitting iPhone applications to the App Store, see Steps to upload an iPhone application to the AppStore.)

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  • How to open a document using an application launched via NSTask?

    - by zneak
    Hello world, I've grown tired of the built-in open Mac OS X command, mostly because it runs programs with your actual user ID instead of the effective user ID; this results in the fact sudo open Foo opens Foo with its associated application with your account instead of the root account, and it annoys me. So I decided to make some kind of replacement. So far I've been successful: I can open any program under the open -a or open -b fashion, and support optionally waiting. I'm using NSTask for that purpose. However, I'd like to be able to open documents too. As far as I can see, you need to use NSWorkspace for that, but using NSWorkspace to launch programs results in them being launched with your account's credentials instead of your command line program's credentials. Which is precisely what the default open tool does, and precisely what I don't want. So, how can I have a program request that another program opens a document without using NSWorkspace? From the NSTask object, I can have the process ID, but that's about it.

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  • After Navigate2 Method returns S_OK Stuck at READYSTATE of READYSTATE_LOADING

    - by Stone Free
    I am working on a MFC Document View architecture application which has multiple documents and views and a tabbed window interface. I have been tasked with making an automatic switch to another tab on the press of the OK button in one of the other tabs. When the other tab is clicked on it uses a C++ wrapper over IWebBrowser2 to navigate to a specific web page. When this is done manually by clicking on the tab everything is fine and the webpage within the view loads successfully. In my first attempt at doing this the tab successfully switched in response to a call to AfxGetMainWnd()->SendMessageToDescendants(SOME_MESSAGE, ...); however by sending this windows message at the wrong point the application would crash once control returned because the chain of events caused the (modeless) dialog (*) that sent the message, to no longer exist. I then found the correct place to make the call, but now when the other tab is activated, it no longer displays the webpage as it should. To debug this problem I added code to check the READYSTATE in both the situation where it works and the situation where it does not. When the page fails to load (despite the call to Navigate2 returning S_OK), the READYSTATE just stays at READYSTATE_LOADING. Unfortunately now I am to many edits away from when I had it partially working. I have added TRACE statements to the most obvious events such as OnSetFocus, CView::OnActivateView but all traces come out in the same order despite the behaviour being different * hosted in the view

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  • udp can not receive any data

    - by StoneHeart
    Here is my code Socket sck = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 0)); // Broadcast to find server string msg = "Imlookingforaserver:" + udp_listen_port; byte[] sendBytes4 = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(msg); IPEndPoint groupEP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Parse("255.255.255.255"), server_port); sck.SetSocketOption(SocketOptionLevel.Socket, SocketOptionName.Broadcast, 1); sck.SendTo(sendBytes4, groupEP); //Wait response from server Socket sck2 = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck2.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port)); byte[] buffer = new byte[128]; EndPoint remoteEndPoint = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port); sck2.ReceiveFrom(buffer, ref remoteEndPoint); //<<< I never pass this line I use above code to try find a server. First I broadcast a message and then I wait for a response from the server. A test I made with the server written in C++ and running in Windows Vista, client written in C# and run on the same machine with server. Problem is: The server can receive message which client broadcast, but client can not receive anything from server. I try to write a client with C++ and it work like a charm, I think my problem is in C# client.

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  • PHP, MySQL: Receive email, auto search in DB & send email based on the results

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Visitors can contact staff by means of contact form (visitor needs to submit email as well). This will be stored in DB. Now considering that staff responds to this message, the reply from the staff would be sent to the visitors email directly. Say if the user wants to follow up on the message sent by the staff, I would like the visitor to just hit the reply button in his email service & send me his questions on the same topic, but just retain the ID in the Subject line. So when the visitor send this email, I would like to receive the email & at the same time, try to search in my DB if the ID that is present in the email subject, actually exists in the system. If yes, that would be sent back to the same staff member who handled the response previously or it would be assigned to a new staff member. That being said, I was thinking of how to do this. The part where I am really held up is when the staff receives the actual email from the visitors email, how can I check the DB? Say I am/staff is receiving emails at [email protected]. When visitor sends reply email, then it would be sent to [email protected]. How can I check to see if the ID in the subject line of the email that I received at [email protected], actually exists in my DB in my website? This is where I am really stuck. Looking forward for your replies. Thank you.

