atomic values - Page 605

$_POST in php 5.3.5 does not work

- by naji

dear all iam working in php 5.3.5 this is the html file <html> <body> <form action="welcome.php" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" /> Age: <input type="text" name="age" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </body> </html> and this is the php file <html> <body> Welcome <?php echo $_POST["fname"]; ?>!<br /> You are <?php echo $_POST["age"]; ?> years old. </body> </html> the problem the values are not passed and the output like Welcome ! You are years old. But it has to be like this Welcome John! You are 28 years old. can any one help me please?? naji

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NHibernate mapping with two special cases

- by brainimus

I am using NHibernate to map a class to a database table. The Part table has an ID column (primary key) and a ParentPart column (along with a few others). class Part { public virtual long ID{ get; set; } public virtual Part ParentPart { get; set; } } The ParentPart is normally another valid part in the part table but I have two special cases. I have a case where the ParentPart column can be 0 (zero) and another case where it can be -1. Neither of these cases currently represent another valid Part object. I was thinking I could make 2 subclasses of Part (ZeroPart and NegativeOnePart) that would never persist. I want the zero and -1 values to be entered in the column but not persist the entire ZeroPart or NegativeOnePart objects. I am unsure how to map this (I'm using hbm files) or if this even the correct approach. How can I map this so that normal valid parts are persisted but I can also handle the special cases? As an aside: My current hbm file has the Part.ID's unsaved value as zero but I think I can just change this in the mapping to something different and default it in the class.

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VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

- by Queops

We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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confusion about using types instead of gtts in oracle

- by Omnipresent

I am trying to convert queries like below to types so that I won't have to use GTT: insert into my_gtt_table_1 (house, lname, fname, MI, fullname, dob) (select house, lname, fname, MI, fullname, dob from (select 'REG' house, mbr_last_name lname, mbr_first_name fname, mbr_mi MI, mbr_first_name || mbr_mi || mbr_last_name fullname, mbr_dob dob from table_1 a, table_b where a.head = b.head and mbr_number = '01' and mbr_last_name = v_last_name) c above is just a sample but complex queries are bigger than this. the above is inside a stored procedure. So to avoid the gtt (my_gtt_table_1). I did the following: create or replace type lname_row as object ( house varchar2(30) lname varchar2(30), fname varchar2(30), MI char(1), fullname VARCHAR2(63), dob DATE ) create or replace type lname_exact as table of lname_row Now in the SP: type lname_exact is table of <what_table_should_i_put_here>%rowtype; tab_a_recs lname_exact; In the above I am not sure what table to put as my query has nested subqueries. query in the SP: (I am trying this for sample purpose to see if it works) select lname_row('', '', '', '', '', '', sysdate) bulk collect into tab_a_recs from table_1; I am getting errors like : ORA-00913: too many values I am really confused and stuck with this :(

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Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

- by Geoffrey Stoel

I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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Database contents setting themselves to 0

- by Luis Armando

I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

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How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

- by Kyle

I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

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Calculating and saving space in Postgresql

- by punkish

I have a table in Pg like so CREATE TABLE t ( a BIGSERIAL NOT NULL, -- 8 b b SMALLINT, -- 2 b c SMALLINT, -- 2 b d REAL, -- 4 b e REAL, -- 4 b f REAL, -- 4 b g INTEGER, -- 4 b h REAL, -- 4 b i REAL, -- 4 b j SMALLINT, -- 2 b k INTEGER, -- 4 b l INTEGER, -- 4 b m REAL, -- 4 b CONSTRAINT a_pkey PRIMARY KEY (a) ) The above adds up to 50 bytes per row. My experience is that I need another 40% to 50% for system overhead, without even any user-created indexes to the above. So, about 75 bytes per row. I will have many, many rows in the table, potentially upward of 145 billion rows, so the table is going to be pushing 13-14 Terabytes. What tricks, if any, could I use to compact this table? My possible ideas below -- Convert the REAL values to INTEGERs. If they can stored as SMALLINT, that is a saving of 2 bytes per field. Convert the columns b .. m into an array. I don't need to search on those columns, but I do need to be able to return one column's value at a time. So, if I need column g, I could do something like SELECT a, arr[5] FROM t; Would I save space with the array option? Would there be a speed penalty? Any other ideas?

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scanf a byte then print it out?

