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• How do you get the solution directory in C# (VS 2008) in code?

  - by IsaacB

  Hi, Got an annoying problem here. I've got an NHibernate/Forms application I'm working through SVN. I made some of my own controls, but when I drag and drop those (or view some form editors where I have already dragged and dropped) onto some of my other controls, Visual studio decides it needs to execute some of the code I wrote, including the part that looks for hibernate.cfg.xml. I have no idea why this is, but (sometimes!) when it executes the code during my form load or drag and drop it switches the current directory to C:\program files\vs 9.0\common7\ide, and then nhibernate throws an exception that it can't find hibernate.cfg.xml, because I'm searching for that in a relative path. Now, I don't want to hard code the location of hibernate.cfg.xml, or just copy hibernate.cfg.xml to the ide directory (which will work). I want a solution that gets the solutions directory while the current directory is common7\ide. Something that will let someone view my forms in the designer on a fresh checkout to an arbitrary directory on an arbitrary machine. And no, I'm not about to load the controls in code. I have so many controls within controls that it is a nightmare to line everything up without it. I tried a pre build event that made a file that has the solution directory in it, but of course how can I find that from common7\ide? All the projects files need to be in the solution directory because of svn. Thanks for your help guys, I've already spent a few hours fiddling with this in vain.

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• Moving checkmarks in checkbox lists after page reload - Firefox only

  - by DaveS

  I'm getting some strange behavior in Firefox whenever I put checkboxes inside a list (ol, ul, dl), and then dynamically insert buttons above the list. If I start with a something simple list like this: <dl class="c"> <dt><label for="a1"><input type="checkbox" id="a1" />one</label></dt> <dt><label for="a2"><input type="checkbox" id="a2" />two</label></dt> <dt><label for="a3"><input type="checkbox" id="a3" />three</label></dt> </dl> and add some jQuery like this: $(document).ready(function(){ var a = $('<button type="button">a</button>'); var b = $('<button type="button">b</button>'); $('<div/>').append(a).append(b).insertBefore($('.c')); }); ...then open it in Firefox, it looks fine at first. But check the first checkbox, reload the page, and the check-mark jumps to the second box. Reload again, and it jumps to the third. Reload yet again, and no checkboxes are left checked. If I leave out one of the buttons by dropping one of the append calls, it's fine. If I change the buttons to divs or something similar, it's fine. If I replace the dl tag with a div (and get rid of the dt tags), it's fine. But I need both buttons, and the checkboxes have to be in a list for what I'm trying to build. Does anybody know what's causing this?

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• Using MPI_Type_Vector and MPI_Gather, in C.

  - by Goloneg

  Hi, I am trying to multiply square matrices in parallele with MPI. I use a MPI_Type_vector to send square submatrixes (arrays of float) to the processes, so they can calculate subproducts. Then, for the next iterations, these submatrices are send to neighbours processes as MPI_Type_contiguous (the whole submatrix is sent). This part is working as expected, and local results are corrects. Then, I use MPI_Gather with the contiguous types to send all local results back to the root process. The problem is, the final matrix is build (obviously, by this method) line by line instead of submatrix by submatrix. I wrote an ugly procedure rearranging the final matrix, but I would like to know if there is a direct way of performing the "inverse" operation of sending MPI_Type_vectors (i.e., sending an array of values and directly arranging it in a subarray form in the receiving array). An example, to try and clarify my long text : A[16] and B[16] are 4x4 matrices to be multiplied ; C[16] will contain the result ; 4 processes are used (Pi with i from 0 to 3) : Pi gets two 2x2 submatrices : subAi[4] and subBi[4] ; their product is stored locally in subCi[4]. For instance, P0 gets : subA0[4] containing A[0], A[1], A[4] and A[5] ; subB0[4] containing B[0], B[1], B[4] and B[5]. After everything is calculed, root process gathers all subCi[4]. Then C[16] contains : [ subC0[0], subC0[1], subC0[2], subC0[3], subC1[0], subC1[1], subC1[2], subC1[3], subC2[0], subC2[1], subC2[2], subC2[3], subC3[0], subC3[1], subC3[2], subC3[3]] and I would like it to be : [ subC0[0], subC0[1], subC1[0], subC1[1], subC0[2], subC0[3], subC1[2], subC1[3], subC2[0], subC2[1], subC3[0], subC3[1], subC2[2], subC2[3], subC3[2], subC3[3]] without further operation. Does someone know a way ? Thanks for your advices.

