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• What are annotations and how do they actually work for frameworks like Spring?

  - by Rachel

  I am new to Spring and now a days I hear a lot about Spring Framework. I have two sets of very specific questions: Set No. 1: What are annotations in general ? How does annotations works specifically with Spring framework ? Can annotations be used outside Spring Framework or are they Framework specific ? Set No. 2: What module of Spring Framework is widely used in Industry ? I think it is Spring MVC but why it is the most used module, if am correct or correct me on this ? I am newbie to Spring and so feel free to edit this questions to make more sense.

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• IIS7 Overrides customErrors when setting Response.StatusCode?

  - by Nicholas H

  Having a weird problem here. Everybody knows that if you use web.config's customErrors section to make a custom error page, that you should set your Response.StatusCode to whatever is appropriate. For example, if I make a custom 404 page and name it 404.aspx, I could put <% Response.StatusCode = 404 % in the contents in order to make it have a true 404 status header. Follow me so far? Good. Now try to do this on IIS7. I cannot get it to work, period. If Response.StatusCode is set in the custom error page, IIS7 seems to override the custom error page completely, and shows it's own status page (if you have one configured.) Has anyone else seen this behavior and also maybe know how to work around it? It was working under IIS6, so I don't know why things changed. Update: This is not the same as the issue in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/347281/asp-net-custom-404-returning-200-ok-instead-of-404-not-found

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• Does a System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement.Principal ever have a null GUID?

  - by Josh

  I have a situation where I need to store a globally unique identifier that points to an Active Directory user account. I'm leaning towards the Guid because it is easier to store than the Sid. According to the MSDN entry, the property (which is a Nullable), will always return null if the ContextType is set to "Machine." I don't need to worry about this because our ContextType will always be set to "Domain." My question is, will this property ever return null if the ContextType is "Domain"? In other words, will an account in an AD DS store always have a Guid?

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• Quering distinct values throught related model

  - by matheus.emm

  Hi! I have a simple one-to-many (models.ForeignKey) relationship between two of my model classes: class TeacherAssignment(models.Model): # ... some fields year = models.CharField(max_length=4) class LessonPlan(models.Model): teacher_assignment = models.ForeignKey(TeacherAssignment) # ... other fields I'd like to query my database to get the set of distinct years of TeacherAssignments related to at least one LessonPlan. I'm able to get this set using Django query API if I ignore the relation to LessonPlan: class TeacherAssignment(models.Model): # ... model's fields def get_years(self): year_values = self.objects.all().values_list('year').distinct().order_by('-year') return [yv[0] for yv in year_values if len(yv[0]) == 4] Unfortunately I don't know how to express the condition that the TeacherAssignment must be related to at least one LessonPlan. Any ideas how I'd be able to write the query? Thanks in advance.

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• Silverlight MVVM MEF ViewInjection

  - by silverfighter

  Hi all, since my title is buzzword compliant I hope I will get lots of answers to my question or any pointers to the right direction. OK what I usually do is have a ViewModel which contains a list of ViewModels itself. public class MasterViewModel { public ObservableCollection<DetailViewModel> DetailViewModels { get; set; } public DetailViewModel Detail { get; set; } } <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding DetailViewModels}"> <ItemsControl> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <views:DetailsView /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> With this in mind I will now come to my questions. I read a lot of good things about MEF and also saw the dashboard sample of Glenn Block but this was not helping me enough. What I want to do is sidbar (like the windows sidebar). Sidebar = StackPanel ListItems = Gadget ButI want it MVVM style OK I have something like a contract IGadget I implemented an custom Export. [ExportGadget(GadgetType = GadgetTypes.News)] I have my NewsGadgetView.xaml (which implements IGadget) and imports the NewsGadgetViewModel and also makes itself available as ExportGadget. so far so good. With this I can create a set of gadgets. Then I have my SidbarView.xaml which imports a sidebarViewModel. and now I get lost... I thought of something like a GadgetFactory which uses PartCreator to create my Gadgets. but this would sit in my SidebarView.xaml But I want to have control over my Gadgets to add and remove them from my sidebar. So I thought about something like an ObserveableCollection... Which I bind to The GadgetHost is basicaly Grid which will dynamicaly load the Gadget.... So how would I create my sidebar containing different gadgets without knowing which Gadgets are available and have a ViewModel for the sidebar as well as for each gadget?... Thanks for any help....

