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  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • Using `<List>` when dealing with pointers in C#.

    - by Gorchestopher H
    How can I add an item to a list if that item is essentially a pointer and avoid changing every item in my list to the newest instance of that item? Here's what I mean: I am doing image processing, and there is a chance that I will need to deal with images that come in faster than I can process (for a short period of time). After this "burst" of images I will rely on the fact that I can process faster than the average image rate, and will "catch-up" eventually. So, what I want to do is put my images into a <List> when I acquire them, then if my processing thread isn't busy, I can take an image from that list and hand it over. My issue is that I am worried that since I am adding the image "Image1" to the list, then filling "Image1" with a new image (during the next image acquisition) I will be replacing the image stored in the list with the new image as well (as the image variable is actually just a pointer). So, my code looks a little like this: while (!exitcondition) { if(ImageAvailabe()) { Image1 = AcquireImage(); ImgList.Add(Image1); } if(ImgList.Count 0) { ProcessEngine.NewImage(ImgList[0]); ImgList.RemoveAt(0); } } Given the above, how can I ensure that: - I don't replace all items in the list every time Image1 is modified. - I don't need to pre-declare a number of images in order to do this kind of processing. - I don't create a memory devouring monster. Any advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • Passing list of values to django view via jQuery ajax call

    - by finspin
    I'm trying to pass a list of numeric values (ids) from one web page to another with jQuery ajax call. I can't figure out how to pass and read all the values in the list. I can successfully post and read 1 value but not multiple values. Here is what I have so far: jQuery: var postUrl = "http://localhost:8000/ingredients/"; $('li').click(function(){ values = [1, 2]; $.ajax({ url: postUrl, type: 'POST', data: {'terid': values}, traditional: true, dataType: 'html', success: function(result){ $('#ingredients').append(result); } }); }); /ingredients/ view: def ingredients(request): if request.is_ajax(): ourid = request.POST.get('terid', False) ingredients = Ingredience.objects.filter(food__id__in=ourid) t = get_template('ingredients.html') html = t.render(Context({'ingredients': ingredients,})) return HttpResponse(html) else: html = '<p>This is not ajax</p>' return HttpResponse(html) With Firebug I can see that POST contains both ids but probably in the wrong format (terid=1&terid=2). So my ingredients view picks up only terid=2. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: To clarify, I need the ourid variable pass values [1, 2] to the filter in the ingredients view.

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  • Which is better Java programming practice: stacking enums and enum constructors, or subclassing?

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given a finite number of items which differ in kind, is it better to represent them with stacked enums and enum constructors, or to subclass them? Or is there a better approach altogether? To give you some context, in my small RPG program (which ironically is supposed to be simple), a character has different kinds of items in his or her inventory. Items differ based on their type and use and effect. For example, one item of inventory is a spell scroll called Gremlin that adjusts the Utility attribute. Another item might be a sword called Mort that is used in combat and inflicts damage. In my RPG code, I now have tried two ways of representing inventory items. One way was subclassing (for example, InventoryItem - Spell - AdjustingAttributes; InventoryItem - Weapon - Sword) and instantiating each subclass when needed, and assigning values such as names like Gremlin and Mort. The other way was by stacking enums and enum constructors. For example, I created enums for itemCategory and itemSpellTypes and itemWeaponTypes, and the InventoryItem enum was like this: public enum InventoryItem { GREMLIN(itemType.SPELL, itemSpellTypes.ATTRIBUTE, Attribute.UTILITY), MORT(itemType.WEAPON, itemWeaponTypes.SWORD, 30); InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemSpellTypes spellType, Attribute attAdjusted) { // snip, enum logic here } InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemWeaponTypes weaponType, int dmg) { // snip, enum logic here } // and so on, for all the permutations of items. } Is there a better Java programming practice than these two approaches? Or if these are the only ways, which of the two is better? Thanks in advance for your suggestions.

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  • java.awt.Robot.keyPress for continuous keystrokes

    - by Deb
    So, here's my problem. I have a java program which will send keystroke messages to a game (built in Unity), based on how the user interacts with an android phone. (My java program is a listener for the android interaction over wi-fi) Now, in order to do this, I am using java.awt.Robot to send keyPresses to the game window. I have the following code block written in my listener program: if(interacting) { Robot robot = new Robot(); robot.keyPress(VK_A); robot.delay(20); //to simulate the normal keyboard rate } Now the variable interacting will be true as long as the user presses down on the touch screen of the phone, and what I intend to achieve is a continuous chain of keystroke messages being delivered to the game (through the listener). However, this is severely affecting performance, for some reason. I am noticing that the game becomes slow (rapidly dropping frame rates), and even the computer becomes slow, in general. What's going wrong? Should I use a robot.keyRelease(VK_A) after each keyPress? But my game has a different action mapped to the release of a key, and I do not want rapid key presses and releases; what I really want is to simulate continuous keystrokes, in exactly the way it would behave if the user were pressing down the A key on their keyboard manually. Please help.