- by Sarah

I've searched around to see if I can find this answer but I can't seem to (please let me know if I'm wrong). I am trying to use scanf to read in a byte, an unsigned int and a char in one .c file and I am trying to access this byte in a different .c file and print it out. (I have already checked to make sure I have included all the appropriate parameters everywhere) But I keep getting errors. The warnings are: database.c: In function ‘addCitizen’: database.c:23:2: warning: format ‘%hhu’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘byte *’ [-Wformat] database.c:24:2: warning: format ‘%u’ expects argument of type ‘unsigned int’, but argument 2 has type ‘int *’ [-Wformat] database.c:25:2: warning: format ‘%c’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘char *’ [-Wformat] where I'm scanf'ing: // Request loop while (count-- != 0) { while (1){ // Get values from the user int error = scanf ("%79s %hhu %u %c", tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); addCitizen(db, tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); where I'm printing: void addCitizen(Database *db, char *tname, byte *tdist, int *tyear, char *tgender){ //needs to find the right place in memory to put this stuff and then put it there printf("\nName is: %79s\n", tname); printf("District is: %hhu\n", tdist); printf("Year of birth is: %u\n", tyear); printf("Gender is:%c\n", tgender); I'm not sure where I'm going wrong?

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Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

- by somemorebytes

Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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How can I generate an "unlimited" world?

- by snowlord

I would like to create a game with an endless (in reality an extremely large) world in which the player can move about. Whether or not I will ever get around to implement the game is one matter, but I find the idea interesting and would like some input on how to do it. The point is to have a world where all data is generated randomly on-demand, but in a deterministic way. Currently I focus on a large 2D map from which it should be possible to display any part without knowledge about the surrounding parts. I have implemented a prototype by writing a function that gives a random-looking, but deterministic, integer given the x and y of a pixel on the map (see my recent question about this function). Using this function I populate the map with "random" values, and then I smooth the map using a simple filter based on the surrounding pixels. This makes the map dependent on a few pixels outside its edge, but that's not a big problem. The final result is something that at least looks like a map (especially with a good altitude color map). Given this, one could maybe first generate a coarser map which is used to generate bigger differences in altitude to create mountain ranges and seas. Anyway, that was my idea, but I am sure that there exist ways to do this already and I also believe that given the specification, many of you can come up with better ideas. EDIT: Forgot the link to my question.

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How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

- by KevinDeus

I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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how to send image to remote server using web services in android

- by Aswan

get image from sdcard and store that image to remote server. i am getting the image from sdcard and i converterd that image to bytearray by using bitmap .but what's the problem if i oberver byte array it is showing some different values it is not matching with .net image byte array conversion. can u pl help if you have any solution it is very urgent to me following is the code i am using can u pl suggest me FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(new File("/sdcard/pictures/1.jpg")); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(fin,3000); byte[] data = new byte[bis.available()]; bis.read(data, 0, data.length); byte[] data1=new byte[data.length]; for (int i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { System.out.print(data[i]); data1[i]=data[i]; } System.out.println("5..................."+data1); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(data1,0,data1.length); System.out.println("6..................."+data1.length); Log.v("hgfjohfjghjdfhgj",""+bitmap); if(bitmap!=null) image.setImageBitmap(bitmap); else Log.e("Bitmap "," Not Created");

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Session variables not getting set but only in Internet Explorer and not on all machines

- by gaoshan88

Logging into a site I'm working on functions as expected on my local machine but fails on the remote server but ONLY in Internet Explorer. The kicker is that it works in IE locally, just not on the remote machine. What in the world could cause this? I have stepped through the code on the remote machine and can see the entered login values being checked in the database, they are found and then a login function is called. This sets two $_SESSION variables and redirects to the main admin page. However, in IE only (and not when run on local machine... this is key) the $_SESSION variables are not present by the time you get to the main admin page. var_dump($_SESSION) gives me what I expect on every browser when I am running this in my local environment and in every browser except IE 6, 7 and 8 when run on the remote server (where I get a null value as if nothing has been set for $_SESSION). This really has me stumped so any advice is appreciated. For an example... in IE, run locally, var_dump gives me: array 'Username' => string 'theusername' length=11 'UserID' => string 'somevalue' length=9 Run on the remote server (IE only... works fine in other browsers) var_dump gives me: array(0){} Code: $User = GetUser($Username, $Password); if ($User->UserID <> "") { // this works so we call Login()... Login($User); // this also works and gives expected results. on to redirect... header("Location: index.php"); // a var_dump at index.php shows that there is no session data at all in IE, remotely. } else { header("Location: login.php"); } function Login($data) { $_SESSION['Username'] = $data->Username; $_SESSION['UserID'] = $data->UserID; // a var dump here gives the expected data in every browser }

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Why adding custom objects to List<T> in ApplicationSettingsBase via constructor doesn't work?

