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• How can I prevent the "... has stopped working" window on my Server 2008 R2 dev box?

  - by serialhobbyist

  I'm using a Windows Server 2008 x64 R2 machine as a development box. Amongst many other things I've got Visual Studio 2008 SP1 installed on it. When I'm working on a project, I sometimes need to use Debug Start without Debugging (Ctrl + F5). If the program throws an exception, I get a new R2-style window appear. I'm pretty sure I didn't see this on my XP box - this is the first time I've developed directly on a server. Is there any way to avoid this - it's really beginning to bug me? E.g. my current project is accessing a WCF service - I'm using Ctrl+F5 to start a console program client. I run it and get the window. The title is the name of the project I've just started and it contains: [insert-project-name-here] has stopped working Windows can check online for a solution to the problem. --> Check online for a solution and close the program --> Close the program --> Debug the program V View problem details. Clicking on "Close the program" will actually close the window and the exception message appears in the console, which is what I want (but without the extra window-faffing). How can I avoid this annoyance?

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• Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

  - by Mark

  I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• MySQLPython is ignoring my my.cnf file. Where does it get its information?

  - by ?????

  When I try to use MySQLPython (via SQLAlchemy) I get the error File "/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-x86_64.egg/MySQLdb/connections.py", line 188, in __init__ super(Connection, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs2) sqlalchemy.exc.OperationalError: (OperationalError) (2002, "Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/opt/local/var/run/mysql5/mysqld.sock' (2)") None None but no other mysql client on my machine sees it fine! My my.cnf file states: [client] port = 3306 socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [safe_mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld_safe] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock port = 3306 and the mysql.sock file is, indeed, located in /tmp/mysql I verified that ~/.my.cnf and /var/lib/mysql/my.cnf aren't overriding it. The mysql5 client program, etc, has no trouble connecting and neither does a groovy/grails installation on the same machine using jdbc/mysql connection thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ mysql5 Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 6 Server version: 5.1.47 Source distribution Copyright (c) 2000, 2010, Oracle and/or its affiliates. All rights reserved. This software comes with ABSOLUTELY NO WARRANTY. This is free software, and you are welcome to modify and redistribute it under the GPL v2 license Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql> show databases; +--------------------+ | Database | +--------------------+ | information_schema | | test | +--------------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) mysql> Why can't MySQLdb for python figure this out? Where would it look if not the my.cnf files?

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• Caching issue with javascript and asp.net

  - by Ed Woodcock

  Hi guys: I asked a question a while back on here regarding caching data for a calendar/scheduling web app, and got some good responses. However, I have now decided to change my approach and stat caching the data in javascript. I am directly caching the HTML for each day's column in the calendar grid inside the $('body').data() object, which gives very fast page load times (almost unnoticable). However, problems start to arise when the user requests data that is not yet in the cache. This data is created by the server using an ajax call, so it's asynchronous, and takes about 0.2s per week's data. My current approach is simply to block for 0.5s when the user requests information from the server, and cache 4 weeks either side in the inital page load (and 1 extra week per page change request), however I doubt this is the optimal method. Does anyone have a suggestion as to how to improve the situation? To summarise: Each week takes 0.2s to retrieve from the server, asynchronously. Performance must be as close to real-time as possible. (however the data is not needed to be fully real-time: most appointments are added by the user and so we can re-cache after this) Currently 4 weeks are cached on either side of the inial week loaded: this is not enough. to cache 1 year takes ~ 21s, this is too slow for an initial load.

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• select option clears when page loads in php

  - by user79685

  Hey guys, the scenario is this: see select below <form name="limit"> <select name="limiter" onChange="limit(this.value)"> <option selected="selected">&nbsp;</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="10">10</option> <option value="15">15</option> </select> </form> I want whenever any option is selected for 3 things to happen: 1.) js limit() function is called which all it does its takes current url, adds new query parameter 'limit' with the user selected value eg: http://localhost/blahblah/apps/category.php?pg=1&catId=3021&limit=5 (this will cause the category.php page to be hit and # of product displayed limited to the value selected by user) 2.)Once the url is hit, it reloads but i DONT want the value selected to reset back to the default (which it currently does). I want it to reflect the users selection after page reload. 3.) Also, when i move to the next page (pagination), i would like the state to be carried ova to the next page (ie. remembering the user selection).