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  • I am Unable to Post Xml to Linkedin Share API

    - by Vijesh V.Nair
    I am using Delphi 2010, with Indy 10.5.8(svn version) and oAuth.pas from chuckbeasley. I am able to collect token with app key and App secret, authorize token with a web page and Access the final token. Now I have to post a status with Linkedin’s Share API. I am getting a unauthorized response. My request and responses are giving bellow. Request, POST /v1/people/~/shares HTTP/1.0 Content-Encoding: utf-8 Content-Type: text/xml; charset=us-ascii Content-Length: 999 Authorization: OAuth oauth_consumer_key="xxx",oauth_signature_method="HMAC-SHA1",oauth_timestamp="1340438599",oauth_nonce="BB4C78E0A6EB452BEE0FAA2C3F921FC4",oauth_version="1.0",oauth_token="xxx",oauth_signature="Pz8%2FPz8%2FPz9ePzkxPyc%2FDD82Pz8%3D" Host: api.linkedin.com Accept: text/html, */* Accept-Encoding: identity User-Agent: Mozilla/3.0 (compatible; Indy Library) %3C%3Fxml+version=%25221.0%2522%2520encoding%253D%2522UTF-8%2522%253F%253E%253Cshare%253E%253Ccomment%253E83%2525%2520of%2520employers%2520will%2520use%2520social%2520media%2520to%2520hire%253A%252078%2525%2520LinkedIn%252C%252055%2525%2520Facebook%252C%252045%2525%2520Twitter%2520%255BSF%2520Biz%2520Times%255D%2520http%253A%252F%252Fbit.ly%252FcCpeOD%253C%252Fcomment%253E%253Ccontent%253E%253Ctitle%253ESurvey%253A%2520Social%2520networks%2520top%2520hiring%2520tool%2520-%2520San%2520Francisco%2520Business%2520Times%253C%252Ftitle%253E%253Csubmitted-url%253Ehttp%253A%252F%252Fsanfrancisco.bizjournals.com%252Fsanfrancisco%252Fstories%252F2010%252F06%252F28%252Fdaily34.html%253C%252Fsubmitted-url%253E%253Csubmitted-image-url%253Ehttp%253A%252F%252Fimages.bizjournals.com%252Ftravel%252Fcityscapes%252Fthumbs%252Fsm_sanfrancisco.jpg%253C%252Fsubmitted-image-url%253E%253C%252Fcontent%253E%253Cvisibility%253E%253Ccode%253Eanyone%253C%252Fcode%253E%253C%252Fvisibility%253E%253C%252Fshare%253E Response, HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 x-li-request-id: K14SWRPEPL Date: Sat, 23 Jun 2012 08:07:17 GMT Vary: * x-li-format: xml Content-Type: text/xml;charset=UTF-8 Content-Length: 341 Connection: keep-alive <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <error> <status>401</status> <timestamp>1340438838344</timestamp> <request-id>K14SWRPEPL</request-id> <error-code>0</error-code> <message>[unauthorized]. OAU:xxx|nnnnn|*01|*01:1340438599:Pz8/Pz8/Pz9ePzkxPyc/DD82Pz8=</message> </error> Please help. Regards, Vijesh Nair

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  • Ubiquity CmdUtils.setSelection won't replace HTML

