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  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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  • Credit Card storage solution

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • Analyzing an IronPython Scope

    - by Vercinegetorix
    I'm trying to write C# code with an embedded IronPython script. Then want to analyze the contents of the script, i.e. list all variables, functions, class and their members/methods. There's an easy way to start, assuming I've got a scope defined and code executed in it already: dynamic variables=pyScope.GetVariables(); foreach (string v in variables) { dynamic dynamicV=pyScope.GetVariable(); /*seems to return everything. variables, functions, classes, instances of classes*/ } But how do I figure out what the type of a variable is? For the following python 'objects', dynamicV.GetType() will return different values: x=5 --system.Int32 y="asdf" --system.String def func():... --IronPython.Runtime.PythonFunction z=class() -- IronPython.Runtime.Types.OldInstance, how can I identify what the actual python class is? class NewClass -- throws an error, GetType() is unavailable. This is almost what I'm looking for. I could capture the exception thrown when unavailable and assume it's a class declaration, but that seems unclean. Is there a better approach? To discover the members/methods of a class it looks like I can use: ObjectOperations op = pyEngine.Operations; object instance = op.Call("className"); foreach (string j in op.GetMemberNames("className")) { object member=op.GetMember(instance, j); Console.WriteLine(member.GetType()); /*once again, GetType() provides some info about the type of the member, but returns null sometimes*/ } Also, how do I get the parameters to a method? Thanks!

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  • Passing list of values to django view via jQuery ajax call

    - by finspin
    I'm trying to pass a list of numeric values (ids) from one web page to another with jQuery ajax call. I can't figure out how to pass and read all the values in the list. I can successfully post and read 1 value but not multiple values. Here is what I have so far: jQuery: var postUrl = "http://localhost:8000/ingredients/"; $('li').click(function(){ values = [1, 2]; $.ajax({ url: postUrl, type: 'POST', data: {'terid': values}, traditional: true, dataType: 'html', success: function(result){ $('#ingredients').append(result); } }); }); /ingredients/ view: def ingredients(request): if request.is_ajax(): ourid = request.POST.get('terid', False) ingredients = Ingredience.objects.filter(food__id__in=ourid) t = get_template('ingredients.html') html = t.render(Context({'ingredients': ingredients,})) return HttpResponse(html) else: html = '<p>This is not ajax</p>' return HttpResponse(html) With Firebug I can see that POST contains both ids but probably in the wrong format (terid=1&terid=2). So my ingredients view picks up only terid=2. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: To clarify, I need the ourid variable pass values [1, 2] to the filter in the ingredients view.

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  • How can I modified the value of a string defined in a struc?

    - by Eric
    Hi, I have the following code in c++: define TAM 4000 define NUMPAGS 512 struct pagina { bitset<12 direccion; char operacion; char permiso; string *dato; int numero; }; void crearPagina(pagina* pag[], int pos, int dir) { pagina * paginas = (pagina*)malloc(sizeof(char) * TAM); paginas - direccion = bitset<12 (dir); paginas - operacion = 'n'; paginas - permiso = 'n'; string **tempDato = &paginas - dato; char *temp = " "; **tempDato = temp; paginas - numero = 0; pag[pos] = paginas; } I want to modify the value of the variable called "string *dato" in the struct pagina but, everytime I want to assing a new value, the compiler throws a segmentation fault. In this case I'm using a pointer to string, but I have also tried with a string. In a few words I want to do the following: pagina - dato = "test"; Any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • java.awt.Robot.keyPress for continuous keystrokes

    - by Deb
    So, here's my problem. I have a java program which will send keystroke messages to a game (built in Unity), based on how the user interacts with an android phone. (My java program is a listener for the android interaction over wi-fi) Now, in order to do this, I am using java.awt.Robot to send keyPresses to the game window. I have the following code block written in my listener program: if(interacting) { Robot robot = new Robot(); robot.keyPress(VK_A); robot.delay(20); //to simulate the normal keyboard rate } Now the variable interacting will be true as long as the user presses down on the touch screen of the phone, and what I intend to achieve is a continuous chain of keystroke messages being delivered to the game (through the listener). However, this is severely affecting performance, for some reason. I am noticing that the game becomes slow (rapidly dropping frame rates), and even the computer becomes slow, in general. What's going wrong? Should I use a robot.keyRelease(VK_A) after each keyPress? But my game has a different action mapped to the release of a key, and I do not want rapid key presses and releases; what I really want is to simulate continuous keystrokes, in exactly the way it would behave if the user were pressing down the A key on their keyboard manually. Please help.

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  • Which is better Java programming practice: stacking enums and enum constructors, or subclassing?

