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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • I am using following PHP code for trigger creation but always get error, please help me to resolve i

    - by Parth
    I am using following PHP code for trigger creation but always get error, please help me to resolve it. $link = mysql_connect('localhost','root','rainserver'); mysql_select_db('information_schema'); echo $trgquery = "DELIMITER $$ DROP TRIGGER `update_data` $$ CREATE TRIGGER `update_data` AFTER UPDATE on `jos_menu` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN IF (NEW.menutype != OLD.menutype) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.menutype, newvalue = NEW.menutype, field = 'menutype'; END IF; IF (NEW.name != OLD.name) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.name, newvalue = NEW.name, field = 'name'; END IF; IF (NEW.alias != OLD.alias) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.alias, newvalue = NEW.alias, field = 'alias'; END IF; END$$ DELIMITER ;"; echo "<br>"; //$trig = mysqli_query($link,$trgquery) or die("Error Exist".mysqli_error($link)); $trig = mysql_query($trgquery) or die("Error Exist".mysql_error()); I get the error as: Error ExistYou have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '$$ DROP TRIGGER `update_data` $$ CREATE TRIGGER `update_data` AFTER UPDATE on `j' at line 1 PLease help me to create my trigger...

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  • WPF not applying default styles defined in MergedDictionaries?

    - by Burgberger
    In a WPF application I defined default control styles in separate resource dictionaries (e.g. "ButtonStyle.xaml"), and added them as merged dictionaries to a resource dictionary named "ResDictionary.xaml". If I refer this "ResDictionary.xaml" as merged dictionary in my App.xaml, the default styles are not applied. However, if I refer the "ButtonStyle.xaml", it works correctly. If I recompile the same code in .NET 3.5 or 3.0, it recognizes and applies the default styles referred in "App.xaml" through "ResDictionary.xaml", but not in .NET 4.0. At runtime if I check the Application.Current.Resources dictionary, the default styles are there, but they are not applied, only if I specify the Style property explicitly in the Button control. Are there any solutions to refer a resource dictionary (containig default styles) this way in .NET 4.0? App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles/ResDictionary.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> ResDictionary.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Default/ButtonStyle.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> ButtonStyle.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

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  • tikz: set appropriate x value for a node

    - by basweber
    This question resulted from the question here I want to produce a curly brace which spans some lines of text. The problem is that I have to align the x coordinate manually, which is not a clean solution. Currently I use \begin{frame}{Example} \begin{itemize} \item The long Issue 1 \tikz[remember picture] \node[coordinate,yshift=0.7em] (n1) {}; \\ spanning 2 lines \item Issue 2 \tikz[remember picture] \node[coordinate, xshift=1.597cm] (n2) {}; \item Issue 3 \end{itemize} \visible<2->{ \begin{tikzpicture}[overlay,remember picture] \draw[thick,decorate,decoration={brace,amplitude=5pt}] (n1) -- (n2) node[midway, right=4pt] {One and two are cool}; \end{tikzpicture} } % end visible \end{frame} which produces the desired result: The unsatisfying thing is, that I had to figure out the xshift value of 1.597cm by trial and error (more or less) Without xshift argument the result is: I guess there is an elegant way to avoid the explicit xshift value. The best way would it imho be to calculate the maximum x value of two nodes and use this, (as already suggested by Geoff) But it would already be very handy to be able to explicitly define the absolute xvalues of both nodes while keeping their current y values. This would avoid the fiddly procedure of adapting the third post decimal position to ensure that the brace looks vertical.

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  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

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  • How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

    - by jkohlhepp
    I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • In the iPad SplitView template, where's the code that specifies which views are to be used in the Sp

    - by Dr Dork
    In the iPad Programming Guide, it gives the following code example for specifying the two views (firstVC and secondVC) that will be used in the SplitView... - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { MyFirstViewController* firstVC = [[[MyFirstViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstNib" bundle:nil] autorelease]; MySecondViewController* secondVC = [[[MySecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondNib" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UISplitViewController* splitVC = [[UISplitViewController alloc] init]; splitVC.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstVC, secondVC, nil]; [window addSubview:splitVC.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } but when I actually create a new SplitView project in Xcode, I don't see any code that specifies which views should be added to the SplitView. Here's the code from the SplitView template... - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Thanks in advance for all your help! I'm going to continue researching this question right now.