- by BadNinja

This is pretty closely related to another SO question. Using the example below, could someone explain to me why adding a new List<Foo> where each of Foo's properties are explicitly set causes the ApplicationSettingsBase.Save() method to correctly store the data, whereas adding a new Foo to the list via a constructor (where the constructor sets the property values) does not work? Thanks! public class Foo { public Foo(string blah, string doh) { this.Blah = blah; this.Doh = doh; } public Foo() { } public string Blah { get; set; } public string Doh { get; set; } } public sealed class MySettings : ApplicationSettingsBase { [UserScopedSetting] public List<Foo> MyFoos { get { return (List<Foo>)this["MyFoos"]; } set { this["MyFoos"] = value; } } } // Here's the question... private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MySettings mySettings = new MySettings(); // Adding new Foo's to the list like this doesn't work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo("doesn't","work") }; // But doing it like this DOES work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo() {Blah = "DOES", Doh = "work"} }; mySettings.MyFoos = theList; mySettings.Save(); }

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Efficient way to store order in mySQL for list of items

- by ninumedia

I want to code cleaner and more efficiently and I wanted to know any other suggestions for the following problem: I have a mySQL database that holds data about a set of photograph names. Oh, say 100 photograph names Table 1: (photos) has the following fields: photo_id, photo_name Ex data: 1 | sunshine.jpg 2 | cloudy.jpg 3 | rainy.jpg 4 | hazy.jpg ... Table 2: (categories) has the following fields: category_id, category_name, category_order Ex data: 1 | Summer Shots | 1,2,4 2 | Winter Shots | 2,3 3 | All Seasons | 1,2,3,4 ... Is it efficient to store the order of the photos in this manner per entry via comma delimited values? It's one approach I have seen used before but I wanted to know if something else is faster in run time. Using this way I don't think it is possible to do a direct INNER JOIN on the category table and photo table to get a single matched list of all the photographs per category. Ex: Summer shots - sunshine.jpg, cloudy.jpg, hazy.jpg because it was matched against 1,2,4 The iteration through all the categories and then the photos will have a O(n^2) and there has to be a better/faster way. Please educate me :)

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Fast way to manually mod a number

- by Nikolai Mushegian

I need to be able to calculate (a^b) % c for very large values of a and b (which individually are pushing limit and which cause overflow errors when you try to calculate a^b). For small enough numbers, using the identity (a^b)%c = (a%c)^b%c works, but if c is too large this doesn't really help. I wrote a loop to do the mod operation manually, one a at a time: private static long no_Overflow_Mod(ulong num_base, ulong num_exponent, ulong mod) { long answer = 1; for (int x = 0; x < num_exponent; x++) { answer = (answer * num_base) % mod; } return answer; } but this takes a very long time. Is there any simple and fast way to do this operation without actually having to take a to the power of b AND without using time-consuming loops? If all else fails, I can make a bool array to represent a huge data type and figure out how to do this with bitwise operators, but there has to be a better way.

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Is it possible to get the parsed text of a SqlCommand with SqlParameters?

- by Burg

What I am trying to do is create some arbitrary sql command with parameters, set the values and types of the parameters, and then return the parsed sql command - with parameters included. I will not be directly running this command against a sql database, so no connection should be necessary. So if I ran the example program below, I would hope to see the following text (or something similar): WITH SomeTable (SomeColumn) AS ( SELECT N':)' UNION ALL SELECT N'>:o' UNION ALL SELECT N'^_^' ) SELECT SomeColumn FROM SomeTable And the sample program is: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; namespace DryEraseConsole { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { const string COMMAND_TEXT = @" WITH SomeTable (SomeColumn) AS ( SELECT N':)' UNION ALL SELECT N'>:o' UNION ALL SELECT @Value ) SELECT SomeColumn FROM SomeTable "; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(COMMAND_TEXT); cmd.CommandText = COMMAND_TEXT; cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter { ParameterName = "@Value", Size = 128, SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar, Value = "^_^" }); Console.WriteLine(cmd.CommandText); Console.ReadKey(); } } } Is this something that is achievable using the .net standard libraries? Initial searching says no, but I hope I'm wrong.