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• Extracting rightmost N bits of an integer

  - by srandpersonia

  In the yester Code Jam Qualification round http://code.google.com/codejam/contest/dashboard?c=433101#s=a&a=0 , there was a problem called Snapper Chain. From the contest analysis I came to know the problem requires bit twiddling stuff like extracting the rightmost N bits of an integer and checking if they all are 1. I saw a contestant's(Eireksten) code which performed the said operation like below: (((K&(1<<N)-1))==(1<<N)-1) I couldn't understand how this works. What is the use of -1 there in the comparison?. If somebody can explain this, it would be very much useful for us rookies. Also, Any tips on identifying this sort of problems would be much appreciated. I used a naive algorithm to solve this problem and ended up solving only the smaller data set.(It took heck of a time to compile the larger data set which is required to be submitted within 8 minutes.). Thanks in advance.

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• Asp.net razor textbox array for list items

  - by yycdev

  I can't find or figure out how to take a list of items (cupcakes) and display them in razor with a quantity field. What is happening is I am not able to get the values for each cupcake quantity in the list. Can you do textbox arrays in Razor? VIEW <div class="form-group"> <label>Cupcakes</label> @foreach (var cupcake in Model.CupcakeList) { @Html.TextBox("CupcakeQuantities", cupcake.Id) @cupcake.Name <br/> } </div> MODEL public List<Cupcake> CupcakeList { get; set; } public List<int> CupcakeQuantities { get; set; } CONTROLLER public ActionResult Create() { var model = new PartyBookingModel() { CupcakeList = db.Cupcakes.ToList(), CupcakeQuantities = new List<int>() }; return View(model); }

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• performing a javascript event without triggering that event handler

  - by bento

  In my latest code, I have an event handler for a focus on a textarea. When the user clicks on the textarea, that event-handler is triggered which sets some other DOM states based on the selected textarea. However, elsewhere in my program I want to programmatically set the focus of the textarea without triggering that event handler. I know Backbone, for instance, has a way to silently perform an action. My only pseudo-solution is to temporarily set a variable: var silence = true; And then, in my event handler, only perform the logic if silence is false. The handler is still triggered, but the logic doesn't run. Does anyone else know of better strategies for this?

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• Range validation not working properly in MVC3

  - by Colin Desmond

  I am generating data validation javascript in an Asp.Net MVC 3 application with the following code [DisplayName("Latitude Degrees")] [Range(0, 90, ErrorMessage = "Latitude degrees must be between {1} and {2}")] public Int32? LatitudeDegrees { get; set; } on a view model. When it was MVC2 this worked just fine, if I entered a value outside of 0-90 in the textbox I got the validation warnings. Since I moved the application to MVC 3, whenever I put any value into the texbox, legal or illegal I get the validation error appear next to it. I have EnableClientValidation set to true and UseUnobtrusiveJavascript is off (nothing in web.config or the views to turn it on).

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• window title text size

  - by klaus-vlad

  HI, I'd like to know what kind of attributes should I use in xml to set the window title text size ?

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• Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

  - by monojohnny

  Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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• convert string data array to list

  - by prince23

  hi, i have an string data array which contains data like this 5~kiran 2~ram 1~arun 6~rohan now a method returns an value like string [] data public string [] names() { return data.Toarray() } public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } List persons = new List(); string [] names =names(); now i need to copy all the data from an string array to an list and finally bind to grid view gridview.datasoutrce= persons how can i do it. is there any built in method to do it thanks in advance prince

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• When to databind data-bound controls?

  - by sanjuro

  Hi, i have little dilemma, i often use data-bound controls such as Gridview in conjunction with ObjectDataSource. But i have two possible options when can i bind data to Gridview. The first is that i set datasourceid of gridview in aspx file and databind occurs in a moment before PreRender event occurs or i can set datasource in Page_Load event and databinding occurs immediately, something like this: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { testGridView.DataSource = testObjectDataSource.Select(); testGridView.DataBind(); } } I think that in second approach i have more control above databinding. But how it is in real programming life? Which of the above two options is commonly used? Or is there some third option how can i bind data to data-bound control? Thanks for your opinions from real-life experiences.

