Search Results

Search found 18677 results on 748 pages for 'current'.

Page 612/748 | < Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >

• Tab bar application with UINavigation Controller MOC not being retained.

  - by iamsmug

  I created a tab bar application from the template and added a navigation controller to one of the tabs. I have already created this app from the navigation app template already and is working. The reason I am doing it this way is because I need to add a tab bar and thought it would be easier starting by using the tab bar project template and adding the nav controller to it rather than the other way round. I have copied the data model over from the other project and added the relevant code to where it should be. The problem I am having is passing the moc from the app delegate to the tab with the nav controller on. Here is a snippet from my applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; Top_BananaTableViewController *top_BananaTableViewController = (Top_BananaTableViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; top_BananaTableViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the tab bar controller's current view as a subview of the window [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Everything seems fine here but when it comes to the fetchedResultsController on my nav controller view it bombs out with: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'cards'' When I checked what was set to my managedObjectContext on that view it was null. I don't know why or where it is loosing it's setting. Please help.

  Read the article

• django dynamically deduce SITE_ID according to the domain

  - by dcrodjer

  I am trying to develop a site which will render multiple customized sites according to the domain name (subdomain to be more precise). My all the domain names are redirected to the So for each site there will be a corresponding model which defines how the site should look (SITE - SITE_SETTINGS) What will be the best way to utilize the django sites framework to get the SITE_ID of the current site from the domain name instead of hard-coding it in the settings files (django sites documentation) and run database queries, render the views accordingly? If using multiple settings file is my only option can this (wsgi script handle domain name) be done? Update So finally, following lukes answer, what I will do is define a custom middleware which makes the views available with the important vars required according to the domain. And as far as sitemaps and comments is concerned, I will have to customize sitemaps app and a custom sites model on which the other models of sites will be based. And since the comments system is based on the hard-coded sitemap ID I can use it just as is on the models (models will already be filtered according to the site based on my sites framework) though the permalink feature will have to be customized. So a lot of customization. Please suggest if I am going wrong anywhere in this because I have to ensure that the features of the project are optimized. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to make NSIS create a file in an %APPDATA% of another user?

  - by SCO

  I wrote an NSIS installer script for postgresql 9.1. The installer works properly, but after the reboot, the service is not started (right after the install, the database started properly though) I guess this is because the postgres service user has no pgpass.conf file in its %APPDATA%. As far as I understand my install script, the pgpass.conf file is added to the %APPDATA% of the user running the installer (an administrator account in my case). This will not help. I tried the following, to add the pgpass.conf to all users, bt I guess this adds it to a kind of wildcard, not to the %APPDATA% of each user : SetShellVarContext "all" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf SetShellVarContext "current" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf I couldn't find the macro name for c:/Users/postgres in the documentation. This could be a way to achieve it. But with WindowsXP, 7, I wish I need a portable way to address the /Users directory. I wish I could use something like SetShellVarContext "postgres", and then have NSIS write the pgpass.conf file in c:\Users\postgres\AppData\postgresql. Is there a way to do this ? Thnk you !

  Read the article

• Problems with Backbone.Model callback and THIS

  - by Rev. Samuel

  I'm building a simple weather widget. The current weather conditions are read out of the National Weather Service xml file and then I want to parse and store the relevant data in the model but the callback for the $.ajax won't connect (the way I'm doing it). var Weather = Backbone.Model.extend({ initialize: function(){ _.bindAll( this, 'update', 'startLoop', 'stopLoop' ); this.startLoop(); }, startLoop: function(){ this.update(); this.interval = window.setInterval( _.bind( this.update, this ), 1000 * 60 * 60 ); }, stopLoop: function(){ this.interval = window.clearInterval( this.interval ); }, store: function( data ){ this.set({ icon : $( data ).find( 'icon_url_name' ).text() }); }, update: function(){ $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'xml/KROC.xml', datatype: 'xml' }) .done( function( data ) { var that = this; that.store( $( data ).find( 'current_observation' )[ 0 ] ); }); } }); var weather = new Weather(); The data is read correctly but I can't get the done function of the call back to call the store function. (I would be happy if the "done" would just parse and then do "this.set". Thanks in advance for your help.