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given a finite number of items which differ in kind, is it better to represent them with stacked enums and enum constructors, or to subclass them? Or is there a better approach altogether? To give you some context, in my small RPG program (which ironically is supposed to be simple), a character has different kinds of items in his or her inventory. Items differ based on their type and use and effect. For example, one item of inventory is a spell scroll called Gremlin that adjusts the Utility attribute. Another item might be a sword called Mort that is used in combat and inflicts damage. In my RPG code, I now have tried two ways of representing inventory items. One way was subclassing (for example, InventoryItem - Spell - AdjustingAttributes; InventoryItem - Weapon - Sword) and instantiating each subclass when needed, and assigning values such as names like Gremlin and Mort. The other way was by stacking enums and enum constructors. For example, I created enums for itemCategory and itemSpellTypes and itemWeaponTypes, and the InventoryItem enum was like this: public enum InventoryItem { GREMLIN(itemType.SPELL, itemSpellTypes.ATTRIBUTE, Attribute.UTILITY), MORT(itemType.WEAPON, itemWeaponTypes.SWORD, 30); InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemSpellTypes spellType, Attribute attAdjusted) { // snip, enum logic here } InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemWeaponTypes weaponType, int dmg) { // snip, enum logic here } // and so on, for all the permutations of items. } Is there a better Java programming practice than these two approaches? Or if these are the only ways, which of the two is better? Thanks in advance for your suggestions.

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  • Pass in a value into Python Class through command line

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have got some code to pass in a variable into a script from the command line. The script is: import sys, os def function(var): print var class function_call(object): def __init__(self, sysArgs): try: self.function = None self.args = [] self.modulePath = sysArgs[0] self.moduleDir, tail = os.path.split(self.modulePath) self.moduleName, ext = os.path.splitext(tail) __import__(self.moduleName) self.module = sys.modules[self.moduleName] if len(sysArgs) > 1: self.functionName = sysArgs[1] self.function = self.module.__dict__[self.functionName] self.args = sysArgs[2:] except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#__init__", e)) def execute(self): try: if self.function: self.function(*self.args) except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#execute", e)) if __name__=="__main__": test = test() function_call(sys.argv).execute() This works by entering ./function <function> <arg1 arg2 ....>. The problem is that I want to to select the function I want that is in a class rather than just a function by itself. The code I have tried is the same except that function(var): is in a class. I was hoping for some ideas on how to modify my function_call class to accept this. Thanks for any help.

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • XSLT: replace an integer by a string

    - by binogure
    I have a little problem. A node in my XML may contains and integer, and i have to replace this integer by a string. Each number match with a string. For example i have: Integer - String 1 - TODO 2 - IN PROGRESS 3 - DONE 4 - ERROR 5 - ABORTED Original XML: <root> <status>1</status> </root> Converted XML: <root> <status>TODO</status> </root> So i want replace 1 by "TODO", 2 by "IN PROGRESS" ... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/root/status"> <root> <status> <xsl:variable name="text" select="." /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, '1')"> <xsl:value-of select="'TODO'"/> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$text"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </status></root> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I'am asking if there is another way to do that.

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  • django dynamically deduce SITE_ID according to the domain

    - by dcrodjer
    I am trying to develop a site which will render multiple customized sites according to the domain name (subdomain to be more precise). My all the domain names are redirected to the So for each site there will be a corresponding model which defines how the site should look (SITE - SITE_SETTINGS) What will be the best way to utilize the django sites framework to get the SITE_ID of the current site from the domain name instead of hard-coding it in the settings files (django sites documentation) and run database queries, render the views accordingly? If using multiple settings file is my only option can this (wsgi script handle domain name) be done? Update So finally, following lukes answer, what I will do is define a custom middleware which makes the views available with the important vars required according to the domain. And as far as sitemaps and comments is concerned, I will have to customize sitemaps app and a custom sites model on which the other models of sites will be based. And since the comments system is based on the hard-coded sitemap ID I can use it just as is on the models (models will already be filtered according to the site based on my sites framework) though the permalink feature will have to be customized. So a lot of customization. Please suggest if I am going wrong anywhere in this because I have to ensure that the features of the project are optimized. Thanks!

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  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

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  • loading files through one file to hide locations

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

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  • C++. How to define template parameter of type T for class A when class T needs a type A template parameter?

    - by jaybny
    Executor class has template of type P and it takes a P object in constructor. Algo class has a template E and also has a static variable of type E. Processor class has template T and a collection of Ts. Question how can I define Executor< Processor<Algo> > and Algo<Executor> ? Is this possible? I see no way to defining this, its kind of an "infinite recursive template argument" See code. template <class T> class Processor { map<string,T> ts; void Process(string str, int i) { ts[str].Do(i); } } template <class P> class Executor { Proc &p; Executor(P &p) : Proc(p) {} void Foo(string str, int i) { p.Process(str,i); } Execute(string str) { } } template <class E> class Algo { static E e; void Do(int i) {} void Foo() { e.Execute("xxx"); } } main () { typedef Processor<Algo> PALGO; // invalid typedef Executor<PALGO> EPALGO; typedef Algo<EPALGO> AEPALGO; Executor<PALGO> executor(PALGO()); AEPALGO::E = executor; }

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  • What is your personal approach/take on commenting?