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  • Drop Down Box and other stuff in ASP.NET with VB.NET (VS 2008)

    - by typoknig
    Hi all, I am trying to polish up a program a program that I have converted from a Windows Form in to an ASP.NET Web Application. I have several questions: 1.) I have a drop down box where users can select their variables, but users can also enter their variables manually into various text fields. What I want is for the drop down box to show a string like "Choose Variables" when ever the user enters their variables manually. I want this to happen without having to reload the page. 2.) In the Windows Form version of this application I had a RichTextBox that populated with data (line by line) after a calculation was made. I used "AppendText" in my Windows Form, but that is not available in ASP.NET, and neither is the RichTextBox. I am open to suggestions here, I tried to use just a text box but that isn't working right. 3.) In my Windows Form application I was using "KeyPress" events to prevent incorrect characters from being entered into the text fields. My code for these events looked similar to this: Private Sub TextBox_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles TextBox.KeyPress If (e.KeyChar < "0" OrElse e.KeyChar > "9") AndAlso e.KeyChar <> ControlChars.Back AndAlso e.KeyChar <> "." Then e.Handled = True End If End Sub How can I make this work again... also without reloading the page. 4.) This is not a major issue, but I would like all of the text to be selected when the cursor enters a field. In my Windows Form application I used "SelectAll", but again, that is not available in ASP.NET Thanks in advanced.

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  • Do servlet containers prevent web applications from causing each other interference and how do they do it?

    - by chrisbunney
    I know that a servlet container, such as Apache Tomcat, runs in a single instance of the JVM, which means all of its servlets will run in the same process. I also know that the architecture of the servlet container means each web application exists in its own context, which suggests it is isolated from other web applications. As depicted here: Accepting that each web application is isolated, I would expect that you could create 2 copies of an identical web application, change the names and context paths of each (as well as any other relevant configuration), and run them in parallel without one affecting the other. The answers to this question appear to support this view. However, a colleague disagrees based on their experience of attempting just that. They took a web application and tried to run 2 separate instances (with different names etc) in the same servlet container and experienced issues with the 2 instances conflicting (I'm unable to elaborate more as I wasn't involved in that work). Based on this, they argue that since the web applications run in the same process space, they can't be isolated and things such as class attributes would end up being inadvertently shared. This answer appears to suggest the same thing The two views don't seem to be compatible, so I ask you: Do servlet containers prevent web applications deployed to the same container from conflicting with each other? If yes, How do they do this? If no, Why does interference occur? and finally, Under what circumstances could separate web applications conflict and cause each other interference?, perhaps scenarios involving resources on the file system, native code, or database connections?

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  • cfml error with appication.cfc page

    - by tibin mathew
    Hi, I have some problem with my cfml website. I have used the below code in application.cfc file to connect with the dsn. But when ever i put this in my server, i'm getting error. i cant browse even a single test.cfm page. Is there any mistake in that code , any syntax error or something like that, will it be some problem with the dsn <cfset this.name = "0307de6.netsolhost.com"> <cfset this.sessionmanagement = true> <cfset this.loginstorage="session"> <cfset this.sessiontimeout = CreateTimeSpan(0,0,30,0)> <cfset this.applicationtimeout = CreateTimeSpan(2,0,0,0)> <cffunction name="onApplicationStart"> <cfscript> application.DSN = "hirerodsn"; application.dbUserName = "myusr"; application.dbPassword = "myd69!"; </cfscript> </cffunction> <cffunction name="onRequestStart"> <cfscript> request.DSN = "hirerodsn"; request.dbUserName = "myusr"; request.dbPassword = "myd69!"; </cfscript> </cffunction> please anyone help me

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  • ASP.NET OleDbConnection Problem