  Read the article

• Using child visitor in C#

  - by Thomas Matthews

  I am setting up a testing component and trying to keep it generic. I want to use a generic Visitor class, but not sure about using descendant classes. Example: public interface Interface_Test_Case { void execute(); void accept(Interface_Test_Visitor v); } public interface Interface_Test_Visitor { void visit(Interface_Test_Case tc); } public interface Interface_Read_Test_Case : Interface_Test_Case { uint read_value(); } public class USB_Read_Test : Interface_Read_Test_Case { void execute() { Console.WriteLine("Executing USB Read Test Case."); } void accept(Interface_Test_Visitor v) { Console.WriteLine("Accepting visitor."); } uint read_value() { Console.WriteLine("Reading value from USB"); return 0; } } public class USB_Read_Visitor : Interface_Test_Visitor { void visit(Interface_Test_Case tc) { Console.WriteLine("Not supported Test Case."); } void visit(Interface_Read_Test_Case rtc) { Console.WriteLine("Not supported Read Test Case."); } void visit(USB_Read_Test urt) { Console.WriteLine("Yay, visiting USB Read Test case."); } } // Code fragment USB_Read_Test test_case; USB_Read_Visitor visitor; test_case.accept(visitor); What are the rules the C# compiler uses to determine which of the methods in USB_Read_Visitor will be executed by the code fragment? I'm trying to factor out dependencies of my testing component. Unfortunately, my current Visitor class contains visit methods for classes not related to the testing component. Am I trying to achieve the impossible?

  Read the article

• Weird stuttering issues not related to GC.

  - by Smills

  I am getting some odd stuttering issues with my game even though my FPS never seems to drop below 30. About every 5 seconds my game stutters. I was originally getting stuttering every 1-2 seconds due to my garbage collection issues, but I have sorted those and will often go 15-20 seconds without a garbage collection. Despite this, my game still stutters periodically even when there is no GC listed in logcat anywhere near the stutter. Even when I take out most of my code and simply make my "physics" code the below code I get this weird slowdown issue. I feel that I am missing something or overlooking something. Shouldn't that "elapsed" code that I put in stop any variance in the speed of the main character related to changes in FPS? Any input/theories would be awesome. Physics: private void updatePhysics() { //get current time long now = System.currentTimeMillis(); //added this to see if I could speed it up, it made no difference Thread myThread = Thread.currentThread(); myThread.setPriority(Thread.MAX_PRIORITY); //work out elapsed time since last frame in seconds double elapsed = (now - mLastTime2) / 1000.0; mLastTime2 = now; //measures FPS and displays in logcat once every 30 frames fps+=1/elapsed; fpscount+=1; if (fpscount==30) { fps=fps/fpscount; Log.i("myActivity","FPS: "+fps+" Touch: "+touch); fpscount=0; } //this should make the main character (theoretically) move upwards at a steady pace mY-=100*elapsed; //increase amount I translate the draw to = main characters Y //location if the main character goes upwards if (mY<=viewY) { viewY=mY; } }

  Read the article

• Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

  - by yongsun

  I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

  Read the article

• Visual Studio / Blend... how you organize that?

  - by TomTom

  Virst time more complex stuff in WPF. I am a little lost on the split betwen VS and Blend. It seems I am VERY limited with editors in Visual Studio for editing controls - when customizing, for example, it seems I Can enter astyle in XML... but in blend I Can tell it to make a copy of the CURRENT style and use that as a starter, definitely more convenient. I understand the "difference in focus", but it seems to me that i Really need both tools to work, especially if the controls I Do are: More complex Not user controls "on purpose" (to allow more customization by programmes using the application). THis means when I do a control, my approach would be: Work on the backend as good as it gets without front end (i.e. implement all methods needed etc., but can be dummies) Switch over to Blend (closing visual studio - as the projcet must be closed) Put in the initial templating Switch over to VIsual Studio (closing blend) Put logic in and debug. This seems pretty counterintuitively. Am I missing something obvious here?