    - by Trae
    Duplicate What are your hard rules about commenting? A Developer I work with had some things to say about commenting that were interesting to me (see below). What is your personal approach/take on commenting? "I don't add comments to code unless its a simple heading or there's a platform-bug or a necessary work-around that isn't obvious. Code can change and comments may become misleading. Code should be self-documenting in its use of descriptive names and its logical organization - and its solutions should be the cleanest/simplest way to perform a given task. If a programmer can't tell what a program does by only reading the code, then he's not ready to alter it. Commenting tends to be a crutch for writing something complex or non-obvious - my goal is to always write clean and simple code." "I think there a few camps when it comes to commenting, the enterprisey-type who think they're writing an API and some grand code-library that will be used for generations to come, the craftsman-like programmer that thinks code says what it does clearer than a comment could, and novices that write verbose/unclear code so as to need to leave notes to themselves as to why they did something."

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  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • creating arrays in for loops.... without creating an endless loop that ruins my day!

    - by Peter
    Hey Guys, Im starting with a csv varible of column names. This is then exploded into an array, then counted and tossed into a for loop that is supposed to create another array. Every time I run it, it goes into this endless loop that just hammers away at my browser...until it dies. :( Here is the code.. $columns = 'id, name, phone, blood_type'; <code> $column_array = explode(',',$columns); $column_length = count($column_array); //loop through the column length, create post vars and set default for($i = 0; $i <= $column_length; $i++) { //create the array iSortCol_1 => $column_array[1]... $array[] = 'iSortCol_'.$i = $column_array[0]; } </code> What I would like to get out of all this is a new array that looks like so.. <code> $goal = array( "iSortCol_1" => "id", "iSortCol_2" => "name", "iSortCol_3" => "phone", "iSortCol_4" => "blood_type" ); </code>

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  • Mule ESB 3.2 Splitter destroys Enricher results

    - by Eddie
    Here is the snippet of my flow: <logger message="PRODUCT_ID = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> <splitter evaluator="jxpath" expression="//*/BisacHeaderCodes" doc:name="Splitter"/> <logger message="PRODUCT_ID_POST_SPLITTER = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> #[header:productID] was set up prior to Logger call. I tried #[variable:productID] and got the same result. When I run it, this is the out put I get: INFO 2012-04-05 23:12:47,865 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.api.processor.LoggerMessageProcessor: PRODUCT_ID = 72 ERROR 2012-04-05 23:12:47,871 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.exception.DefaultSystemExceptionStrategy: Caught exception in Exception Strategy: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. org.mule.api.expression.RequiredValueException: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. So, right before Splitter, I have a perfect value in my header, and right after Splitter, that value disappears! I understand that Splitter propagates only part of payloda, but shouldn't it leave headers and variables alone? Any ideas for a workaround?

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  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • How to reference var from frame on timeline in an object class

    - by brybam
    I'm using Flash Professional cs5/AS3 I'll try and describe this the best I can. I'm new to ActionScript. So, in my timeline I have a var on a frame that represents "lives" and i have some code in the timeline that takes down the number of lives depending on certain events, which all works great. so, now i wanted to make a constructor class that I could reuse for a bunch of movie clip objects and I only want these objects to be able to move if the lives variable is greater than certain number. So now, building my constructor class for these objects i just wanted put an if statement that is looking to see if the lives are greater than a certain number, which if it is then should make these objects do what i want...But, when i run the project I get "1120: Access of undefined property lives." lives is the var I made obviously like I said, and it works fine being referenced everyone else except when I make a new .as file for these objects then try and reference it. I get the same error when I try and establish "lives" in the main project class too. I'm not sure where I should put this var or how I can make it so i can reference it from an object class. I'm not really sure how to word or describe my issue which has made it hard to search for a tutorial. Any suggestions i'm sure this has to be a simple task.

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  • Retaining Managed objects - more general retaining objects

    - by Luuk D. Jansen
    A quick question regarding Managed Objects. I created an Array with Managed Objects (in Object 1: TableViewConbtroller), and pass one of those objects to another class/object (object 2: TableCell). The original array should still be retained in the original caller class. Then Object 2 is released, does that mean that that particular item in the array is released as well, as the reference to it in Object 2 was released? I am trying to better understand how to work with ManagedObjects as I get 'Object was released' errors. [EDIT] After some experimenting I came across the following scenario: I have the main AppDelegate. In a different class I create an AppDelegate to obtain the ManagedObjectContext. appDelegate = (iDomsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [self setContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext]]; When the class is finished, and I release it, the variable in the class 'appDelegate' is also released. But then the ManagedObjectContext is closed, and obvious any future attempt to use it will cause a crash. So should I leave the appDelegate unreleased? This comes to the same question as the above about when and how to release in those situations where an objects is used from another class. I think a way of putting it is, how to know when you own an object and when not.

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