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• Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

  - by TX_

  Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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• Sorting nested set by name while keep depth integrity

  - by wb

  I'm using the nested set model that'll later be used to build a sitemap for my web site. This is my table structure. create table departments ( id int identity(0, 1) primary key , lft int , rgt int , name nvarchar(60) ); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (1, 10, 'departments'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (2, 3, 'd'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (4, 9, 'a'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (5, 6, 'b'); insert into departments (lft, rgt, name) values (7, 8, 'c'); How can I sort by depth as well as name? I can do select replicate('----', count(parent.name) - 1) + ' ' + node.name , count(parent.name) - 1 as depth , node.lft from departments node , departments parent where node.lft between parent.lft and parent.rgt group by node.name, node.lft order by depth asc, node.name asc; However, that does not match children with their parent for some reason. department lft rgt --------------------------- departments 0 1 ---- a 1 4 ---- d 1 2 -------- b 2 5 -------- c 2 7 As you can see, department 'd' has department 'a's children! Thank you.

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• Using Gem Dependencies if a server is 2.0 instead of 2.1

  - by user548744

  At work for internal Rails applications, the server is running Rails 2.0.4 and Ruby 1.86. As far as I know, that's not going to change anytime soon and I have no control over it. I was going to try and test this out between a couple of computers and was curious if anyone knew what would happen. Being the server is on 2.0.4, I'd like to build Rails 2.3.5 applications for that server if at all possible. From what I understand so far, it won't be a problem if I freeze gems and upack dependancies. Does that sound right? Also, the internal work server has no gems beyond what Rails installs. What I'm wondering is, if I can successfully run a 2.3.5 application on the 2.0.4 server, can I also use extra gems and unpack those to use even though the server doesn't have them? I know that it was version 2.1 that introduced Gem Dependencies so would a 2.3.5 Rails app running on a 2.0.4 server be able to use required gems that are unpacked into an application? One of the worst things with this situation is even if the above stuff works, the server being on 1.86 would exclude me from using a lot of really cool gems that require Ruby 1.87 (like Formtastic). Thanks

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• Context path routing in Tomcat ( service swapping )

  - by jojovilco

  Here is what I would like to achieve: I have a web service A which I want to be able to deploy side by side with other web services of type A - different version(s). For now I assume 2 instances side by side. I need it because the service has a warm up stage, which takes some time to build up stuff from DB and only after it is ready it can start serving requests ... I was thinking to deploy to Tomcat context paths like: "/ServiceA-1.0", "/ServiceA-2.0" and then have a "virtual" context like "/ServiceA" which will point to the desired physical service e.g. "/ServiceA-1.0". So external world will know about ServiceA, but internally, my ServiceA related stack would know about versioned ServiceA url ( there are more components involved but only ServiceA is serving outer world ). When new service is ready, I would just reconfigure the "virtual" context to point to a new service. So far, I was not able to find out how to do this with Tomcat and starting to tkink it is not possible. I found suggestions to place Apache Server in front of Tomcat and do the routing there, but I do not want to enroll another piece of software unless necessary. My questions are: - is this kind of a "virtual" context and routing possible to do with Tomcat? - any other options, wisdom and lessons learned how to achieve this kind of service swapping scenario? Best, Jozef

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• mvn clean install using java 1.5 or 1.6

  - by bruce

  When I do mvn clean install, I get this error: annotations are not supported in -source 1.3 (try -source 1.5 to enable annotations) But where do I put this -source 1.5 command? I tried all permutations with mvn clean install and couldn't get it to work. So I tried putting compilation in my pom, like this: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> But that didn't work either.. What am I missing? Thanks!

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• In Java, can a final field be initialized from a constructor helper?