  Read the article

• Measuring time spent in application / thread

  - by Adamski

  I am writing a simulation in Java whereby objects act under Newtonian physics. An object may have a force applied to it and the resulting velocity causes it to move across the screen. The nature of the simulation means that objects move in discrete steps depending on the time ellapsed between the current and previous iteration of the animation loop; e.g public void animationLoop() { long prev = System.currentTimeMillis(); long now; while(true) { long now = System.currentTimeMillis(); long deltaMillis = now - prev; prev = now; if (deltaMillis > 0) { // Some time has passed for (Mass m : masses) { m.updatePosition(deltaMillis); } // Do all repaints. } } } A problem arises if the animation thread is delayed in some way causing a large amount of time to ellapse (the classic case being under Windows whereby clicking and holding on minimise / maximise prevents a repaint), which causes objects to move at an alarming rate. My question: Is there a way to determine the time spent in the animation thread rather than the wallclock time, or can anyone suggest a workaround to avoid this problem? My only thought so far is to contstrain deltaMillis by some upper bound.

  Read the article

• Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

  Read the article

• Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

  - by mboyle

  I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

  Read the article

• Is sending a hashed password over the wire a security hole?

  - by Ubiquitous Che

  I've come across a system that is in use by a company that we are considering partnering with on a medium-sized (for us, not them) project. They have a web service that we will need to integrate with. My current understanding of proper username/password management is that the username may be stored as plaintext in the database. Every user should have a unique pseudo-random salt, which may also be stored in plaintext. The text of their password must be concatenated with the salt and then this combined string may be hashed and stored in the database in an nvarchar field. So long as passwords are submitted to the website (or web service) over plaintext, everything should be just lovely. Feel free to rip into my understanding as summarized above if I'm wrong. Anyway, back to the subject at hand. The WebService run by this potential partner doesn't accept username and password, which I had anticipated. Instead, it accepts two string fields named 'Username' and 'PasswordHash'. The 'PasswordHash' value that I have been given does indeed look like a hash, and not just a value for a mis-named password field. This is raising a red flag for me. I'm not sure why, but I feel uncomfortable sending a hashed password over the wire for some reason. Off the top of my head I can't think of a reason why this would be a bad thing... Technically, the hash is available on the database anyway. But it's making me nervous, and I'm not sure if there's a reason for this or if I'm just being paranoid.

  Read the article

• Jquery Sorting by Letter

  - by Batfan

  I am using jquery to sort through a group of paragraph tags (kudos to Aaron Harun). It pulls the value "letter" (a letter) from the url string and displays only paragraphs that start with that letter. It hides all others and also consolidates the list so that there are no duplicates showing. See the code: var letter = '<?php echo(strlen($_GET['letter']) == 1) ? $_GET['letter'] : ''; ?>' function finish(){ var found_first = []; jQuery('p').each(function(){ if(jQuery(this).text().substr(0,1).toUpperCase() == letter){ if(found_first[jQuery(this).text()] != true){ jQuery(this).addClass('current-series'); found_first[jQuery(this).text()] = true; }else{ jQuery(this).hide(); } } else{ jQuery(this).hide();} }) } Been working with this all day and I have 2 Questions on this: Is there a way to get it to ignore the word 'The', if it's first? For example, if a paragraph starts with 'The Amazing', I would like it to show up on the 'A' page, not the 'T' page, like it currently is. Is there a way to have a single page for (all) numbers? For example, the url to the page would be something similar to domain.com/index.php?letter=0 and this would show only the paragraph tags that start with a number, any number. I can currently do this with single numbers but, I would like 1 page for all numbers.

  Read the article

• Creating Actions from UIActionSheets help

  - by user337174

  I am using two UIAction sheets within my current project. I can get one to work perfectly fine but when i insert a second action sheet it runs the same arguements as the first. How do i define the actionsheets seperatly? -(IBAction) phoneButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Phone: %@",phone],nil]; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [actionSheet release]; } -(IBAction) mapButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *mapActionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Map"],nil]; mapActionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [mapActionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [mapActionSheet release]; } -(void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if(buttonIndex == 0){ NSString *callPhone = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@",phone]; NSLog(@"Calling: %@", callPhone); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:callPhone]]; } }