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• multi-shop orders table and sequential order numbers based on shop

  - by imanc

  Hey, I am looking at building a shop solution that needs to be scalable. Currently it retrieves 1-2000 orders on average per day across multiple country based shops (e.g. uk, us, de, dk, es etc.) but this order could be 10x this amount in two years. I am looking at either using separate country-shop databases to store the orders tables, or looking to combine all into one order table. If all orders exist in one table with a global ID (auto num) and country ID (e.g uk,de,dk etc.), each countries orders would also need to have sequential ordering. So in essence, we'd have to have a global ID and a country order ID, with the country order ID being sequential for countries only, e.g. global ID = 1000, country = UK, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1001, country = DE, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1002, country = DE, country order ID = 1001 global ID = 1003, country = DE, country order ID = 1002 global ID = 1004, country = UK, country order ID = 1001 THe global ID would be DB generated and not something I would need to worry about. But I am thinking that I'd have to do a query to get the current country order based ID+1 to find the next sequential number. Two things concern me about this: 1) query times when the table has potentially millions of rows of data and I'm doing a read before a write, 2) the potential for ID number clashes due to simultaneous writes/reads. With a MyISAM table the entire table could be locked whilst the last country order + 1 is retrieved, to prevent ID number clashes. I am wondering if anyone knows of a more elegant solution? Cheers, imanc

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• Undefined Web.config error in VS 2008

  - by user1066050

  I'm working on a web app using VS 2008, .Net 3.5 and C#. Most of the projects in the solution are either classic asp.net pages with some MVC 1 in the mix, the rest is shared libraries. The solution is one that is some 5 years old and has gone through a variety of developers working on it and clearly has some performance and architectural issues. Previously, I've been working on the project using VS 2008 on a Win XP machine, but have just transitioned over to a new box using Win 7 Ultimate. To do so, I've installed VS 2008, asp.net 3.5. To support future work on the solution I've also installed VS 2010 and asp.net 4.0. Opening the solution on the new box with VS 2008 works fine, and it builds without error. However, when I attempt to run it with the debugger, I get the following message: "There is an error in web.config. Please correct before proceeding. (You might rename the current web.config and add a new one.)" I think it's clear that there is some sort of environmental issue regarding web.config on the new machine, but the error message is not "helpful". Adding a new web.config is not an option as the existing one is quite long and involved (too much to post here). I'm hoping someone has a suggestion or two about where I might look for missing elements or changed configurations that might produce such an error message. Lacking that, I'll revisit this post and provide the web.config in the hope that will elicit further help. Thanks to all in advance for taking a look at this. The StackOverflow community has helped me many times in the past with pertinent answers although this is my first posting. Jeff

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• Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

  - by Mokuchan

  I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

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• How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

  - by cg

  For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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• CSS call from code behind not working

  - by SmartestVEGA

  I have the following entries in the css file. a.intervalLinks { font-size:11px; font-weight:normal; color:#003399; text-decoration:underline; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:link { text-decoration:underline; } a.intervalLinks:hover { text-decoration:none; } a.intervalLinks:visited { text-decoration:underline; } a.selectedIntervalLink { font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; color:#003399; text-decoration:none; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; } Whenever i take the click on some links (not shown) which is embedded in the webpage ..i can see the change in the link a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; (the font of the link will become large) but after clicking the page refreshes ..the changes will go away i want to keep the change for ever in that link ...even there is a page refresh i understood that ..this can achieved only throughg the code behind of asp.net Following code should work:but unfortunately its not ..could anyone help? protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { rptDeptList.ItemDataBound += new RepeaterItemEventHandler(rptDeptList_ItemDataBound); } void rptDeptList_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.DataItem == null) return; LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("LinkButton1"); btn.Attributes.Add("class", "intervalLinks"); } Current html code for links has been shown below : <ItemTemplate> <div class='dtilsDropListTxt'><div class='rightArrow' ></div> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text=<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "WORK_AREA")%> CssClass="intervalLinks" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" ></asp:LinkButton> </div> </ItemTemplate> Could anyone help?