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• Windows 2008 unable to execute c# powershell app. Returning access exception.

  - by scope-creep

  Hi, Does anybody know why I can't access the folder where my powershell scripts are in windows 2008 Ent. When I try to create a script with textpad it craps out. When I try and execute a c# powershell app, which is stored on another win 2003 drive, it craps out with an access exception as well. I've set powershell execution policy to unrestricted for both normal users and admin users with 'run as admin' on powershell, but it doesn't seem to make a difference. There must be a policy setting, doesn't allow scripts access to a directory, but where, and how to set it. Any help would be appreciated. scope_creep

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• asp.net mvc default model binding problem

  - by csetzkorn

  I have some problems with ASP.NET MVC’s default model binder. The View contains HTML like this: <input name="SubDTO[0].Id" value="1" type="checkbox"> <input name="SubDTO[1].Id" value="2" type="checkbox"> This is my simplified ‘model’: public class SubDTO { public virtual string Id { get; set; } } public class DTO { public List<SubDTO> SubDTOs { get; set; } public DTO() { SubDTOs = new List< SubDTO>(); } } All this works fine if the user selects at least the first checkbox (SubDTO[0].Id). The controller ‘receives’ a nicely initialised/bound DTO. However, if the first check box is not selected but only, for example, SubDTO[1].Id the object SubDTOs is null. Can someone please explain this ‘strange’ behaviour and how to overcome it? Thanks. Best wishes, Christian

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• Multiple instances of this carousel on a single page - can't get it to work

  - by Andy

  This code comes from a tutorial so it's not originally my own work. What I am trying to do is implement this several times on a single page. I have tried and so far failed - by numbering the id "carousel" and so forth. Any help would be seriously appreciated. I'm tearing my hair out. http://jsfiddle.net/AndyMP/zcKDV/5/ For completeness.. this is the carousel JQuery as it stands. //rotation speed and timer var speed = 5000; var run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); //grab the width and calculate left value var item_width = $('#slides li').outerWidth(); var left_value = item_width * (-1); //move the last item before first item, just in case user click prev button $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to the correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); //if user clicked on prev button $('#prev').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) + item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200,function(){ //move the last item and put it as first item $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if user clicked on next button $('#next').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) - item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200, function () { //move the first item and put it as last item $('#slides li:last').after($('#slides li:first')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if mouse hover, pause the auto rotation, otherwise rotate it $('#slides').hover( function() { clearInterval(run); }, function() { run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); } ); //a simple function to click next link //a timer will call this function, and the rotation will begin :) function rotate() { $('#next').click(); }

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• Setting up a "to-many" relationship value dependency for a transient Core Data attribute

  - by Greg Combs

  I've got a relatively complicated Core Data relationship structure and I'm trying to figure out how to set up value dependencies (or observations) across various to-many relationships. Let me start out with some basic info. I've got a classroom with students, assignments, and grades (students X assignments). For simplicity's sake, we don't really have to focus much on the assignments yet. StudentObj <--->> ScoreObj <<---> AssignmentObj Each ScoreObj has a to-one relation with the StudentObj and the AssignmentObj. ScoreObj has real attributes for the numerical grade, the turnInDate, and notes. AssignmentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that assignment (N = all students). AssignmentObj has real attributes for name, dueDate, curveFunction, gradeWeight, and maxPoints. StudentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that student (N = all assignments). StudentObj also has real attributes like name, studentID, email, etc. StudentObj has a transient (calculated, not stored) attribute called gradeTotal. This last item, gradeTotal, is the real pickle. it calculates the student's overall semester grade using the scores (ScoreObj) from all their assignments, their associated assignment gradeWeights, curves, and maxPoints, and various other things. This gradeTotal value is displayed in a table column, along with all the students and their individual assignment grades. Determining the value of gradeTotal is a relatively expensive operation, particularly with a large class, therefore I want to run it only when necessary. For simplicity's sake, I'm not storing that gradeTotal value in the core data model. I don't mind caching it somewhere, but I'm having a bitch of a time determining where and how to best update that cache. I need to run that calculation for each student whenever any value changes that affects their gradeTotal. If this were a simple to-one relationship, I know I could use something like keyPathsForValuesAffectingGradeTotal ... but it's more like a many-to-one-to-many relationship. Does anyone know of an elegant (and KVC correct) solution? I guess I could tear through all those score and assignment objects and tell them to register their students as observers. But this seems like a blunt force approach.