  Read the article

• jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

  - by Victor Jackson

  I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

  Read the article

• A good data model for finding a user's favorite stories

  - by wings

  Original Design Here's how I originally had my Models set up: class UserData(db.Model): user = db.UserProperty() favorites = db.ListProperty(db.Key) # list of story keys # ... class Story(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() # ... On every page that displayed a story I would query UserData for the current user: user_data = UserData.all().filter('user =' users.get_current_user()).get() story_is_favorited = (story in user_data.favorites) New Design After watching this talk: Google I/O 2009 - Scalable, Complex Apps on App Engine, I wondered if I could set things up more efficiently. class FavoriteIndex(db.Model): favorited_by = db.StringListProperty() The Story Model is the same, but I got rid of the UserData Model. Each instance of the new FavoriteIndex Model has a Story instance as a parent. And each FavoriteIndex stores a list of user id's in it's favorited_by property. If I want to find all of the stories that have been favorited by a certain user: index_keys = FavoriteIndex.all(keys_only=True).filter('favorited_by =', users.get_current_user().user_id()) story_keys = [k.parent() for k in index_keys] stories = db.get(story_keys) This approach avoids the serialization/deserialization that's otherwise associated with the ListProperty. Efficiency vs Simplicity I'm not sure how efficient the new design is, especially after a user decides to favorite 300 stories, but here's why I like it: A favorited story is associated with a user, not with her user data On a page where I display a story, it's pretty easy to ask the story if it's been favorited (without calling up a separate entity filled with user data). fav_index = FavoriteIndex.all().ancestor(story).get() fav_of_current_user = users.get_current_user().user_id() in fav_index.favorited_by It's also easy to get a list of all the users who have favorited a story (using the method in #2) Is there an easier way? Please help. How is this kind of thing normally done?

  Read the article

• How to (kindly) ask your users to upgrade from IE6?

  - by nickf

  It's no secret at all that IE6 has been a major roadblock to the advancement of the web over the last few years. I couldn't count the number of hours I've spent bashing my head against a wall trying to fix or debug IE6 issues. The way I see it, there are two types of IE6 user. a) the poor corporate schmoe whose IT department doesn't want to upgrade in case something breaks, and b) the mums and dads of the world who think the internet is the blue E on their desktop (and I don't mean that in a nasty way). There's probably a couple of people who know about all the other browsers, but still choose to run IE6. They get what they deserve, IMO. Anyway, getting to the point, I'd say that 90% of my IE6-using visitors are in the the mums and dads category - they're not stupid, they just don't know WHY they should upgrade to IE7 or Firefox or whatever. How do I educate these people without pissing them off? Is there a nice and friendly website I can direct these people to, which explains the reasons for upgrading in plain language? Any mention of "security" or "web standards" I think would just come across as scary. I've just seen http://www.whatbrowser.org which seems to fit the bill nicely. It explains in very basic terms: what a web browser is why you'd want to upgrade it how old your current browser is (subtle hint to those with a 9 year old browser) ..aaaand it's in 22 languages. It's from Google but displays no bias (it links to Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari, Internet Explorer displayed in a random order).

  Read the article

• Regarding the ViewModel

  - by mizipzor

  Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

  Read the article

• Perl, strings, floats, unit testing and regexps!

  - by Chris R

  OK, as a preface this question potentially is 'stupider' than my normal level of question - however this problem has been annoying me for the last few days so I'll ask it anyway. I'll give a mock example of what my problem is so I can hope to generalize it to my current problem. #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Test::More 'no_plan'; my $fruit_string = 'Apples cost $1.50'; my ($fruit, $price) = $fruit_string =~ /(\w+)s cost \$(\d+\.\d+)/; # $price += 0; # Uncomment for Great Success is ($price, 1.50, 'Great Success'); Now when this is run I get the message # Failed test 'Great Success' # got: '1.50' # expected: '1.5' To make the test work - I either uncomment the commented line, or use is ($price, '1.50', 'Great Success'). Both options do not work for me - I'm testing a huge amount of nested data using Test::Deep and cmp_deeply. My question is, how can you extract a double from a regexp then use it immediately as a double - or if there is a better way altogether let me know - and feel free to tell me to take up gardening or something lol, learning Perl is hard.