    - by Matt
    I'm working on an ASP.NET website where I am using an asp:repeater with paging done through a VB.NET code-behind file. I'm having trouble with the database connection though. As far as I can tell, the paging is working, but I can't get the data to be certain. The database is a Microsoft Access database. The function that should be accessing the database is: Dim pagedData As New PagedDataSource Sub Page_Load(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) doPaging() End Sub Function getTheData() As DataTable Dim DS As New DataSet() Dim strConnect As New OleDbConnection("Provider = Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=App_Data/ArtDatabase.mdb") Dim objOleDBAdapter As New OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT ArtID, FileLocation, Title, UserName, ArtDate FROM Art ORDER BY Art.ArtDate DESC", strConnect) objOleDBAdapter.Fill(DS, "Art") Return DS.Tables("Art").Copy End Function Sub doPaging() pagedData.DataSource = getTheData().DefaultView pagedData.AllowPaging = True pagedData.PageSize = 2 Try pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = Int32.Parse(Request.QueryString("Page")).ToString() Catch ex As Exception pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = 0 End Try btnPrev.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsFirstPage) btnNext.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsLastPage) pageNumber.Text = (pagedData.CurrentPageIndex + 1) & " of " & pagedData.PageCount ArtRepeater.DataSource = pagedData ArtRepeater.DataBind() End Sub The ASP.NET is: <asp:Repeater ID="ArtRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h2>Items in Selected Category:</h2> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:HyperLink runat="server" ID="HyperLink" NavigateUrl='<%# Eval("ArtID", "ArtPiece.aspx?ArtID={0}") %>'> <img src="<%# Eval("FileLocation") %>" alt="<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %>t"/> <br /> <%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %> </asp:HyperLink> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

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  • java RMI connection to server

    - by user85116
    I have a very simple rmi client / server application. I don't use the "rmiregistry" application though, I use this to create the server: server = new RemoteServer(); registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(PORT); registry.bind("RemoteServer", server); The client part is: registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(IPADDRESS, PORT); remote = (IRemoteServer) registry.lookup("RemoteServer"); Here is the fascinating problem: The application works perfectly when both server and client are running in my (private) local network. As soon as I put the server on a public server, the application hangs for a minute, then gives me the following error: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: 192.168.x.y; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Source ... (the rest is truncated) The key I think is that the client (running on my private network) cannot connect to myself (my address is 192.168.x.y where x.y is some other numbers, but the real error message shows my ip address listed there) If I kill the rmi server on the public internet, then I instantly get a "connection refused to host: a.b.c.d") message, so I know that something at the server end is at least working. Any suggestions? EDIT: just to make this a little more clear: 192.168.x.y is the client address, a.b.c.d is the server address. The stacktrace shows the client cannot connect to the client.

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  • Change in behaviour & generation of nullreference exception

    - by peril brain
    I made this program 2hr ago and it ran quit well when i confronted this to presaved .xls file. But when i closed that and started new instance,it started generating null refrence exception why??plz explain. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; namespace svchost { class MainClass { Excel.Application oExcelApp; static void Main(string[] args) { MainClass mc = new MainClass(); while (true) { if (mc.chec()) { Console.WriteLine("RUNNING"); Thread.Sleep(4000); } else { Console.WriteLine("NOT RUNNING"); Thread.Sleep(8000); } } } public bool chec() { try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; //****PROBLEM FROM HERE********* Console.WriteLine(xlwkbook.Name + "\n"); ke kw = new ke(ref oExcelApp,ref xlwkbook); Console.WriteLine(xlwkbook.Author); xlwkbook = null; } catch (Exception ec) { oExcelApp = null; System.GC.Collect(); Console.WriteLine(ec); return false; } oExcelApp = null; System.GC.Collect(); return true; } } class ke { public ke(ref Excel.Application a1, ref Excel.Workbook b1) { Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)a1.ActiveSheet; Console.WriteLine(a1.ActiveWorkbook.Name + "\n" + ws.Name); Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("657/07", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart, Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); Console.WriteLine(rn.Text); } } }

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  • how to keep a nativewindow on top

    - by Freddy Rios
    I need to keep a NativeWindow I am creating on top of the main window of the application. Currently I am using alwaysInFront = true, which is not limited to the windows in the application. I can successfully synchronize the minimize/restore/move/resize actions, so the top window behaves appropriately in those cases. Even though using this option has the drawback that if I alt-tab to other application the window goes on top of the other application. Because of the above I am trying to get it to work without using the alwaysInFront. I have tried using orderInFrontOf and orderToFront, which gets it in place but when I click an area in the main window the top one becomes hidden i.e. air makes it the top one. I have tried capturing activate/deactivate events but it only happens on the first click, so on the second click the top window becomes hidden again. I also tried making the top window active when the main one becomes active, but that causes the main one to loose focus and I can't click on anything. Ps. I am doing this to improve the behavior of a HTMLOverlay I am using - see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1044927/flex-air-htmlloader-blank-pop-up-window-when-flash-content-is-loaded/1077738#1077738