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• XCode 4.4 bundle version updates not picked up until subsequent build

  - by Mark Struzinski

  I'm probably missing something simple here. I am trying to auto increment my build number in XCode 4.4 only when archiving my application (in preparation for a TestFlight deployment). I have a working shell script that runs on the target and successfully updates the info.plist file for each build. My build configuration for archiving is name 'Ad-Hoc'. Here is the script: if [ $CONFIGURATION == Ad-Hoc ]; then echo "Ad-Hoc build. Bumping build#..." plist=${PROJECT_DIR}/${INFOPLIST_FILE} buildnum=$(/usr/libexec/PlistBuddy -c "Print CFBundleVersion" "${plist}") if [[ "${buildnum}" == "" ]]; then echo "No build number in $plist" exit 2 fi buildnum=$(expr $buildnum + 1) /usr/libexec/Plistbuddy -c "Set CFBundleVersion $buildnum" "${plist}" echo "Bumped build number to $buildnum" else echo $CONFIGURATION " build - Not bumping build number." fi This script updates the plist file appropriately and is reflected in XCode each time I archive. The problem is that the .ipa file that comes out of the archive process is still showing the previous build number. I have tried the following solutions with no success: Clean before build Clean build folder before build Move Run Script phase to directly after the Target Dependencies step in Build Phases Adding the script as a Run Script action in my scheme as a pre-action No matter what I do, when I look at the build log, I see that the info.plist file is being processed as one of the very first steps. It is always prior to my script running and updating the build number, which is, I assume, why the build number is never current in the .ipa file. Is there a way to force the Run Script phase to run before the info.plist file is processed?

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• W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

  - by ThomasReggi

  Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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• how do i implement / build / create an 'in memory database' for my unit test

  - by Michel

  Hi all, i've started unit testing a while ago and as turned out i did more regression testing than unit testing because i also included my database layer thus going to the database verytime. So, implemented Unity to inject a fake database layer, but i of course want to store some data, and the main opinion was: "create an in-memory database" But what is that / how do i implement that? Main question is: i think i have to fake the database layer, but doesn't that make me create a 'simple database' myself or: how can i keep it simple and not rebuilding Sql Server just for my unit tests :) At the end of this question i'll give an explanation of the situation i got in on the project i just started on, and i was wondering if this was the way to go. Michel Current situation i've seen at this client is that testdata is contained in XML files, and there is a 'fake' database layer that connects all the xml files together. For the real database we're using the entity framework, and this works very simple. And now, in the 'fake' layer, i have top create all kind of classes to load, save, persist etc. the data. It sounds weird that there is so much work in the fake layer, and so little in the real layer. I hope this all makes sense :)

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• HTTP Handler error when downloading files - SSL

  - by Chiefy

  Ok big problem as this is affecting two projects on our new server. We have a file that is downloaded by users, the files are downloaded using a HTTPHandler. Since moving the site to the server and setting SSL the downloads have stopped working and we get an error message "Unable to download DownloadDocument.ashx" from site". DownloadDocument.ashx is the handler page that is set in the web.config and the button that goes there is a hyperlink with the id of the document as a querystring. Ive read the article on http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316431 and read a few other requests on this site but nothing seems to be working. This problem only happens in IE and works fine when I run it on the server in http instead of https. public override void HandleRequest(HttpContext context) { Guid guid = new Guid(context.Request.QueryString["ID"]); DataTable dt = Documents.GetDocument(guid); if (dt != null) { context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}", dt.Rows[0]["DocumentName"].ToString())); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Transfer-Encoding", "binary"); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", ((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]).Length.ToString()); context.Response.ContentType = string.Format("application/{0}", dt.Rows[0]["Extension"].ToString().Remove(0, 1)); context.Response.Buffer = true; context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]); context.Response.Flush(); context.Response.End(); } } The above is my current code for the request. Ive used the base handler on http://haacked.com/archive/2005/03/17/AnAbstractBoilerplateHttpHandler.aspx. Any ideas on what this might be and how we can fix it. Thanks in advance for all responses.

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• Moving UIScrollView in App

  - by jsetting32

  Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

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• Java object graph -> xml when direction of object association needs to be reversed.

  - by Sigmoidal

  An application I have been working on has objects with a relationship similar to below. In the real application both objects are JPA entities. class Underlying{} class Thing { private Underlying underlying; public Underlying getUnderlying() { return underlying; } public void setUnderlying(final Underlying underlying) { this.underlying = underlying; } } There is a requirement in the application to create xml of the form: <template> <underlying> <thing/> <thing/> <thing/> </underlying> </template> So we have a situation where the object graph expresses the relationship between Thing and Underlying in the opposite direction to how it's expressed in the xml. I expect to use JAXB to create the xml but ideally I don't want to have to create a new object hierarchy to reflect the associations in the xml. Is there any way to create xml of the form required from the entities in their current form (through the use of xml annotations or something)? I don't have any experience using JAXB but from the limited research I've done it doesn't seem like it's possible to reverse the direction of association in any straightforward way. Any help/advice would be greatly appreciated. One other option that has been suggested is to use XLST to transform the xml into the correct format. I have done no research on this topic as yet but I'll add to the question when I have some more info. Thanks, Matt.