  - by csj

  I have a final non-static member: private final HashMap<String,String> myMap; I would like to initialize it using a method called by the constructor. Since myMap is final, my "helper" method is unable to initialize it directly. Of course I have options: I could implement the myMap initialization code directly in the constructor. MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { myMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); myMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } I could have my helper method build the HashMap, return it to the constructor, and have the constructor then assign the object to myMap. MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { myMap = InitializeMyMap(someThingNecessary); // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } private HashMap<String,String> InitializeMyMap(String someThingNecessary) { HashMap<String,String> initializedMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); initializedMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... return initializedMap; } Method #2 is fine, however, I'm wondering if there's some way I could allow the helper method to directly manipulate myMap. Perhaps a modifier that indicates it can only be called by the constructor? MyConstructor (String someThingNecessary) { InitializeMyMap(someThingNecessary); // other initialization stuff unrelated to myMap } // helper doesn't work since it can't modify a final member private void InitializeMyMap(String someThingNecessary) { myMap = new HashMap<String,String>(); myMap.put("blah","blahblah"); // etc... }

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• PHP: Check if 0?

  - by tarnfeld

  Hi, I am using a class which returns me the value of a particular row and cell of an excel spreadsheet. To build up an array of one column I am counting the rows and then looping through that number with a for() loop and then using the $array[] = $value to set the incrementing array object's value. This works great if none of the values in a cell are 0. The class returns me a number 0 so it's nothing to do with the class, I think it's the way I am looping through the rows and then assigning them to the array... I want to carry through the 0 value because I am creating graphs with the data afterwards, here is the code I have. // Get Rainfall $rainfall = array(); for($i=1;$i<=$count;$i++) { if($data->val($i,2) != 'Rainfall') // Check if not the column title { $rainfall[] = $data->val($i,2); } } For your info $data is the excel spreadsheet object and the method $data->val(row,col) is what returns me the value. In this case I am getting data from column 2. Screenshot of spreadsheet http://cl.ly/1Dmy Thanks! All help is very much appreciated!

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• LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

  - by user295030

  Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

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• Symfony deploying issue

  - by medhad

  I have some problem while configuring symfony project on the production server. When I run the command doctrine --build --all --and-load it gives me error in the production environment: doctrine Dropping "doctrine" database PHP Notice: Undefined index: dbname in /var/www/sf_project/lib/vendor/symfony/lib/plugins/sfDoctrinePlugin/lib/vendor/doctrine/Doctrine/Connection.php on line 1472 Notice: Undefined index: dbname in /var/www/sf_project/lib/vendor/symfony/lib/plugins/sfDoctrinePlugin/lib/vendor/doctrine/Doctrine/Connection.php on line 1472 doctrine SQLSTATE[42000]: Syntax error or access violation: 1064 You have an erro...e right syntax to use near '' at line 1. Failing Query: "DROP DATABASE " doctrine Creating "dev" environment "doctrine" database PHP Notice: Undefined index: dbname in /var/www/sf_project/lib/vendor/symfony/lib/plugins/sfDoctrinePlugin/lib/vendor/doctrine/Doctrine/Connection.php on line 1439 However after the error it creates the table successfully. But if I run the command second times it fails partially while crating the tables. I have changed my database.yml configuration properly for the production environment. here it is: all: doctrine: class: sfDoctrineDatabase param: dsn: mysql:host=localhost;dbname=sf_project port: 3306 username: root password: mainserver Its working right in the local environment though. Can some one shed some light on it ?

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• JAXB Unable To Handle Attribute with Colon (:) in name?