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  • scaling svg paths in Raphael 2.1

    - by user1229001
    I'm using SVG paths from a wikimedia commons map of the US. I've singled out Pennsylvania with its counties. I'm feeding the paths out of a database and using Raphael 2.1 to put them on the page. Because in the original map, Pennsylvania was so small and set at an angle, I'd like to scale up the paths and rotate Pa. so that it isn't on an angle. When I try to use Raphael's transform method, all the counties look strange and overlapped. I gave up on setting the viewBox when I heard that it doesn't work in all browsers. Anyone have any ideas? Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $paths = []; //array of paths var $thisPath; //variable to hold whichever path we're drawing $.post('getmapdata.php', function(data){ var objData = jQuery.parseJSON(data); for (var i=0; i<objData.length; i++) { $paths.push(objData[i].path); //$counties.push(objData[i].name); }//end for drawMap($paths); }) function drawMap(data) { // var map = new Raphael(document.getElementById('map_div_id'),0, 0); var map = new Raphael(0, 0, 520, 320); //map.setViewBox(0,0,500,309, true); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { var thisPath = map.path(data[i]); thisPath.transform(s2); thisPath.attr({stroke:"#FFFFFF", fill:"#CBCBCB","stroke-width":"0.5"}); } //end cycling through i }//end drawMap });//end program

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  • Android custom xml widget

    - by DrogoNevets
    I have an XML file in my layout folder that has how i want my custom widget/view (not sure what correct terminology is here). but how do i make it so that i can programatically, add one or more to an activity the xml file is as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/viewLog"> <TextView android:id="@+id/viewLogClimbName" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" android:gravity="left" /> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:id="@+id/viewLogDate" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" android:gravity="left" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/viewLogStyle" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" android:gravity="left" /> </LinearLayout> <TextView android:id="@+id/viewLogDetails" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:ellipsize="end" android:gravity="left" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> I have looked at the android how-to and dont really understand what its getting at

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  • Testing fault tolerant code

    - by Robert
    I’m currently working on a server application were we have agreed to try and maintain a certain level of service. The level of service we want to guaranty is: if a request is accepted by the server and the server sends on an acknowledgement to the client we want to guaranty that the request will happen, even if the server crashes. As requests can be long running and the acknowledgement time needs be short we implement this by persisting the request, then sending an acknowledgement to the client, then carrying out the various actions to fulfill the request. As actions are carried out they too are persisted, so the server knows the state of a request on start up, and there’s also various reconciliation mechanisms with external systems to check the accuracy of our logs. This all seems to work fairly well, but we have difficult saying this with any conviction as we find it very difficult to test our fault tolerant code. So far we’ve come up with two strategies but neither is entirely satisfactory: Have an external process watch the server code and then try and kill it off at what the external process thinks is an appropriate point in the test Add code the application that will cause it to crash a certain know critical points My problem with the first strategy is the external process cannot know the exact state of the application, so we cannot be sure we’re hitting the most problematic points in the code. My problem with the second strategy, although it gives more control over were the fault takes, is I do not like have code to inject faults within my application, even with optional compilation etc. I fear it would be too easy to over look a fault injection point and have it slip into a production environment.

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  • Rails 3 : create two dimensional hash and add values from a loop

    - by John
    I have two models : class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :ticket attr_accessible .... end class Ticket < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :project attr_accessible done_date, description, .... end In my ProjectsController I would like to create a two dimensional hash to get in one variable for one project all tickets that are done (with done_date as key and description as value). For example i would like a hash like this : What i'm looking for : @tickets_of_project = ["done_date_1" => ["a", "b", "c"], "done_date_2" => ["d", "e"]] And what i'm currently trying (in ProjectsController) ... def show # Get current project @project = Project.find(params[:id]) # Get all dones tickets for a project, order by done_date @tickets = Ticket.where(:project_id => params[:id]).where("done_date IS NOT NULL").order(:done_date) # Create a new hash @tickets_of_project = Hash.new {} # Make a loop on all tickets, and want to complete my hash @tickets.each do |ticket| # TO DO #HOW TO PUT ticket.value IN "tickets_of_project" WITH KEY = ticket.done_date ??** end end I don't know if i'm in a right way or not (maybe use .map instead of make a where query), but how can I complete and put values in hash by checking index if already exist or not ? Thanx :)

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  • Why can't I initialize a class through a setter?

    - by Rob emenaker
    If I have a custom class called Tires: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Tires : NSObject { @private NSString *brand; int size; } @property (nonatomic,copy) NSString *brand; @property int size; - (id)init; - (void)dealloc; @end ============================================= #import "Tires.h" @implementation Tires @synthesize brand, size; - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self setBrand:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]]; [self setSize:0]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [brand release]; } @end And I synthesize a setter and getter in my View Controller: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "Tires.h" @interface testViewController : UIViewController { Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; } @property (nonatomic,copy) Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; @end ==================================== #import "testViewController.h" @implementation testViewController @synthesize frontLeft, frontRight, backleft, backRight; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end It dies after [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]] comes back. It compiles just fine and when I run the debugger it actually gets all the way through the init method on Tires, but once it comes back it just dies and the view never appears. However if I change the viewDidLoad method to: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; frontLeft = [[Tires alloc] init]; } It works just fine. I could just ditch the setter and access the frontLeft variable directly, but I was under the impression I should use setters and getters as much as possible and logically it seems like the setFrontLeft method should work. This brings up an additional question that my coworkers keep asking in these regards (we are all new to Objective-C); why use a setter and getter at all if you are in the same class as those setters and getters.

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  • Database not updating after UPDATE SQL statement in ASP.net

    - by Ronnie
    I currently have a problem attepting to update a record within my database. I have a webpage that displays in text boxes a users details, these details are taken from the session upon login. The aim is to update the details when the user overwrites the current text in the text boxes. I have a function that runs when the user clicks the 'Save Details' button and it appears to work, as i have tested for number of rows affected and it outputs 1. However, when checking the database, the record has not been updated and I am unsure as to why. I've have checked the SQL statement that is being processed by displaying it as a label and it looks as so: UPDATE [users] SET [email]=@email, [firstname]=@firstname, [lastname]=@lastname, [promo]=@promo WHERE ([users].[user_id] = 16) The function and other relevant code is: Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) changeDetails(emailBox.text, firstBox.text, lastBox.text, promoBox.text) End Sub Function changeDetails(ByVal email As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String, ByVal promo As String) As Integer Dim connectionString As String = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Ole DB Services=-4; Data Source=C:\Documents an"& _ "d Settings\Paul Jarratt\My Documents\ticketoffice\datab\ticketoffice.mdb" Dim dbConnection As System.Data.IDbConnection = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(connectionString) Dim queryString As String = "UPDATE [users] SET [email]=@email, [firstname]=@firstname, [lastname]=@lastname, "& _ "[promo]=@promo WHERE ([users].[user_id] = " + session.contents.item("ID") + ")" Dim dbCommand As System.Data.IDbCommand = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand dbCommand.CommandText = queryString dbCommand.Connection = dbConnection Dim dbParam_email As System.Data.IDataParameter = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbParameter dbParam_email.ParameterName = "@email" dbParam_email.Value = email dbParam_email.DbType = System.Data.DbType.[String] dbCommand.Parameters.Add(dbParam_email) Dim dbParam_firstname As System.Data.IDataParameter = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbParameter dbParam_firstname.ParameterName = "@firstname" dbParam_firstname.Value = firstname dbParam_firstname.DbType = System.Data.DbType.[String] dbCommand.Parameters.Add(dbParam_firstname) Dim dbParam_lastname As System.Data.IDataParameter = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbParameter dbParam_lastname.ParameterName = "@lastname" dbParam_lastname.Value = lastname dbParam_lastname.DbType = System.Data.DbType.[String] dbCommand.Parameters.Add(dbParam_lastname) Dim dbParam_promo As System.Data.IDataParameter = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbParameter dbParam_promo.ParameterName = "@promo" dbParam_promo.Value = promo dbParam_promo.DbType = System.Data.DbType.[String] dbCommand.Parameters.Add(dbParam_promo) Dim rowsAffected As Integer = 0 dbConnection.Open Try rowsAffected = dbCommand.ExecuteNonQuery Finally dbConnection.Close End Try labelTest.text = rowsAffected.ToString() if rowsAffected = 1 then labelSuccess.text = "* Your details have been updated and saved" else labelError.text = "* Your details could not be updated" end if End Function Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to include a child object's child object in Entity Framework 5

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I am using Entity Framework 5 code first and ASP.NET MVC 3. I am struggling to get a child object's child object to populate. Below are my classes.. Application class; public class Application { // Partial list of properties public virtual ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } Child class: public class Child { // Partial list of properties public int ChildRelationshipTypeId { get; set; } public virtual ChildRelationshipType ChildRelationshipType { get; set; } } ChildRelationshipType class: public class ChildRelationshipType { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Part of GetAll method in the repository to return all the applications: return DatabaseContext.Applications .Include("Children"); The Child class contains a reference to the ChildRelationshipType class. To work with an application's children I would have something like this: foreach (Child child in application.Children) { string childName = child.ChildRelationshipType.Name; } I get an error here that the object context is already closed. How do I specify that each child object must include the ChildRelationshipType object like what I did above?

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  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

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  • Crash on iOS when system purges memory and closes a UIViewController

    - by Amiramix
    My application is crashing when one of the views is purged from memory because of low-memory condition. At least this is what I understand from the crashlog. It happens on numerous screens but only when opening a Facebook dialog (using the Facebook SDK). Basically, looks like the system sometimes runs out of memory when we need to present a Facebook dialog (e.g. to let user post something on the Facebook timeline). Date/Time: 2012-03-14 19:47:33.819 +0000 OS Version: iPhone OS 5.1 (9B176) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x30000008 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x30f2bf78 objc_msgSend + 16 1 MyApp 0x00003c0e -LTBaseViewController viewDidUnload (LTBaseViewController.m:145) 2 MyApp 0x00004ea2 -LTBaseTableViewController viewDidUnload (LTBaseTableViewController.m:90) 3 UIKit 0x33766bd8 -[UIViewController unloadViewForced:] + 244 4 UIKit 0x338ae492 -[UIViewController purgeMemoryForReason:] + 58 5 Foundation 0x3071a4f8 __57-NSNotificationCenter addObserver:selector:name:object:_block_invoke_0 + 12 6 CoreFoundation 0x30e95540 ___CFXNotificationPost_block_invoke_0 + 64 7 CoreFoundation 0x30e21090 _CFXNotificationPost + 1400 8 Foundation 0x3068e3e4 -NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo: + 60 9 Foundation 0x3068fc14 -NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object: + 24 10 UIKit 0x3387926a -UIApplication _performMemoryWarning + 74 11 UIKit 0x33879364 -UIApplication _receivedMemoryNotification + 168 12 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a12252 _dispatch_source_invoke + 510 13 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a0fb1e _dispatch_queue_invoke$VARIANT$up + 42 14 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a0fe64 _dispatch_main_queue_callback_4CF$VARIANT$up + 152 15 CoreFoundation 0x30e9c2a6 __CFRunLoopRun + 1262 16 CoreFoundation 0x30e1f49e CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 294 17 CoreFoundation 0x30e1f366 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 98 18 GraphicsServices 0x33fb6432 GSEventRunModal + 130 19 UIKit 0x336f5e76 UIApplicationMain + 1074 20 MyApp 0x00004818 main (main.m:16) 21 MyApp 0x000023b4 0x1000 + 5044 I checked and there are almost no memory leaks, e.g. when testing the app for an hour the total memory leaked was around 2-3Kb caused by some string-copying libraries. So I don't believe this is caused by the application. I guess that when the phone is not restarted for some time there are applications running in the background and when using Facebook SDK the memory becomes a problem and the system tries to recover the memory from random applications, including my application. My question is, how can I prevent this crash from happening? How should I handle unloadViewForced on a view controller to make the app more robust in low-memory conditions? And lastly, am I right that this crashlog suggests the crash occurred because the system tried to free memory and my application didn't handle it properly? Any help greatly appreciated.

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