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• How can I bind Wpf DataGridColumn to an object?

  - by John

  I want to bind the columns of my WPF DataGrid to some objects in a Dictionary like this: Binding Path=Objects[i] where Objects is my Dictionary of objects, so that each cell will represent an Object element. How can I do that? I suppose that I need to create a template for my cell, which I did, but how to get the result of column binding in my template? I know that by default the content of a DataGridCell is a TextBlock and it's Text property is set through column binding result, but if that result is an object I guess that I have to create a ContentTemplate. How do I do that, as the stuff I tried is not displaying anything. Here it is what I tried: <Style x:Key="CellStyle" TargetType="{x:Type dg:DataGridCell}"> <Setter Property="Template"> ---it should realy be ContentTemplate? <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <controls:DataGridCellControl CurrentObject="{Binding }"/> -- I would expect to get the object like this for this column path : Path=Objects[i] but is not working </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> So, to make myself completly clear, i want to get in CurrentObject property of my DataGridCellControl the current object that should result if I set the column binding in my data grid like this Path=Objects[i]. Thank you for any suggestion, John.

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• Loading .dll/.exe from file into temporary AppDomain throws Exception

  Hi Gang, I am trying to make a Visual Studio AddIn that removes unused references from the projects in the current solution (I know this can be done, Resharper does it, but my client doesn't want to pay for 300 licences). Anyhoo, I use DTE to loop through the projects, compile their assemblies, then reflect over those assemblies to get their referenced assemblies and cross-examine the .csproj file. Problem: since the .dll/.exe I loaded up with Reflection doesn't unload until the app domian unloads, it is now locked and the projects can't be built again because VS tries to re-create the files (all standard stuff). I have tried creating temporary files, then reflecting over them...no worky, still have locked original files (I totally don’t understand that BTW). Now I am now going down the path of creating a temporary AppDomain to load the files into and then destroy. I am having problems loading the files though: The way I understand AddDomain.Load is that I should create and send a byte array of the assembly to it. I do that: FileStream fs = new FileStream(assemblyFile, FileMode.Open); byte[] assemblyFileBuffer = new byte[(int)fs.Length]; fs.Read(assemblyFileBuffer, 0, assemblyFileBuffer.Length); fs.Close(); AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = assemblyFileInfo.Directory.FullName; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", null, domainSetup); Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer); The last line throws an exception: "Could not load file or assembly 'WindowsFormsApplication1, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified.":"WindowsFormsApplication3, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"}" Any help or thoughts would be greatly appreciated. My head is lopsided from beating it against the wall... Thanks, Dan

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• Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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• How to find an embedded platform?

  - by gmagana

  I am new to the locating hardware side of embedded programming and so after being completely overwhelmed with all the choices out there (pc104, custom boards, a zillion option for each board, volume discounts, devel kits, ahhh!!) I am asking here for some direction. Basically, I must find a new motherboard and (most likely) re-implement the program logic. Rewriting this in C/C++/Java/C#/Pascal/BASIC is not a problem for me. so my real problem is finding the hardware. This motherboard will have several other devices attached to it. Here is a summary of what I need to do: Required: 2 RS232 serial ports (one used all the time for primary UI, the second one not continuous) 1 modem (9600+ baud ok) [Modem will be in simultaneous use with only one of the serial port devices, so interrupt sharing with one serial port is OK, but not both] Minimum permanent/long term storage: Whatever O/S requires + 1 MB (executable) + 512 KB (Data files) RAM: Minimal, whatever the O/S requires plus maybe 1MB for executable. Nice to have: USB port(s) Ethernet network port Wireless network Implementation languages (any O/S I will adapt to): First choice Java/C# (Mono ok) Second choice is C/Pascal Third is BASIC Ok, given all this, I am having a lot of trouble finding hardware that will support this that is low in cost. Every manufacturer site I visit has a lot of options, and it's difficult to see if their offering will even satisfy my must-have requirements (for example they sometimes list 3 "serial ports", but it appears that only one of the three is RS232, for example, and don't mention what the other two are). The #1 constraint is cost, #2 is size. Can anyone help me with this? This little task has left me thinking I should have gone for EE and not CS :-). EDIT: A bit of background: This is a system currently in production, but the original programmer passed away, and the current hardware manufacturer cannot find hardware to run the (currently) DOS system, so I need to reimplement this in a modern platform. I can only change the programming and the motherboard hardware.