  - by Intellectual Tortoise

  I am attempting to use JAXB to unmarshall an XML files whose schema is defined by a DTD (ugh!). The external provider of the DTD has specified one of the element attributes as xml:lang: <!ATTLIST langSet id ID #IMPLIED xml:lang CDATA #REQUIRED > This comes into the xjc-generated class (standard generation; no *.xjb magic) as: @XmlAttribute(name = "xml:lang", required = true) @XmlJavaTypeAdapter(NormalizedStringAdapter.class) protected String xmlLang; However, when unmarshalling valid XML files with JAXB, the xmlLang attribute is always null. When I edited the XML file, replacing xml:lang with lang and changed the @XmlAttribute to match, unmarshalling was successful (i.e. attributes were non-null). I did find this http://old.nabble.com/unmarshalling-ignores-element-attribute-%27xml%27-td22558466.html. But, the resolution there was to convert to XML Schema, etc. My strong preference is to go straight from an un-altered DTD (since it is externally provided and defined by an ISO standard). Is this a JAXB bug? Am I missing something about "namespaces" in attribute names? FWIW, java -version = "build 1.6.0_20-b02" and xjc -version = "xjc version "JAXB 2.1.10 in JDK 6""

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• Should I be backing up a webapp's data to another host continuously ?

  - by user196289

  I have webapp in development. I need to plan for what happens if the host goes down. I will lose some very recent session status (which I can live with) and everything else should be persistently stored in the database. If I am starting up again after an outage, can I expect a good host to reconstruct the database to within minutes of where I was up to ? Or seconds ? Or should I build in a background process to continually mirror the database elsewhere ? What is normal / sensible ? Obviously a good host will have RAID and other redundancy so the likelihood of total loss should be low, and if they have periodic backups I should lose only very recent stuff but this is presumably likely to be designed with almost static web content in mind, and my site is transactional with new data being filed continuously (with a customer expectation that I don't ever lose it). Any suggestions / advice ? Are there off the shelf frameworks for doing this ? (I'm primarily working in Java) And should I just plan to save the data or should I plan to have an alternative usable host implementation ready to launch in case the host doesn't come back up in a suitable timeframe ?

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• Why is joining two vectors simply not working?

  - by Jim

  I have two vectors of MyObj structs. MyObj is defined as follows: struct MyObj { float x, y; unsigned int data[8]; unsigned int tmp[1]; MyObj(const MyObj &m) { x = m.x; y = m.y; tmp[0] = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 8; ++i) { data[i] = m.data[i]; } } }; I then have two vectors... vector<MyObj> v1; vector<MyObj> v2; // both get data eventually. v1.insert(v1.end(), v2.begin(), v2.end()); v2 has 3535004 elements in my experiment. v1 is similarly sized. I've also tried building a new vector and just using .push_back to build it from both vectors. Essentially, when I try to merge the two vectors I just get an error from visual studio saying "Debug error! R6010, abort() has been called". Very non-useful... So my question is: what could be causing this error, and how can I solve it? Thank you

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• Optimizing landing pages

  - by Oleg Shaldybin

  In my current project (Rails 2.3) we have a collection of 1.2 million keywords, and each of them is associated with a landing page, which is effectively a search results page for a given keywords. Each of those pages is pretty complicated, so it can take a long time to generate (up to 2 seconds with a moderate load, even longer during traffic spikes, with current hardware). The problem is that 99.9% of visits to those pages are new visits (via search engines), so it doesn't help a lot to cache it on the first visit: it will still be slow for that visit, and the next visit could be in several weeks. I'd really like to make those pages faster, but I don't have too many ideas on how to do it. A couple of things that come to mind: build a cache for all keywords beforehand (with a very long TTL, a month or so). However, building and maintaing this cache can be a real pain, and the search results on the page might be outdated, or even no longer accessible; given the volatile nature of this data, don't try to cache anything at all, and just try to scale out to keep up with traffic. I'd really appreciate any feedback on this problem.

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• Javascript Application Book

  - by Jormundir

  Can anyone recommend a good book on Javascript module/application development. I'm a Software Engineer, so I don't need all the intro to programming stuff. What I'm really looking for is: How do you bundle the html/css/javascript together so that you can make one include that will load the whole application. I.e.: <div id="myapplication"></div> ... ... <script src="myapplication.js"> Design patterns are always welcome. I've already read Javascript the good parts, and online guides, but it's hard to find a comprehensive guide/tutorial for specifically this. There's a lot of good "this is a javascript application" and "this is a scalable framework", but I haven't had any luck with "This is how you build a javascript application, including the html and css, and this is how you deliver it nicely". I'm building a small application to start, so I'm not interested in scalability and large-scale development practices, just a nice and comprehensive guide to get me off the ground.

