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• How can I share an entity framework model across website users

  - by richardmoss

  Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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• What is your personal approach/take on commenting?

  - by Trae

  Duplicate What are your hard rules about commenting? A Developer I work with had some things to say about commenting that were interesting to me (see below). What is your personal approach/take on commenting? "I don't add comments to code unless its a simple heading or there's a platform-bug or a necessary work-around that isn't obvious. Code can change and comments may become misleading. Code should be self-documenting in its use of descriptive names and its logical organization - and its solutions should be the cleanest/simplest way to perform a given task. If a programmer can't tell what a program does by only reading the code, then he's not ready to alter it. Commenting tends to be a crutch for writing something complex or non-obvious - my goal is to always write clean and simple code." "I think there a few camps when it comes to commenting, the enterprisey-type who think they're writing an API and some grand code-library that will be used for generations to come, the craftsman-like programmer that thinks code says what it does clearer than a comment could, and novices that write verbose/unclear code so as to need to leave notes to themselves as to why they did something."

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• Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

  - by orokusaki

  In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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• MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

  - by Andrew K

  Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

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• How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

  - by tw1k

  I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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• Credit Card storage solution

  - by jtnire

  Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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• callbacks via objective-c selectors

  - by codemonkey

  I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

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• loading files through one file to hide locations

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

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• Pass in a value into Python Class through command line

  - by chrissygormley

  Hello, I have got some code to pass in a variable into a script from the command line. The script is: import sys, os def function(var): print var class function_call(object): def __init__(self, sysArgs): try: self.function = None self.args = [] self.modulePath = sysArgs[0] self.moduleDir, tail = os.path.split(self.modulePath) self.moduleName, ext = os.path.splitext(tail) __import__(self.moduleName) self.module = sys.modules[self.moduleName] if len(sysArgs) > 1: self.functionName = sysArgs[1] self.function = self.module.__dict__[self.functionName] self.args = sysArgs[2:] except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#__init__", e)) def execute(self): try: if self.function: self.function(*self.args) except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#execute", e)) if __name__=="__main__": test = test() function_call(sys.argv).execute() This works by entering ./function <function> <arg1 arg2 ....>. The problem is that I want to to select the function I want that is in a class rather than just a function by itself. The code I have tried is the same except that function(var): is in a class. I was hoping for some ideas on how to modify my function_call class to accept this. Thanks for any help.

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• Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

  - by Jakub

  Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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• Passing list of values to django view via jQuery ajax call

  - by finspin

  I'm trying to pass a list of numeric values (ids) from one web page to another with jQuery ajax call. I can't figure out how to pass and read all the values in the list. I can successfully post and read 1 value but not multiple values. Here is what I have so far: jQuery: var postUrl = "http://localhost:8000/ingredients/"; $('li').click(function(){ values = [1, 2]; $.ajax({ url: postUrl, type: 'POST', data: {'terid': values}, traditional: true, dataType: 'html', success: function(result){ $('#ingredients').append(result); } }); }); /ingredients/ view: def ingredients(request): if request.is_ajax(): ourid = request.POST.get('terid', False) ingredients = Ingredience.objects.filter(food__id__in=ourid) t = get_template('ingredients.html') html = t.render(Context({'ingredients': ingredients,})) return HttpResponse(html) else: html = '<p>This is not ajax</p>' return HttpResponse(html) With Firebug I can see that POST contains both ids but probably in the wrong format (terid=1&terid=2). So my ingredients view picks up only terid=2. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: To clarify, I need the ourid variable pass values [1, 2] to the filter in the ingredients view.