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  • creating arrays in for loops.... without creating an endless loop that ruins my day!

    - by Peter
    Hey Guys, Im starting with a csv varible of column names. This is then exploded into an array, then counted and tossed into a for loop that is supposed to create another array. Every time I run it, it goes into this endless loop that just hammers away at my browser...until it dies. :( Here is the code.. $columns = 'id, name, phone, blood_type'; <code> $column_array = explode(',',$columns); $column_length = count($column_array); //loop through the column length, create post vars and set default for($i = 0; $i <= $column_length; $i++) { //create the array iSortCol_1 => $column_array[1]... $array[] = 'iSortCol_'.$i = $column_array[0]; } </code> What I would like to get out of all this is a new array that looks like so.. <code> $goal = array( "iSortCol_1" => "id", "iSortCol_2" => "name", "iSortCol_3" => "phone", "iSortCol_4" => "blood_type" ); </code>

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  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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  • How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

    - by Justin Wiseman
    I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How can I modified the value of a string defined in a struc?

    - by Eric
    Hi, I have the following code in c++: define TAM 4000 define NUMPAGS 512 struct pagina { bitset<12 direccion; char operacion; char permiso; string *dato; int numero; }; void crearPagina(pagina* pag[], int pos, int dir) { pagina * paginas = (pagina*)malloc(sizeof(char) * TAM); paginas - direccion = bitset<12 (dir); paginas - operacion = 'n'; paginas - permiso = 'n'; string **tempDato = &paginas - dato; char *temp = " "; **tempDato = temp; paginas - numero = 0; pag[pos] = paginas; } I want to modify the value of the variable called "string *dato" in the struct pagina but, everytime I want to assing a new value, the compiler throws a segmentation fault. In this case I'm using a pointer to string, but I have also tried with a string. In a few words I want to do the following: pagina - dato = "test"; Any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • Javascript nested functions not returning

    - by Achintha Samindika
    I'm building a phonehap application. I'm using an web sql and everything works fine till data retival. function getItemGroups(){ var items_groups = new Array(); var db = window.openDatabase("merbokDB", "1.0", "MerbokDB", 5232394); db.transaction( function(tx){ tx.executeSql('SELECT * FROM item_groups',[], function(tx,result){ if(result.rows.length > 0){ var len = result.rows.length; for (var i=0; i<len; i++){ items_groups.push(result.rows.item(i).item_group); } console.log(items_groups.join()); } } ,errorCB); }, errorCB); return items_groups; } var myproducts = getItemGroups(); My problem was when I run the code "myproducts" variable is blank. but the I can see console.log(items_groups.join()); following line printing the values in console. Is I'm wrong in the way I returning?

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  • receive and pass values with XML, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My example imports XML and has an object rotating on stage. The rotating object is called enemy corresponds to ENEMY in the XML. How do I set the rotation variable to receive values from XML? REASON It seems more difficult to set up variables using external data. I want to understand it better. here's a link http://videodnd.weebly.com/ rotation.fla //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("enemy.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.ENEMY.*; addChild(text); } //ROTATION function enterFrameHandler(event:Event):void { //==>CODE I WANT TO CHANGE<== enemy.rotationY += 10; //enemy.rotationY = myXML.ENEMY.*; } addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterFrameHandler); enemy.xml ENEMY is set to -100, use what you like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <BADGUYS> <ENEMY TITLE="sticky">-100</ENEMY> <ROGUE TITLE="slimy">-1000</ROGUE> </BADGUYS>

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  • How to reference var from frame on timeline in an object class

    - by brybam
    I'm using Flash Professional cs5/AS3 I'll try and describe this the best I can. I'm new to ActionScript. So, in my timeline I have a var on a frame that represents "lives" and i have some code in the timeline that takes down the number of lives depending on certain events, which all works great. so, now i wanted to make a constructor class that I could reuse for a bunch of movie clip objects and I only want these objects to be able to move if the lives variable is greater than certain number. So now, building my constructor class for these objects i just wanted put an if statement that is looking to see if the lives are greater than a certain number, which if it is then should make these objects do what i want...But, when i run the project I get "1120: Access of undefined property lives." lives is the var I made obviously like I said, and it works fine being referenced everyone else except when I make a new .as file for these objects then try and reference it. I get the same error when I try and establish "lives" in the main project class too. I'm not sure where I should put this var or how I can make it so i can reference it from an object class. I'm not really sure how to word or describe my issue which has made it hard to search for a tutorial. Any suggestions i'm sure this has to be a simple task.