    - by Josh Timmer
    I'm attempting to write a Ubiquity command that allows you to replace a selected link or URL pointing to an image with that image itself. However, the CmdUtils.setSelection() function (documented here) seems to do nothing if any html tags are present in the selection, making it useless for replacing any links. When selecting plain text, it functions exactly as intended, replacing the text with an <img src="text"/> tag. Is there something I'm missing, or will this function simply not allow me to replace html? If the latter is the case, is there a function or method that will allow me to do this? Any other advice is welcome as well! CmdUtils.CreateCommand({ name: "fetch-image", author: {name: "Josh Timmer"}, license: "GPL", description: "Replaces links or URLs pointing to images with the image itself", help: "Highlight text or a hyperlink and execute this command", takes: {"image URL": /.*/}, _getImgUrl: function(itemIq) { if (itemIq.html.indexOf("<a ",0) < 0) return itemIq.text; var refPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("href=\"",0); if (refPos < 0) return "Error, no URL found!"; var startPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("\"", refPos); var endPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("\"", startPos + 1); startPos += 1; var url = itemIq.html.substring(startPos, endPos); return url; }, preview: function(pblock, input) { pblock.innerHTML = "Image URL: " + this._getImgUrl(input) + "<br/><br/><img src='" + this._getImgUrl(input) + "'/>"; }, execute: function img_insert(input) { CmdUtils.setSelection("<img src='" + this._getImgUrl(input) + "'/>"); displayMessage("Executed: " + this._getImgUrl(input)); } });

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  • Why does trying to unit test with two .NET 4.0 assemblies under NUnit 2.5.4 fail?

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have an MSBuild script that uses NUnit to run tests in two assemblies. These were on .NET Framework 3.5 and it worked perfectly for a long time. The command line was: (actual paths & names simplified) nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\tests2.dll I've upgraded to VS2010 and have now made the two test assemblies target .NET 4.0. I've also upgraded to NUnit 2.5.4. I can unit test a single assembly with the following: nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll /framework=4.0.30319 It works fine with either tests1.dll or tests2.dll. If I try to specify both like before, it now fails. nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\debug\tests2.dll /framework=4.0.30319 The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'tests2' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I've had a look in fuslogvw and it shows tests2 being searched for in the tests1\bin\debug and nunit-console folders. It never searches tests2\bin\debug even though it's specified on the command line. What's up with that?

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  • How do I fix my "Stream closed" error in spring-ws?

    - by mcherm
    I have working code using the spring-ws library to respond to soap requests. I moved this code to a different project (I'm merging projects) and now it is failing. I would like to figure out the reason for the failure. The symptom I get is this: when the HTTP request arrives, spring begins handling the call. Then I get the following exception: org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapEnvelopeException: Could not access envelope: java.io.IOException: Stream closed; nested exception is javax.xml.soap.SOAPException: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapMessage.getEnvelope(SaajSoapMessage.java:109) <<more lines that don't matter>> Caused by: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at java.io.PushbackInputStream.ensureOpen(PushbackInputStream.java:57) at java.io.PushbackInputStream.read(PushbackInputStream.java:116) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager$RewindableInputStream.read(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager.setupCurrentEntity(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLVersionDetector.determineDocVersion(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XMLParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl$JAXPSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.axis.encoding.DeserializationContext.parse(DeserializationContext.java:227) at org.apache.axis.SOAPPart.getAsSOAPEnvelope(SOAPPart.java:696) ... 30 more Examining it in a debugger, it appears that spring successfully handles HTTP headers, but then when it begins to process the contents of the SOAP message itself, it chokes when reading the very first character of the body. Some googling for the error message suggests that the problem is that a PushbackInputStream which is apparently used for reading from the socket is read twice or perhaps has close() called and then is read afterward. It is happening inside of spring-ws, not my code, and since it worked fine before I moved the code to a new project it must have something to do with versions of spring, or something it uses like axis or xerces. But I can't find any differences in versions of these! Has anyone encountered this error before? Or do you have any suggestions of approaches I could take in troubleshooting this?