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• iPhone - UITableViewController not loading table

  - by RyanJM

  I'm pushing a UITableViewController onto a navigationController. The title (set in the viewDidLoad) shows up but not the table. numberOfSectionsInTableView is called. But tableView:numberOfRowsInSection: is not called. I'm passing in 1 so it should be looking for number of rows. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } I'm setting up the view in the following manner: SelectUserViewController *nextController = [[SelectUserViewController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; nextController.managedObjectContext = managedObjectContext; OrangeQCAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [delegate.navigationController pushViewController:nextController animated:YES]; Again, the viewDidLoad method is called. And my class is set up as follows: @interface SelectUserViewController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> {...} What else should I be looking at? When I go through the debugger, after it looks at numberOfSectionsInTableView it just disappears (I think it is in the UITableViewController class) and never comes back.

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• Save VM properties with EF code first

  - by Julien

  I thought this would be simple but can't find any good examples. public Class BookVm : ImplementsPropertyChanged { public int BookId {get;set;} private bool _favorite; public bool Favorite { get { return _favorite; } set { _favorite = value; OnPropertyChanged("Favorite"); MyDbContext.SaveChanges() // this does not work } } Then in my XAML bound to Book <CheckBox Content="Favorite" IsChecked="{Binding Favorite}" /> How and when do I call SaveChanges() on my DatabaseContext? I don't want to implement a save button. If I intercept the PropertyChange event and call SaveChanges, nothing seems to happen. My object is modified in memory but the database does not see a change. My BookVm class is created on application startup like so: foreach (var book in MyDbContext.Books) Books.Add(book); Where Books is an ObservableCollection<Book> in my MainWindowVm

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• Stored procedure does not return result when using Temp table

  - by Muhammad Akhtar

  I have used temp table in my stored procedure and unable to get the result when executing. It return result fine when running the same as query. my query structure is something like... ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[test] as begin SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT * INTO #Dates FROM Dates -- Used temp table SET @Query = ' SELECT [Name], [HotelName], '+@Dates+' FROM ( SELECT , HD.[Name], HD.[HotelName], HD.Price FROM #Dates D LEFT JOIN #HotelData HD ON D.DateVal = HD.OccDate) T PIVOT ( SUM(Price) FOR [Date] IN ('+@Dates+') ) AS PT' execute(@Query) end Exec test -- Exectuting, I am getting message command completed successfully

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• Coldfusion returning typed objects / AMF remoting

  - by Chin

  Is the same possible in ColdFusion? Currently I am using .Net/Fluorine to return objects to the client. Whilst in testing I like to pass strings representing the select statement and the custom object I wish to have returned from my service. Fluorine has a class ASObject to which you can set the var 'typeName'; which works great. I am hoping that this is possible in Coldfusion. Does anyone know whether you can set the type of the returned object in a similar way. This is especially helpful with large collections as the flash player will convert them to a local object of the same name thus saving interating over the collection to convert the objects to a particular custom object. foreach (DataRow row in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { ASObject obj = new ASObject(); foreach (DataColumn col in ds.Tables[0].Columns) { obj.Add(col.ColumnName, row[col.ColumnName]); } obj.TypeName = pObjType; al.Add(obj); } Many thanks,

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• Share java object between two forms using Spring IoC

  - by Vladimir

  I want to share java object between two forms using Spring IoC. It should acts like Registry: Registry.set("key", new Object()); // ... Object o = Registry.get("key"); // ... Registry.set("key", new AnotherObject()); // rewrite old object I tried this code to register bean at runtime: applicationContext.getBeanFactory().registerSingleton("key", object); but it does not allow to rewrite existing object (result code for checking and deleting existing bean is too complicated)... PS I am Java newbie, so mb I am doing it wrong and I should not use IoC at all... any help is appreciated...