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • Trouble determining onclick's target

    - by pwseo
    I've tried and tried... and I can't seem to make this work in IE (tested version 6) Can anybody help me? IE complains about an error but refuses to tell which error it is... var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].getAttribute("class") == "info-link") { a[i].onclick = function(e) { e = e || window.event; var target = e.srcElement || e.target; var info = target.parentNode.getElementsByTagName("div")[0]; if (info.style.display == "none" || info.style.display == "") { info.style.display = "block"; } else { info.style.display = "none"; } return false; } } } <div class="auxdata"> <a href="#" class="info-link">Esta questão possuí dados anexos. Clique para ver.</a> <div style="display: none;" class="info-inner"> <!-- variable stuff here --> </div> </div>

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  • Google Bar Chart Time Label Interval

    - by Alex Angelini
    Hi I am using Google Bar Chart through the visualization API on my site: http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/imagebarchart.html And my x-axis is time, and every time interval is a time of day in the format (HH:MM) Here is my code for the graph: <script type="text/javascript" src="https://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> %s google.load("visualization", "1", {packages:["imagebarchart"]}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'Amount'); data.addRows({{Rows}}); %s var chart = new google.visualization.ImageBarChart(document.getElementById('chart_div')); chart.draw(data, {width: 900, height: 340, min: 0, isVertical:true, legend:'none'}); } </script> The rows of data are added later using a templating engine, but that is the jist of my chart. Because I have added my time variable as 'string' I cannot use the valueLabelsInterval option to only show every 4 labels. Because I can't do that the labels overlap and look ugly. Is there any other way to only show every other time label or every 4th one, I read through the docs but could not see how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated thanks

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  • Retaining Managed objects - more general retaining objects

    - by Luuk D. Jansen
    A quick question regarding Managed Objects. I created an Array with Managed Objects (in Object 1: TableViewConbtroller), and pass one of those objects to another class/object (object 2: TableCell). The original array should still be retained in the original caller class. Then Object 2 is released, does that mean that that particular item in the array is released as well, as the reference to it in Object 2 was released? I am trying to better understand how to work with ManagedObjects as I get 'Object was released' errors. [EDIT] After some experimenting I came across the following scenario: I have the main AppDelegate. In a different class I create an AppDelegate to obtain the ManagedObjectContext. appDelegate = (iDomsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [self setContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext]]; When the class is finished, and I release it, the variable in the class 'appDelegate' is also released. But then the ManagedObjectContext is closed, and obvious any future attempt to use it will cause a crash. So should I leave the appDelegate unreleased? This comes to the same question as the above about when and how to release in those situations where an objects is used from another class. I think a way of putting it is, how to know when you own an object and when not.

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  • django dynamically deduce SITE_ID according to the domain

    - by dcrodjer
    I am trying to develop a site which will render multiple customized sites according to the domain name (subdomain to be more precise). My all the domain names are redirected to the So for each site there will be a corresponding model which defines how the site should look (SITE - SITE_SETTINGS) What will be the best way to utilize the django sites framework to get the SITE_ID of the current site from the domain name instead of hard-coding it in the settings files (django sites documentation) and run database queries, render the views accordingly? If using multiple settings file is my only option can this (wsgi script handle domain name) be done? Update So finally, following lukes answer, what I will do is define a custom middleware which makes the views available with the important vars required according to the domain. And as far as sitemaps and comments is concerned, I will have to customize sitemaps app and a custom sites model on which the other models of sites will be based. And since the comments system is based on the hard-coded sitemap ID I can use it just as is on the models (models will already be filtered according to the site based on my sites framework) though the permalink feature will have to be customized. So a lot of customization. Please suggest if I am going wrong anywhere in this because I have to ensure that the features of the project are optimized. Thanks!

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • Pass in a value into Python Class through command line

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have got some code to pass in a variable into a script from the command line. The script is: import sys, os def function(var): print var class function_call(object): def __init__(self, sysArgs): try: self.function = None self.args = [] self.modulePath = sysArgs[0] self.moduleDir, tail = os.path.split(self.modulePath) self.moduleName, ext = os.path.splitext(tail) __import__(self.moduleName) self.module = sys.modules[self.moduleName] if len(sysArgs) > 1: self.functionName = sysArgs[1] self.function = self.module.__dict__[self.functionName] self.args = sysArgs[2:] except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#__init__", e)) def execute(self): try: if self.function: self.function(*self.args) except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#execute", e)) if __name__=="__main__": test = test() function_call(sys.argv).execute() This works by entering ./function <function> <arg1 arg2 ....>. The problem is that I want to to select the function I want that is in a class rather than just a function by itself. The code I have tried is the same except that function(var): is in a class. I was hoping for some ideas on how to modify my function_call class to accept this. Thanks for any help.

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  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

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  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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