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  • Help with Exception Handling in ASP.NET C# Application

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi, yesterday i posted a question regarding the Exception Handling technique, but i did'nt quite get a precise answer, partly because my question must not have been precise. So i will ask it more precisely. There is a method in my BLL for authenticating user. If a user is authenticated it returns me the instance of the User class which i store in the session object for further references. the method looks something like this... public static UsersEnt LoadUserInfo(string email) { SqlDataReader reader = null; UsersEnt user = null; using (ConnectionManager cm = new ConnectionManager()) { SqlParameter[] parameters = new SqlParameter[1]; parameters[0] = new SqlParameter("@Email", email); try { reader = SQLHelper.ExecuteReader(cm.Connection, "sp_LoadUserInfo", parameters); } catch (SqlException ex) { //this gives me a error object } if (reader.Read()) user = new UsersDF(reader); } return user; } now my problem is suppose if the SP does not exist, then it will throw me an error or any other SQLException for that matter. Since this method is being called from my aspx.cs page i want to return some meaning full message as to what could have gone wrong so that the user understands that there was some problem and that he/she should retry logging-in again. but i can't because the method returns an instance of the User class, so how can i return a message instead ?? i hope i made it clear ! thank you.

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  • calloc v/s malloc and time efficiency

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I've read with interest the post "c difference between malloc and calloc". I'm using malloc in my code and would like to know what difference I'll have using calloc instead. My present (pseudo)code with malloc: Scenario 1 int main() { allocate large arrays with malloc INITIALIZE ALL ARRAY ELEMENTS TO ZERO for loop //say 1000 times do something and write results to arrays end for loop FREE ARRAYS with free command } //end main If I use calloc instead of malloc, then I'll have: Scenario2 int main() { for loop //say 1000 times ALLOCATION OF ARRAYS WITH CALLOC do something and write results to arrays FREE ARRAYS with free command end for loop } //end main I have three questions: Which of the scenarios is more efficient if the arrays are very large? Which of the scenarios will be more time efficient if the arrays are very large? In both scenarios,I'm just writing to arrays in the sense that for any given iteration in the for loop, I'm writing each array sequentially from the first element to the last element. The important question: If I'm using malloc as in scenario 1, then is it necessary that I initialize the elements to zero? Say with malloc I have array z = [garbage1, garbage2, garbage 3]. For each iteration, I'm writing elements sequentially i.e. in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, garbage2, garbage3], in the second iteration I get in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, another_result, garbage3] and so on, then do I need specifically to initialize my arrays after malloc?

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  • FileNotFoundException, although the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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  • Backing up my locally hosted rails apps in preparation for OS upgrade

    - by stephen murdoch
    I have some apps running on Heroku. I will be upgrading my OS in two weeks. The last time I upgraded though (6 months ago) I ran into some problems. Here's what I did: copied all my rails apps onto DVD upgraded OS transferred rails apps from DVD to new OS Then, after setting up new SSH-keys I tried to push to some of my heroku apps and, whilst I can't remember the exact error message off-hand, it more or less amounted to "fatal exception the remote end hung up" So I know that I'm doing something wrong here. First of all, is there any need for me to be putting my heroku hosted rails apps onto DVD? Would I be better just pulling all my apps from their heroku repos once I've done the upgrade? What do others do here? The reason I stuck them on DVD is because I tend to push a specific production branch to Heroku and sometimes omit large development files from it... Secondly, was this problem caused by SSH keys? Should I have backed up the old keys and transferred them from my old OS to my new one too, or is Heroku perfectly happy to let you change OS's like that? My solution in the end was to just create new heroku apps and reassign the custom domain names in heroku add-ons menu... I never actually though of pulling from the heroku repos as I tend to push a specific branch to heroku and that branch doesn't always have all the development files in it... I realise that the error message I mentioned doesn't particularly help anyone but I didn't think to remember it 6 months ago. Any advice would be appreciated PS - when I say upgrade, I mean full install of the new version with full format of the HDD.

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