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• Best Way to View Generated Source of Webpage?

  - by jeremy

  I'm looking for a tool that will give me the proper generated source including DOM changes made by AJAX requests for input into W3's validator. I've tried the following methods: Web Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it removes the self closing portion of tags). Loses the doctype portion of the page. Firebug - Fixes potential flaws in the source (e.g. unclosed tags). Also loses doctype portion of tags and injects the console which itself is invalid HTML. IE Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it makes all tags uppercase, against XHTML spec). Highlight + View Selection Source - Frequently difficult to get the entire page, also excludes doc-type. Is there any program or add-on out there that will give me the exact current version of the source, without fixing or changing it in some way? So far, Firebug seems the best, but I worry it may fix some of my mistakes. Solution It turns out there is no exact solution to what I wanted as Justin explained. The best solution seems to be to validate the source inside of Firebug's console, even though it will contain some errors caused by Firebug. I'd also like to thank Forgotten Semicolon for explaining why "View Generated Source" doesn't match the actual source. If I could mark 2 best answers, I would.

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• Design Philosophy Question - When to create new functions

  - by Eclyps19

  This is a general design question not relating to any language. I'm a bit torn between going for minimum code or optimum organization. I'll use my current project as an example. I have a bunch of tabs on a form that perform different functions. Lets say Tab 1 reads in a file with a specific layout, tab 2 exports a file to a specific location, etc. The problem I'm running into now is that I need these tabs to do something slightly different based on the contents of a variable. If it contains a 1 I may need to use Layout A and perform some extra concatenation, if it contains a 2 I may need to use Layout B and do no concatenation but add two integer fields, etc. There could be 10+ codes that I will be looking at. Is it more preferable to create an individual path for each code early on, or attempt to create a single path that branches out only when absolutely required. Creating an individual path for each code would allow my code to be extremely easy to follow at a glance, which in turn will help me out later on down the road when debugging or making changes. The downside to this is that I will increase the amount of code written by calling some of the same functions in multiple places (for example, steps 3, 5, and 9 for every single code may be exactly the same. Creating a single path that would branch out only when required will be a bit messier and more difficult to follow at a glance, but I would create less code by placing conditionals only at steps that are unique. I realize that this may be a case-by-case decision, but in general, if you were handed a previously built program to work on, which would you prefer?

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• How to create nested ViewComponents in Monorail and NVelocity?

  - by rob_g

  I have been asked to update the menu on a website we maintain. The website uses Castle Windors Monorail and NVelocity as the template. The menu is currently rendered using custom made subclasses of ViewComponent, which render li elements. At the moment there is only one (horizontal) level, so the current mechanism is fine. I have been asked to add drop down menus to some of the existing menus. As this is the first time I have seen Monorail and NVelocity, I'm a little lost. What currently exists: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #component(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> Is it possible to have nested MenuComponents (or a new SubMenuComponent) something like: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #blockcomponent(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Plans" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/plans") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Operating Systems" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/os") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Supported Applications" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/apps") #end #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> I need to draw the sub menu (ul and li elements) inside the overridden Render method on MenuComponent, so using nested ViewComponent derivatives may not work. I would like a method keep the basically declarative method for creating menus, if at all possible.

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• jQuery: show an element from select drop down, hide it when other option selected

  - by Ricardo Zea

  I've tried looking around and there are similar problems, but mine is way more simple, but yet, I can't find a solution within these forums. While learning jQuery, I'm trying to show a DIV when an item/option from a select drop down is selected, and hide that same DIV when any other option in the select drop down is selected. select HTML: <select name="source" id="source"> <option value="null" selected="selected">&mdash;Select&mdash;</option> <option value="s1">Source 1</option> <option value="s2">Source 2</option> <option value="sother">Other</option> </select> DIV I need to show when 'Other' is selected: <div id="specify-source">Other source here...</div> When any other option in the select menu is selected, the above DIV shouldn't be visible. I've tried this jQuery but of course it doesn't work properly: $(function() { $.viewMap = { 'sother' : $('#specify-source') }; $('#source').change(function() { // hide all $.each($.viewMap, function() { this.hide(); }); // show current $.viewMap[$(this).val()].show(); }); }); Any help you can give me, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks,

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