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• Best way to import a pack or "system" of new classes??

  - by Joe Blow

  Here's an Advanced question for Advanced developers. So I've written a largish "subsystem". It is essentially a UIViewController called CleverViewController which is a UIViewController. Now, there are a large number of supporting classes (about ten) that do the hard work: perform math functions, image processing, purely logical functions, build images or what have you with thousands of lines of code. (To do this, I simply started a new XCode project / app "Scratchpad" which does little other than load and launch the CleverViewController. So currently it works as an app, which launches CleverViewController. The ten or so classes I mention that are part of the "subsystem" simply sit there in that project/app.) So now, we will use CleverViewController, the new technology generally, in various apps. (Or perhaps friends would want to use it, etc.) What's the best way to "do" this? Have I screwed everything up, and really it should just be ONE (pretty big) class rather than a dozen classes? (I could understand that then as I would simply add that new (big) class where needed, like adding any other class.) Do I have to make a "framework" like the Apple frameworks? (If so, what the hell are they, how do you do it, etc?!?) In fact, do you just have to lamely include all of the dozen classes and that's that (obviously perhaps putting them in a grouped subfolder). What about all the headers and so on? (Currently I just have the dozen includes in the pch file of the scratchpad project.) Shouldn't it be easy to "maintain" this "subsystem" separately and so on? I'm afraid I know nothing about this: if the answer is obvious, hit me over the head and let me know. Thank you for any info on this !

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• JPA Problems mapping relationships

  - by Rosen Martev

  Hello. I have a problem when I try to persist my model. An exception is thrown when creating the EntityManagerFactory: Blockquote javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: NIF] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:126) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:52) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:34) at project.serealization.util.PersistentManager.createSession(PersistentManager.java:24) at project.serealization.SerializationTest.testProject(SerializationTest.java:25) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:79) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in nif.action_element for column FLOW_ID. Found: double, expected: bigint at org.hibernate.mapping.Table.validateColumns(Table.java:284) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.validateSchema(Configuration.java:1116) at org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaValidator.validate(SchemaValidator.java:139) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.(SessionFactoryImpl.java:349) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1327) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.buildSessionFactory(AnnotationConfiguration.java:867) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:669) ... 24 more The code for SimpleActionElement and SimpleFlow is as follows: @Entity public class SimpleActionElement { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, targetEntity = SimpleFlow.class) @JoinColumn(name = "FLOW_ID") private SimpleFlow<T> flow; ... } @Entity public class SimpleFlow<T> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "ELEMENT_ID") private Long element_id; ... }

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• Options for organizing android app with multiple independent apps

  - by lazyguy

  Problem Definition: We have a fairly large app which has multiple use cases such that they are all independent of each other. For example lets say we have a1, a2, a3 & a4 modules that are independent apps or use cases for our main app 'A'. The independent a1, a2, a3, a4 are all purchasable apps such that the user goes to our website instead of play store and activate either a1 or a2 by paying some fees on our website. So basically App 'A' is a free app in play-store and is sort of Dashboard with buttons to launch a1, a2, a3, a4. When the user click on lets say a1 button then we will check if a1 is already installed and launch it but if it is not present then give the user a link to download it. Option 1: Have a main app 'A' and a1, a2, a3, a4 as library project. But with this approach the main app A is too big in size. Option 2: Have a1, a2, a3, a4 build as separate .apk and then put in the assets folder of main app 'A' and then install them as needed. Again size of main app A is bigger. Option 3: Upload a1, a2, a3, a4 to a third party website or play store and download from it as needed. This way the main app remains lighter. Observation: In all these approaches there will be an independent app installed with its own icon on users phone. So basically user can launch from either the Dashboard (which will eventually launch an intent from Activity in a1 app) or user can directly launch app a1. Follow-up Question: Is there any other solution that anyone can suggest to tackle this kind of problem? Another things is by going this approach app a1, a2, a3, a4 can be developed & tested independently of each other.