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• How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

  - by Justin Wiseman

  I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

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• Mule ESB 3.2 Splitter destroys Enricher results

  - by Eddie

  Here is the snippet of my flow: <logger message="PRODUCT_ID = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> <splitter evaluator="jxpath" expression="//*/BisacHeaderCodes" doc:name="Splitter"/> <logger message="PRODUCT_ID_POST_SPLITTER = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> #[header:productID] was set up prior to Logger call. I tried #[variable:productID] and got the same result. When I run it, this is the out put I get: INFO 2012-04-05 23:12:47,865 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.api.processor.LoggerMessageProcessor: PRODUCT_ID = 72 ERROR 2012-04-05 23:12:47,871 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.exception.DefaultSystemExceptionStrategy: Caught exception in Exception Strategy: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. org.mule.api.expression.RequiredValueException: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. So, right before Splitter, I have a perfect value in my header, and right after Splitter, that value disappears! I understand that Splitter propagates only part of payloda, but shouldn't it leave headers and variables alone? Any ideas for a workaround?

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• Callback function and function pointer trouble in C++ for a BST

  - by Brendon C.

  I have to create a binary search tree which is templated and can deal with any data types, including abstract data types like objects. Since it is unknown what types of data an object might have and which data is going to be compared, the client side must create a comparison function and also a print function (because also not sure which data has to be printed). I have edited some C code which I was directed to and tried to template, but I cannot figure out how to configure the client display function. I suspect variable 'tree_node' of class BinarySearchTree has to be passed in, but I am not sure how to do this. For this program I'm creating an integer binary search tree and reading data from a file. Any help on the code or the problem would be greatly appreciated :) Main.cpp #include "BinarySearchTreeTemplated.h" #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <string> using namespace std; /*Comparison function*/ int cmp_fn(void *data1, void *data2) { if (*((int*)data1) > *((int*)data2)) return 1; else if (*((int*)data1) < *((int*)data2)) return -1; else return 0; } static void displayNode() //<--------NEED HELP HERE { if (node) cout << " " << *((int)node->data) } int main() { ifstream infile("rinput.txt"); BinarySearchTree<int> tree; while (true) { int tmp1; infile >> tmp1; if (infile.eof()) break; tree.insertRoot(tmp1); } return 0; } BinarySearchTree.h (a bit too big to format here) http://pastebin.com/4kSVrPhm

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• Which is better Java programming practice: stacking enums and enum constructors, or subclassing?

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, Given a finite number of items which differ in kind, is it better to represent them with stacked enums and enum constructors, or to subclass them? Or is there a better approach altogether? To give you some context, in my small RPG program (which ironically is supposed to be simple), a character has different kinds of items in his or her inventory. Items differ based on their type and use and effect. For example, one item of inventory is a spell scroll called Gremlin that adjusts the Utility attribute. Another item might be a sword called Mort that is used in combat and inflicts damage. In my RPG code, I now have tried two ways of representing inventory items. One way was subclassing (for example, InventoryItem - Spell - AdjustingAttributes; InventoryItem - Weapon - Sword) and instantiating each subclass when needed, and assigning values such as names like Gremlin and Mort. The other way was by stacking enums and enum constructors. For example, I created enums for itemCategory and itemSpellTypes and itemWeaponTypes, and the InventoryItem enum was like this: public enum InventoryItem { GREMLIN(itemType.SPELL, itemSpellTypes.ATTRIBUTE, Attribute.UTILITY), MORT(itemType.WEAPON, itemWeaponTypes.SWORD, 30); InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemSpellTypes spellType, Attribute attAdjusted) { // snip, enum logic here } InventoryItem(itemType typeOfItem, itemWeaponTypes weaponType, int dmg) { // snip, enum logic here } // and so on, for all the permutations of items. } Is there a better Java programming practice than these two approaches? Or if these are the only ways, which of the two is better? Thanks in advance for your suggestions.

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• Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

  - by Brian McCord

  I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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• How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

  - by Jesse Beder

  I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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• Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

  - by CL4NCY

  Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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• creating arrays in for loops.... without creating an endless loop that ruins my day!