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NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

- by rdelmar

I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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Cant seem to get CSS working on an appended table

- by battlenub

I have an ajax request to a php file returning me rows of 3 values each. I want to append these into a table. This works. I get my info in my table but I can't seem to add classes or id's and get some styling on it. http://jsfiddle.net/AKh4n/1/ success : function(data) { $('#lijstbeh').empty(); var data2 = jQuery.parseJSON(data); $('#lijstbeh').append('<table class="table">'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<tr>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling ID</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling kort</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling datum</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('</tr>'); $.each (data2,function (bb) { $('#lijstbeh').append('<tr class="tblbehandelingen">'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_ID + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_behandelingkort + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_datum + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('</tr>'); }); $('#lijstbeh').append('</table>'); }

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Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R (...again)

- by monch1962

Hello all, (I tried to ask this question earlier today, but later realised I over-simplified the question; the answers I received were correct, but I couldn't use them because of my over-simplification of the problem in the original question. Here's my 2nd attempt...) I have a data frame in R that looks like: "Timestamp", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , P1 , P2 , 5 , "ABCDE" 0.2 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "HIJ" 0.4 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "PQRS" 0.5 , P2 , P1 , 2 , "ZY" 0.9 , P2 , P1 , 4 , "SRQP" 1.1 , P1 , P2 , 1 , "B" 1.6 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "DEF" 2.0 , P2 , P1 , 3 , "IJK" ... and I want to convert this to: "StartTime", "EndTime", "Duration", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , 0.4 , 0.3 , P1 , P2 , 12 , "ABCDEHIJPQRS" 0.5 , 0.9 , 0.4 , P2 , P1 , 6 , "ZYSRQP" 1.1 , 1.6 , 0.5 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "BDEF" ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' and 'Target' together, then print out a single record per group showing the StartTime, EndTime & Duration (=EndTime-StartTime) for that group, along with the sum of the Lengths for that group, and a concatenation of the Content (which will all be strings) in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase throughout the data frame. I had a look at melt/recast and have a feeling that it could be used to solve the problem, but couldn't get my head around the documentation. I suspect it's possible to do this within R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

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Regarding some Update Stored procedure

- by Serenity

I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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How to create view model without sorting collections in memory.

- by Chevex

I have a view model (below). public class TopicsViewModel { public Topic Topic { get; set; } public Reply LastReply { get; set; } } I want to populate an IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> with values from my IQueryable<Topic> collection and IQueryable<Reply> collection. I do not want to use the attached entity collection (i.e. Topic.Replies) because I only want the last reply for that topic and doing Topic.Replies.Last() loads the entire entity collection in memory and then grabs the last one in the list. I am trying to stay in IQueryable so that the query is executed in the database. I also don't want to foreach through topics and query replyRepository.Replies because looping through IQueryable<Topic> will start the lazy loading. I'd prefer to build one expression and have all the leg work done in the lower layers. I have the following: IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> topicsViewModel = from x in topicRepository.Topics from y in replyRepository.Replies where y.TopicID == x.TopicID orderby y.PostedDate ascending select new TopicsViewModel { Topic = x, LastReply = y }; But this isn't working. Any ideas how I can populate an IQueryable or IEnumerable of TopicsViewModel so that it queries the database and grabs topics and that topic's last reply? I am trying really hard to avoid grabbing all replies related to that topic. I only want to grab the last reply. Thank you for any insight you have to offer.

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problem with joomla, php and json

- by sebastian

hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

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Deserialize xml which uses attribute name/value pairs

- by Bodyloss

My application receives a constant stream of xml files which are more or less a direct copy of the database record <record type="update"> <field name="id">987654321</field> <field name="user_id">4321</field> <field name="updated">2011-11-24 13:43:23</field> </record> And I need to deserialize this into a class which provides nullable property's for all columns class Record { public long? Id { get; set; } public long? UserId { get; set; } public DateTime? Updated { get; set; } } I just cant seem to work out a method of doing this without having to parse the xml file manually and switch on the field's name attribute to store the values. Is their a way this can be achieved quickly using an XmlSerializer? And if not is their a more efficient way of parsing it manually? Regards and thanks My main problem is that the attribute name needs to have its value set to a property name and its value as the contents of a <field>..</field> element

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