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• jQuery .ajax method executing but not firing error (or success)

  - by John Swaringen

  I'm having a very strange situation. I have a .NET Web Service (.asmx) that I'm trying to call via jQuery ajax to populate some <select></select>'s. The service is running System.Web.Services like it's supposed to and should be returning a JSON list. At least that's the way I understand that it will in .NET 3.5/4.0. The main problem is that the .ajax() function (below) seems to execute but the internal callbacks aren't executing. I know it's executing because I can do something before and after the function and both execute, so JavaScript isn't blowing up. $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: 'http://localhost:59191/AFEDropDownService/Service.asmx/GetAVP', data: "{}", dataType: "jsonp", crossDomain: true, success: function(list) { console.log(list); console.log("success!!"); }, error: function(msg) { console.log("error: " + msg.text); } }); If you need more of the code let me know. Or if you know a better way as I'm trying to build cascading <select></select's.

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• fastest public web app framework for quick DB apps?

  - by Steve Eisner

  I'd like to pick up a new tech for my toolbox - something for rapid prototyping of web apps. Brief requirements: public access (not hosted on my machine) - like Google's appengine, etc no tricky configuration necessary to build a simple web app host DB access (small storage provided) including some kind of SQLish query language easy front end HTML templating ability to access as a JSON service C# or Java,PHP or Python - or a fun new language to learn is OK free! An example app, very simple: render an AJAXy editable (add/delete/edit/drag) list of rich-data list items via some template language, so I can quickly mock up a UI for a client. ie. I can do most of the work client-side, but need convenient back end to handle the permanent storage. (In fact I suppose it doesn't even need HTML templating if I can directly access a DB via AJAX calls.) I realize this is a bit vague but am wondering if anyone has recommendations. A Rails host might be best for this (but probably not free) or maybe App Engine, or some other choice I'm not aware of? I've been doing everything with heavyweight servers (ASP.NET etc) for so long that I'm just not up on the latest... Thanks - I'll follow up on comments if this isn't clear enough :)

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• can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

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• Extract information from a Func<bool, T> or alike lambda

  - by Syska

  I''m trying to build a generic cache layer. ICacheRepository Say I have the following: public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public string Firstname { get; set; } public string Lastname { get; set; } public DateTime Added { get; set; } } And I have something like this: list.Where(x => x.Firstname == "Syska"); Here I want to extract the above information, to see if the query supplied the "PersonId" which it did not, so I dont want to cache it. But lets say I run a query like this: list.Where(x => x.PersonId == 10); Since PersonId is my key ... I want to cache it. with the key like "Person_10" and I later can fetch it from the cache. I know its possible to extract the information with Expression<Func<>> but there seems to be a big overhead of doing this (when running compile and extract the Constant values etc. and a bunch of cache to be sure to parse right) Are there a framework for this? Or some smart/golden way of doing this ?

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• jQuery .val() Selector Confusion

  - by Matt Dawdy

  I've kind of written myself into a corner, and was hoping there was an "easy" way out. I'm trying to loop through a series of things on my page, and build a key:value pair. Here is my structure: <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab34"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab87"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> It's way more complicated than that, and there are many select elements inside of each divFieldMap div. Here is my JS function that is building my string: function Save() { var sSaveString = ''; $('.divMapTab').each(function() { var thisId = this.id; $('.selSrc', "#" + thisId).each(function() { var thisSubId = this.id; //alert(thisSubId); <-- HERE IS THE PROBLEM var sTargetCol = thisSubId.replace('selTarget', ''); var sValue = this.val(); sSaveString += sTargetCol + '¸' + sValue + '·'; }); }); } On the line that has the alert box and the text "HERE IS THE PROBLEM" is that I'm trying to get the selected value of the "current" select input element, but the id of that element isn't unique (I thought it would be, but I screwed up). Is there a good way, inside of an "each" type of jQuery statement, to use "this" to get the exact select element that I really am looking for, even if it doesn't have a unique id?

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