  - by Peter

  Hey Guys, Im starting with a csv varible of column names. This is then exploded into an array, then counted and tossed into a for loop that is supposed to create another array. Every time I run it, it goes into this endless loop that just hammers away at my browser...until it dies. :( Here is the code.. $columns = 'id, name, phone, blood_type'; <code> $column_array = explode(',',$columns); $column_length = count($column_array); //loop through the column length, create post vars and set default for($i = 0; $i <= $column_length; $i++) { //create the array iSortCol_1 => $column_array[1]... $array[] = 'iSortCol_'.$i = $column_array[0]; } </code> What I would like to get out of all this is a new array that looks like so.. <code> $goal = array( "iSortCol_1" => "id", "iSortCol_2" => "name", "iSortCol_3" => "phone", "iSortCol_4" => "blood_type" ); </code>

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• Retaining Managed objects - more general retaining objects

  - by Luuk D. Jansen

  A quick question regarding Managed Objects. I created an Array with Managed Objects (in Object 1: TableViewConbtroller), and pass one of those objects to another class/object (object 2: TableCell). The original array should still be retained in the original caller class. Then Object 2 is released, does that mean that that particular item in the array is released as well, as the reference to it in Object 2 was released? I am trying to better understand how to work with ManagedObjects as I get 'Object was released' errors. [EDIT] After some experimenting I came across the following scenario: I have the main AppDelegate. In a different class I create an AppDelegate to obtain the ManagedObjectContext. appDelegate = (iDomsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [self setContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext]]; When the class is finished, and I release it, the variable in the class 'appDelegate' is also released. But then the ManagedObjectContext is closed, and obvious any future attempt to use it will cause a crash. So should I leave the appDelegate unreleased? This comes to the same question as the above about when and how to release in those situations where an objects is used from another class. I think a way of putting it is, how to know when you own an object and when not.

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• XSLT: replace an integer by a string

  - by binogure

  I have a little problem. A node in my XML may contains and integer, and i have to replace this integer by a string. Each number match with a string. For example i have: Integer - String 1 - TODO 2 - IN PROGRESS 3 - DONE 4 - ERROR 5 - ABORTED Original XML: <root> <status>1</status> </root> Converted XML: <root> <status>TODO</status> </root> So i want replace 1 by "TODO", 2 by "IN PROGRESS" ... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/root/status"> <root> <status> <xsl:variable name="text" select="." /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, '1')"> <xsl:value-of select="'TODO'"/> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$text"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </status></root> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I'am asking if there is another way to do that.

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• php request variables assigning $_GEt

  - by chris

  if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

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• Basic C programming question

  - by Amit

  Hi all, I've just started to learn C and it's going pretty slow...I wanted to write a program that takes in an integer argument and returns it's doubled value (aka take in integer, multiply by 2, and printf that value). I purposely did not want to use the scanf function. Here's what I have so far and what is not compiling... #include <stdio.h> int main(int index) { if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } So basically when the program is executed I want to supply the index integer. So, in cygwin, I would write something like ./a 10 and 10 would be stored into the index variable. Also, I want to program to return "No index given" and exit if no index value was supplied... Anyone care to help what I'm doing wrong? EDIT: This code returns 1 error upon compilation and is based on the help by @James: #include <stdio.h> int main(int 1, char index) { int index, a; if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } Thanks! Amit

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• Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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• java.awt.Robot.keyPress for continuous keystrokes

  - by Deb

  So, here's my problem. I have a java program which will send keystroke messages to a game (built in Unity), based on how the user interacts with an android phone. (My java program is a listener for the android interaction over wi-fi) Now, in order to do this, I am using java.awt.Robot to send keyPresses to the game window. I have the following code block written in my listener program: if(interacting) { Robot robot = new Robot(); robot.keyPress(VK_A); robot.delay(20); //to simulate the normal keyboard rate } Now the variable interacting will be true as long as the user presses down on the touch screen of the phone, and what I intend to achieve is a continuous chain of keystroke messages being delivered to the game (through the listener). However, this is severely affecting performance, for some reason. I am noticing that the game becomes slow (rapidly dropping frame rates), and even the computer becomes slow, in general. What's going wrong? Should I use a robot.keyRelease(VK_A) after each keyPress? But my game has a different action mapped to the release of a key, and I do not want rapid key presses and releases; what I really want is to simulate continuous keystrokes, in exactly the way it would behave if the user were pressing down the A key on their keyboard manually. Please help.

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