  Read the article

• HTML, CSS: overbar matching square root symbol

  - by Pindatjuh

  Is there a way in HTML and/or CSS to do the following, but then correctly: √¯¯¯¯¯¯φ·(2π−γ) Such that there is an overbar above the expression, which neatly aligns with the &radic;? I know there is the Unicode &macr;, that looks like the overbar I need (as used in the above example, though as you can see – it doesn't align well with the root symbol). The solution I'm looking for works at least for one standard font, on most sizes, and all modern browsers. I can't use images; I'd like to have a pure HTML4/CSS way, without client scripting. Here is my current code, thank you Matthew Jones (+1) for the text-decoration: overline! Still some problems <div style="font-family: Georgia; font-size: 200%"> <span style="vertical-align: -15%;">&radic;</span><span style="text-decoration: overline;">&nbsp;x&nbsp;+&nbsp;1&nbsp;</span> </div> The line doesn't match the &radic; because I lowered it with 15% baseline height. (Because the default placement is not nice) The line thickness doesn't match the thickness of the &radic;. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Connect to Facebook with Javascript Client Library using Adobe AIR

  - by Chuck Hriczko

  I'm having an issue connecting to Facebook through the Javascript Client Library in Adobe AIR. It works fine in the browser but in Adobe AIR it seems to not be able to find the Facebook functions. Here is some code I copied from the Facebook website: (Oh and I have the xd_receiver.htm file in the correct path too) <textarea style="width: 1000px; height: 300px;" id="_traceTextBox"> </textarea> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> // var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // require user to login api.requireLogin(function(exception){ FB.FBDebug.logLevel=1; FB.FBDebug.dump("Current user id is " + api.get_session().uid); // Get friends list //5-14-09: this code below is broken, correct code follows //api.friends_get(null, function(result){ // Debug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); // }); api.friends_get(new Array(), function(result, exception){ FB.FBDebug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); }); }); }); //]]> </script>

  Read the article

• passenger won't spawn more than 6 instances despite passenger_max_pool_size = 30

  - by mrD

  I have some problems with passenger + nginx and hope someone might be able help me and direct me in the right direction. I've set the passenger_max_pool_size to 30 but passenger never spawns more than 6 instances. I'm loading a webpage that uses ajax to load 30 sub pages from the server but because passenger only spawns 6 instances they are queued. What makes me confused is that Waiting on global queue is 0 but I can see in my browser that everything gets queued. When the first 6 ajax requests are done the next 6 starts loading. What am I missing? :) This is the output from passenger-status (I had about 24 requests in the browser waiting for response from the server when I checked this status) ----------- General information ----------- max = 30 count = 6 active = 6 inactive = 0 Waiting on global queue: 0 ----------- Domains ----------- /srv/rails/production/current: PID: 28428 Sessions: 1 Processed: 42 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28424 Sessions: 1 Processed: 23 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28422 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28420 Sessions: 1 Processed: 22 Uptime: 6m 0s PID: 28426 Sessions: 1 Processed: 39 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28430 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s These are my passenger related settings in nginx.conf http { passenger_root /opt/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /opt/ruby/bin/ruby; passenger_max_pool_size 30;

  Read the article

• What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

  - by Bernhard

  Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

  Read the article

• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

  Read the article

• XSLT for-each from query results

  - by Ben Record

  I've been on a hunt for a while trying to find a solution to this but I cannot find anywhere that addresses this problem. I'm running a SQL query through XSLT which will return three rows. Here is the query: <query name="OrderedProductNames" rowElementName ="OrderedItem"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select OrderedProductName, Quantity from Orders_ShoppingCart where OrderNumber = 101689 // Hard coded order number for testing purposes. ]]> </sql> </query> Ideally, I would like to iterate through each row returned and do a choose when which is tested on a variable from the current row being inspected in the for-each loop, but I am not entirely sure thhis is possible. My secondary thought would be to use the for-each loop as a way to inject hidden HTML input elements with the values I would need, then I could write a javascript function to complete what I'm trying to do. Any suggestion on how I would go about completing either task would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >