Search Results

Search found 16528 results on 662 pages for 'chen xiao long'.

Page 606/662 | < Previous Page | 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613  | Next Page >

  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

    Read the article

  • Using one data source across multiple views in Kendo UI SPA

    - by user3731783
    I am trying to build a Kendo UI SPA. I have two views. View 1 (appListView) shows Application Details in a grid and view 2 (activityView) will have a dropdown for application names and a grid that shows the activity for selected application As I am loading all the application details on the loading of view 1, I would like to re-use those details to populate the dropdown on view 2. Please see my code below. Everything works fine but when I go to View 2 it makes a call to the service again to get application details. I would like to use the existing data if it is already loaded and if the uses comes to view 2 directly then it should get application data also. I am not sure what I am missing in the code. View Markup: <script id="appListView" type="text/x-kendo-template"> <h3 data-bind="html: displayName"></h3> <div data-role="grid" data-editable="{'mode':'popup'}" data-bind="source: items" data-columns="[ {'field': 'Name'}, {'field': 'ContactEmail','title':'Contact Email'} ]"> </div> </script> <script id="" type="text\x-kendo-template"> <div> Activity for Application&nbsp;&nbsp; <input name="AppName" data-role="dropdownlist" data-source="appsModel.items" data-text-field="Name" data-value-field="Id" data-option-label="Choose an application name" style="width:250px;" /> </div> <div id="Activities" data-role="grid" data-bind="source: items" data-auto-bind="false" data-columns="[ {'field': 'Domain','title':'Domain'}, {'field': 'ActivityType','title':'Activity Type'} ]"> </div> </script> js with DataSource and View Model: //data sources var applications = new kendo.data.DataSource({ schema: { model: { id: "Id" } }, serverFiltering : true, transport: { read: { url: '/api/App', dataType: 'json', type:'GET' } } }); var activities = new kendo.data.DataSource({ schema: { model: { id: "Id" } }, transport: { read: { url: '/api/Activity', dataType: 'json', type: 'GET' }, parameterMap: function (data, type) { if (type == "read") { return 'appId=' + $("#AppName").val() ; } } } }); //Models var appsModel = kendo.observable({ items: applications, displayName: 'My Applications' }); var activityModel = kendo.observable({ items: activities, onAppChange: function(t){ $("#Activities").data("kendoGrid").dataSource.read(); }, dispayName: 'Application Activities' }); //views var layout = new kendo.Layout("layout-template"); var appListView = new kendo.View("appListView", { model: appsModel }); var activityView = new kendo.View("activityView", { model: activityModel }); Thank you for taking time to read this long question.

    Read the article

  • problem to create session of facebook

    - by khoyendra
    try { HttpClient http = new HttpClient(); http.setParams(new HttpClientParams()); //http.getHostConfiguration().setHost("http://www.facebook.com/"); http.setState(new HttpState()); String api_key = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; String secret = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; // String appId=124812364218050; //http://www.facebook.com/developers/editapp.php?app_id=124812364218050 FacebookRestClient client = new FacebookRestClient(api_key, secret); client.setIsDesktop(true); // String sessionKey = request.getParameter(FacebookParam.SESSION_KEY.toString()); // boolean b = client.users_setStatus("This is a test..."); // System.out.println("User Status RESULT : " + b); String token = client.auth_createToken(); final String loginId = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php"; GetMethod get = new GetMethod(loginId + "?api_key=" + api_key + "&v=1.0&auth_token=" +token); System.out.println("Get="+get); http.executeMethod(get); PostMethod post = new PostMethod(loginId); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("api_key", api_key)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("v", "1.0")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("auth_token", token)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("fbconnect","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("return_session","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("session_key_only","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("req_perms","read_stream,publish_stream")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("email", email)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("pass", password)); System.out.println("Token ="+token); int postStatus = http.executeMethod(post); System.out.println("Response : " + postStatus); session = client.auth_getSession(token); // Here I am getting error System.out.println("Session string: " + session); long userid = client.users_getLoggedInUser(); System.out.println("User Id is : " + userid); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } please solve my problem i cannot create session of facebook.

    Read the article

  • How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

    Read the article

  • Will this ever result in a stack overflow error?

    - by David
    Will incrementing the instance variables of an object ever lead to a stack overflow error? For example: This method (java) will cause a stack overflow error: class StackOverflow { public static void StackOverflow (int x) { System.out.println (x) ; StackOverflow(x+1) ; } public static void main (String[]arg) { StackOverflow (0) ; } but will this?: (..... is a gap that i've put in to shorten the code. its long enough as it is.) import java.util.*; class Dice { String name ; int x ; int[] sum ; .... public Dice (String name) { this.name = name ; this.x = 0 ; this.sum = new int[7] ; } .... public static void main (String[] arg) { Dice a1 = new Dice ("a1") ; for (int i = 0; i<6000000; i++) { a1.roll () ; printDice(a1) ; } } .... public void roll () { this.x = randNum(1, this.sum.length) ; this.sum[x] ++ ; } public static int randNum (int a, int b) { Random random = new Random() ; int c = (b-a) ; int randomNumber = ((random.nextInt(c)) + a) ; return randomNumber ; } public static void printDice (Dice Dice) { System.out.println (Dice.name) ; System.out.println ("value: "+Dice.x) ; printValues (Dice) ; } public static void printValues (Dice Dice) { for (int i = 0; i<Dice.sum.length; i++) System.out.println ("#of "+i+"'s: "+Dice.sum[i]) ; } } The above doesn't currently cause a stack overflow error but could i get it too if i changed this line in main: for (int i = 0; i<6000000; i++) so that instead of 6 million something sufficiently high were there?

    Read the article

  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

    Read the article

  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

    Read the article

  • Release management with a distributed version control system

    - by See Sharp Cheddar
    We're considering a switch from SVN to a distributed VCS at my workplace. I'm familiar with all the reasons for wanting to using a DVCS for day-to-day development: local version control, easier branching and merging, etc., but I haven't seen that much that's compelling in terms of managing software releases. Here's our release process: Discover what changes are available for merging. Run a query to find the defects/tickets associated with these changes. Filter out changes associated with "open" tickets. In our environment, tickets must be in a closed state in order to merged with a release branch. Filter out changes we don't want in the release branch. We are very conservative when it comes to merging changes. If a change isn't absolutely necessary, it doesn't get merged. Merge available changes, preferably in chronological order. We group changes together if they're associated with the same ticket. Block unwanted changes from the release branch (svnmerge block) so we don't have to deal with them again. Sometimes we can be juggling 3-5 different milestones at a time. Some milestones have very different constraints, and the block list can get quite long. I've been messing around with git, mercurial and plastic, and as far as I can tell none of them address this model very well. It seems like they would work very well when you have only one product you're releasing, but I can't imagine using them for juggling multiple, very different products from the same codebase. For example, cherry-picking seems to be an afterthought in mercurial. (You have to use the 'transplant' command). After you cherry-pick a change into a branch it still shows up as an available integration. Cherry-picking breaks the mercurial way of working. DVCS seems to be better suited for feature branches. There's no need for cherry-picking if you merge directly from a feature branch to trunk and the release branch. But who wants to do all that merging all the time? And how do you query for what's available to merge? And how do you make sure all the changes in a feature branch belong together? It sounds like total chaos. I'm torn because the coder in me wants DVCS for day-to-day work. I really want it. But I fear the day when I have to put the release manager hat and sort out what needs to be merged and what doesn't. I want to write code, I don't want to be a merge monkey.

    Read the article

  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

    Read the article

  • Design patterns and interview question

    - by user160758
    When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

    Read the article

  • Mock Object and Interface

    - by tunl
    I'm a newbie in Unit Test with Mock Object. I use EasyMock. I try to understand this example: import java.io.IOException; public interface ExchangeRate { double getRate(String inputCurrency, String outputCurrency) throws IOException; } import java.io.IOException; public class Currency { private String units; private long amount; private int cents; public Currency(double amount, String code) { this.units = code; setAmount(amount); } private void setAmount(double amount) { this.amount = new Double(amount).longValue(); this.cents = (int) ((amount * 100.0) % 100); } public Currency toEuros(ExchangeRate converter) { if ("EUR".equals(units)) return this; else { double input = amount + cents/100.0; double rate; try { rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); double output = input * rate; return new Currency(output, "EUR"); } catch (IOException ex) { return null; } } } public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Currency) { Currency other = (Currency) o; return this.units.equals(other.units) && this.amount == other.amount && this.cents == other.cents; } return false; } public String toString() { return amount + "." + Math.abs(cents) + " " + units; } } import junit.framework.TestCase; import org.easymock.EasyMock; import java.io.IOException; public class CurrencyTest extends TestCase { public void testToEuros() throws IOException { Currency testObject = new Currency(2.50, "USD"); Currency expected = new Currency(3.75, "EUR"); ExchangeRate mock = EasyMock.createMock(ExchangeRate.class); EasyMock.expect(mock.getRate("USD", "EUR")).andReturn(1.5); EasyMock.replay(mock); Currency actual = testObject.toEuros(mock); assertEquals(expected, actual); } } So, i wonder how to Currency use ExchangeRate in toEuros(..) method. rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); The behavior of getRate(..) method is not specified because ExchangeRate is an interface.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008: If Multiple Values Set In Other Mutliple Values Set

    - by AJH
    In SQL, is there anyway to accomplish something like this? This is based off a report built in SQL Server Report Builder, where the user can specify multiple text values as a single report parameter. The query for the report grabs all of the values the user selected and stores them in a single variable. I need a way for the query to return only records that have associations to EVERY value the user specified. -- Assume there's a table of Elements with thousands of entries. -- Now we declare a list of properties for those Elements to be associated with. create table #masterTable ( ElementId int, Text varchar(10) ) insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Coarse'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Dense'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Smooth'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Hollow'); -- Element 1 is Red, Coarse, and Dense. Element 2 is Red, Smooth, and Hollow. -- The real table is actually much much larger than this; this is just an example. -- This is me trying to replicate how SQL Server Report Builder treats -- report parameters in its queries. The user selects one, some, all, -- or no properties from a list. The written query treats the user's -- selections as a single variable called @Properties. -- Example scenario 1: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Dense. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Dense in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --ideally a set containing only Red, Coarse, and Dense --Both Red and Dense are within Element 1's properties (Red, Coarse, Dense), so Element 1 gets returned, but not Element 2. -- Example scenario 2: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Hollow. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Hollow in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Both Red and Hollow are within Element 2's properties (Red, Smooth, Hollow), so Element 2 gets returned, but not Element 1. --Example Scenario 3: User only picked the Red option. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Red is within both Element 1 and Element 2's properties, so both Element 1 and Element 2 get returned. The above syntax doesn't actually work because SQL doesn't seem to allow multiple values on the left side of the "in" comparison. Error that returns: Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression. Am I even on the right track here? Sorry if the example looks long-winded or confusing.

    Read the article

  • Optimizing Vector elements swaps using CUDA

    - by Orion Nebula
    Hi all, Since I am new to cuda .. I need your kind help I have this long vector, for each group of 24 elements, I need to do the following: for the first 12 elements, the even numbered elements are multiplied by -1, for the second 12 elements, the odd numbered elements are multiplied by -1 then the following swap takes place: Graph: because I don't yet have enough points, I couldn't post the image so here it is: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?e4b88fb666.png I have written this piece of code, and wonder if you could help me further optimize it to solve for divergence or bank conflicts .. //subvector is a multiple of 24, Mds and Nds are shared memory _shared_ double Mds[subVector]; _shared_ double Nds[subVector]; int tx = threadIdx.x; int tx_mod = tx ^ 0x0001; int basex = __umul24(blockDim.x, blockIdx.x); Mds[tx] = M.elements[basex + tx]; __syncthreads(); // flip the signs if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { //if < 12 and even if ((tx & 0x0001)==0) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 24) { //if >12 and < 24 and odd if ((tx & 0x0001)==1) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 6) { //for the first 6 elements .. swap with last six in the 24elements group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 18]; Mds [tx_mod + 18] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { // for the second 6 elements .. swp with next adjacent group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 6]; Mds [tx_mod + 6] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); Thanks in advance ..

    Read the article

  • User Defined Exceptions with JMX

    - by Daniel
    I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

    Read the article

  • How to tag photos in facebook-api?

    - by Camillo
    Hey, I wanted to ask if/how is it possible to tag a photo using the FB API (Graph or REST). I've managed to create an album and also to upload a photo in it, but I stuck on tagging. I've got the permissions and the correct session key. My code until now: try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $token = $session['access_token'];//here I get the token from the $session array $album_id = $album[0]; //upload photo $file= 'images/hand.jpg'; $args = array( 'message' => 'Photo from application', ); $args[basename($file)] = '@' . realpath($file); $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/'.$album_id.'/photos?access_token='.$token; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $args); $data = curl_exec($ch); //returns the id of the photo you just uploaded print_r(json_decode($data,true)); $search = array('{"id":', "}"); $delete = array("", ""); // picture id call with $picture $picture = str_replace($search, $delete, $data); //here should be the photos.addTag, but i don't know how to solve this //above code works, below i don't know what is the error / what's missing $json = 'https://api.facebook.com/method/photos.addTag?pid='.urlencode($picture).'&tag_text=Test&x=50&y=50&access_token='.urlencode($token); $ch = curl_init(); $url = $json; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_exec($ch); } catch(FacebookApiException $e){ echo "Error:" . print_r($e, true); } I really searched a long time, if you know something that might help me, please post it here :) Thanks for all your help, Camillo

    Read the article

  • mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

    - by sas
    I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

    Read the article

  • Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

    - by slynn1324
    I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

    Read the article

  • Displaying a notification when bluetooth is disconnected - Android

    - by Ryan T
    I am trying to create a program that will display a notification to the user if a Blue tooth device suddenly comes out of range from my Android device. I currently have the following code but no notification is displayed. I was wondering if it was possible I shouldn't use ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED because I believe the bluetooth stack would be expecting packets that state a disconnect is requested. My requirements state that the bluetooth device will disconnect without warning. Thank you for any assistance! BluetoothNotification.java: //This is where the notification is created. import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Notification; import android.app.NotificationManager; import android.app.PendingIntent; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Notification; import android.app.NotificationManager; import android.app.PendingIntent; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; public class BluetoothNotification extends Activity { public static final int NOTIFICATION_ID = 1; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); /** Define configuration for our notification */ int icon = R.drawable.logo; CharSequence tickerText = "This is a sample notification"; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence contentTitle = "Sample notification"; CharSequence contentText = "This notification has been generated as a result of BT Disconnecting"; Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, BluetoothNotification.class); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, notificationIntent, 0); /** Initialize the Notification using the above configuration */ final Notification notification = new Notification(icon, tickerText, when); notification.setLatestEventInfo(context, contentTitle, contentText, contentIntent); /** Retrieve reference from NotificationManager */ String ns = Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE; final NotificationManager mNotificationManager = (NotificationManager) getSystemService(ns); mNotificationManager.notify(NOTIFICATION_ID, notification); finish(); } } Snippet from OnCreate: //Located in Controls.java IntentFilter filter1 = new IntentFilter(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED); this.registerReceiver(mReceiver, filter1); Snippet from Controls.java: private final BroadcastReceiver mReceiver = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); if (BluetoothDevice.ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED.equals(action)) { //Device has disconnected NotificationManager nm = (NotificationManager) getSystemService(NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); } } };

    Read the article

  • Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

    Read the article

  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

    Read the article

  • Click on notification starts activity twice

    - by Karussell
    I'm creating a notification from a service with the following code: NotificationManager notificationManager = (NotificationManager) ctx .getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); CharSequence tickerText = "bla ..."; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, tickerText, when); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(ctx, SearchActivity.class). putExtra(SearchActivity.INTENT_SOURCE, MyNotificationService.class.getSimpleName()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(ctx, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(ctx, ctx.getString(R.string.app_name), tickerText, contentIntent); notification.flags |= Notification.FLAG_AUTO_CANCEL; notificationManager.notify(1, notification); The logs clearly says that the the method startActivity is called twice times: 04-02 23:48:06.923: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.923: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:07.087: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 2: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.310: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 3: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 462 ms (total 462 ms) 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 318 ms (total 318 ms) Why are they started twice? There are two identical questions on stackoverflow: here and here. But they do not explain what the initial issue could be and they do not work for me. E.g. changing to launchMode singleTop is not appropriated for me and it should work without changing launchMode according to the official docs (see Invoking the search dialog). Nevertheless I also tried to add the following flags to notificationIntent Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP | PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT but the problem remains the same.

    Read the article

  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

    Read the article

  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

    Read the article

  • div popup inside td

    - by sims
    I have a table with a bunch of cells. (No way! Amazing! :P) Some of the cells have a small div that when you put your mouse over, it gets bigger so you can read all the text. This works well and all. However, since html elements that come later in the document have a higher z-index, when the div gets bigger it is underneath the other divs in the other cells. Some html code: <table> <tr> <td> limited info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> informative long text is here </div> </div> </td> <td> some short info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> longer explanation about what is really going on that covers the div up there ^^^. darn! </div> </div> </td> </tr> </table> Some js code: function tooltipshow(obj) { obj.style.width = '30em'; obj.style.zIndex = '100'; } function tooltiphide(obj) { obj.style.width = '1em'; obj.style.zIndex = '20'; } It doesn't matter if I set z-index dynamically to something higher onmouseover. It's like z-index has no affect. I think it has something to do with the table. I've tested this in FF3. When I'm feeling particularly macho, I'll test it in IE.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613  | Next Page >