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• System.Timers.Timer leaking due to "direct delegate roots"

  - by alimbada

  Apologies for the rather verbose and long-winded post, but this problem's been perplexing me for a few weeks now so I'm posting as much information as I can in order to get this resolved quickly. We have a WPF UserControl which is being loaded by a 3rd party app. The 3rd party app is a presentation application which loads and unloads controls on a schedule defined by an XML file which is downloaded from a server. Our control, when it is loaded into the application makes a web request to a web service and uses the data from the response to display some information. We're using an MVVM architecture for the control. The entry point of the control is a method that is implementing an interface exposed by the main app and this is where the control's configuration is set up. This is also where I set the DataContext of our control to our MainViewModel. The MainViewModel has two other view models as properties and the main UserControl has two child controls. Depending on the data received from the web service, the main UserControl decides which child control to display, e.g. if there is a HTTP error or the data received is not valid, then display child control A, otherwise display child control B. As you'd expect, these two child controls bind two separate view models each of which is a property of MainViewModel. Now child control B (which is displayed when the data is valid) has a RefreshService property/field. RefreshService is an object that is responsible for updating the model in a number of ways and contains 4 System.Timers.Timers; a _modelRefreshTimer a _viewRefreshTimer a _pageSwitchTimer a _retryFeedRetrievalOnErrorTimer (this is only enabled when something goes wrong with retrieving data). I should mention at this point that there are two types of data; the first changes every minute, the second changes every few hours. The controls' configuration decides which type we are using/displaying. If data is of the first type then we update the model quite frequently (every 30 seconds) using the _modelRefreshTimer's events. If the data is of the second type then we update the model after a longer interval. However, the view still needs to be refreshed every 30 seconds as stale data needs to be removed from the view (hence the _viewRefreshTimer). The control also paginates the data so we can see more than we can fit on the display area. This works by breaking the data up into Lists and switching the CurrentPage (which is a List) property of the view model to the right List. This is done by handling the _pageSwitchTimer's Elapsed event. Now the problem My problem is that the control, when removed from the visual tree doesn't dispose of it's timers. This was first noticed when we started getting an unusually high number of requests on the web server end very soon after deploying this control and found that requests were being made at least once a second! We found that the timers were living on and not stopping hours after the control had been removed from view and that the more timers there were the more requests piled up at the web server. My first solution was to implement IDisposable for the RefreshService and do some clean up when the control's UnLoaded event was fired. Within the RefreshServices Dispose method I've set Enabled to false for all the timers, then used the Stop() method on all of them. I've then called Dispose() too and set them to null. None of this worked. After some reading around I found that event handlers may hold references to Timers and prevent them from being disposed and collected. After some more reading and researching I found that the best way around this was to use the Weak Event Pattern. Using this blog and this blog I've managed to work around the shortcomings in the Weak Event pattern. However, none of this solves the problem. Timers are still not being disabled or stopped (let alone disposed) and web requests are continuing to build up. Mem Profiler tells me that "This type has N instances that are directly rooted by a delegate. This can indicate the delegate has not been properly removed" (where N is the number of instances). As far as I can tell though, all listeners of the Elapsed event for the timers are being removed during the cleanup so I can't understand why the timers continue to run. Thanks for reading. Eagerly awaiting your suggestions/comments/solutions (if you got this far :-p)

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• How to configure IIS to serve my 404 response with my custom content?

  - by Marek

  This question is related to this, hopefully better phrased. I would like to serve a custom 404 page from ASP.NET MVC. I have the route handler and all the infrastructure set up to ensure that nonexistent routes are handled by a single action: public ActionResult Handle404() { Response.StatusCode = 404; return View("NotFound"); } Problem: IIS serves back its own content (some predefined message) when I set Response.StatusCode to 404 before returning the content. On the VS development web server, this works as intended - the status code of the HTTP response is 404 while my content (the NotFound view) is served. I believe that when the IIS processing pipeline sees that the application returns 404, it simply replaces the whole response with its own. What setting in IIS affects this behavior? I do not have access to the IIS installation so I can not investigate this - however, I can ask the hosting provider to tweak the configuration for me if I know what exactly needs to be changed.

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• When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

  - by Steven Lu

  I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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