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• Problems related to showing MessageBox from non-GUI threads

  - by Hans Løken

  I'm working on a heavily data-bound Win.Forms application where I've found some strange behavior. The app has separate I/O threads receiving updates through asynchronous web-requests which it then sends to the main/GUI thread for processing and updating of application-wide data-stores (which in turn may be data-bound to various GUI-elements, etc.). The server at the other end of the web-requests requires periodic requests or the session times out. I've gone through several attempted solutions of dealing with thread-issues etc. and I've observed the following behavior: If I use Control.Invoke for sending updates from I/O-thread(s) to main-thread and this update causes a MessageBox to be shown the main form's message pump stops until the user clicks the ok-button. This also blocks the I/O-thread from continuing eventually leading to timeouts on the server. If I use Control.BeginInvoke for sending updates from I/O-thread(s) to main-thread the main form's message pump does not stop, but if the processing of an update leads to a messagebox being shown, the processing of the rest of that update is halted until the user clicks ok. Since the I/O-threads keep running and the message pump keeps processing messages several BeginInvoke's for updates may be called before the one with the message box is finished. This leads to out-of-sequence updates which is unacceptable. I/O-threads add updates to a blocking queue (very similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/530211/creating-a-blocking-queuet-in-net/530228#530228). GUI-thread uses a Forms.Timer that periodically applies all updates in the blocking queue. This solution solves both the problem of blocking I/O threads and sequentiality of updates i.e. next update will be never be started until previous is finished. However, there is a small performance cost as well as introducing a latency in showing updates that is unacceptable in the long run. I would like update-processing in the main-thread to be event-driven rather than polling. So to my question. How should I do this to: avoid blocking the I/O-threads guarantee that updates are finished in-sequence keep the main message pump running while showing a message box as a result of an update.

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• When is it worth using a BindingSource?

  - by Justin

  I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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• c# Uploading files to ftp server

  - by etarvt

  Hi there, I have a problem with uploading files to ftp server. I have a few buttons. Every button uploads different files to the ftp. The first time when a button is clicked the file is uploaded successfully, but the second and later tries fail. It gives me "The operation has timed out". When I close the site and then open it again I can upload again only one file. I am sure that I can override files on the ftp. Here's the code: protected void btn_export_OnClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { Stream stream = new MemoryStream(); stream.Position = 0; // fill the stream bool res = this.UploadFile(stream, "test.csv", "dir"); stream.Close(); } private bool UploadFile(Stream stream, string filename, string ftp_dir) { stream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); string uri = String.Format("ftp://{0}/{1}/{2}", "host", ftp_dir, filename); try { FtpWebRequest reqFTP = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri(uri)); reqFTP.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("user", "pass"); reqFTP.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; reqFTP.KeepAlive = false; reqFTP.UseBinary = true; reqFTP.UsePassive = true; reqFTP.ContentLength = stream.Length; reqFTP.EnableSsl = true; // it's FTPES type of ftp int buffLen = 2048; byte[] buff = new byte[buffLen]; int contentLen; try { Stream ftpStream = reqFTP.GetRequestStream(); contentLen = stream.Read(buff, 0, buffLen); while (contentLen != 0) { ftpStream.Write(buff, 0, contentLen); contentLen = stream.Read(buff, 0, buffLen); } ftpStream.Flush(); ftpStream.Close(); } catch (Exception exc) { this.lbl_error.Text = "Error:<br />" + exc.Message; this.lbl_error.Visible = true; return false; } } catch (Exception exc) { this.lbl_error.Text = "Error:<br />" + exc.Message; this.lbl_error.Visible = true; return false; } return true; } Does anyone have idea what may cause this strange behaviour? I think I'm closing all streams accurately. Could this be related with the ftp server settings? The admin said that the ftp handshake never happened second time.

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• Pointer to 2D array. Why does this example work?

  - by Louise

  I have this code example, but I don't understand why changing the values in the array inside outputUsingArray() are changing the original array. I would have expected changing the values of the array in outputUsingArray() would only be for a local copy of the array. Why isn't that so? However, this is the behaviour I would like, but I don't understand why it work. #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> void outputUsingArray(int array[][4], int n_rows, int n_cols) { int i, j; printf("Output Using array\n"); for (i = 0; i < n_rows; i++) { for (j = 0; j < n_cols; j++) { // Either can be used. //printf("%2d ", array[i][j] ); printf("%2d ", *(*(array+i)+j)); } printf("\n"); } printf("\n"); array[0][0] = 100; array[2][3] = 200; } void outputUsingPointer(int (*array)[4], int n_rows, int n_cols) { int i, j; printf("Output Using Pointer to Array i.e. int (*array)[4]\n"); for (i = 0; i < n_rows; i++) { for (j = 0; j < n_cols; j++) { printf("%2d ", *(*(array+i) + j )); } printf("\n"); } printf("\n"); } int main() { int array[3][4] = { { 0, 1, 2, 3 }, { 4, 5, 6, 7 }, { 8, 9, 10, 11 } }; outputUsingPointer((int (*)[4])array, 3, 4); outputUsingArray(array, 3, 4); printf("0,0: %i\n", array[0][0]); printf("2,3: %i\n", array[2][3]); return 0; }

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• Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

  - by Mr. Shiny and New ??

  The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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• Spring JPA and persistence.xml

  - by bmw0128

  I'm trying to set up a Spring JPA Hibernate simple example WAR for deployment to Glassfish. I see some examples use a persistence.xml file, and other examples do not. Some examples use a dataSource, and some do not. So far my understanding is that a dataSource is not needed if I have: <persistence-unit name="educationPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>com.coe.jpa.StudentProfile</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/COE" /> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value="root" /> <property name="show_sql" value="true" /> <property name="dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect" /> </properties> </persistence-unit> I can deploy fine, but my EntityManager is not getting injected by Spring. My applicationContext.xml: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="educationPU" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" /> <bean id="StudentProfileDAO" class="com.coe.jpa.StudentProfileDAO"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="studentService" class="com.coe.services.StudentService"> </bean> My class with the EntityManager: public class StudentService { private String saveMessage; private String showModal; private String modalHeader; private StudentProfile studentProfile; private String lastName; private String firstName; @PersistenceContext(unitName="educationPU") private EntityManager em; @Transactional public String save() { System.out.println("*** em: " + this.em); //em is null this.studentProfile= new StudentProfile(); this.saveMessage = "saved"; this.showModal = "true"; this.modalHeader= "Information Saved"; return "successs"; } My web.xml: <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> Are there any pieces I am missing to have Spring inject "em" in to StudentService?

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• Why touching "d_name" makes calls to readdir() fail?

  - by Sarah Mani

  Hi, I'm trying to write a little helper for Windows which eventually will accept a file extension as an argument and return the number of files of that kind in the current directory. To do so, I'm reading the file entries in the directories and after getting the extension I'd like to convert it to lowercase to compare it with the yet-to-add specified argument. When converting the extension to lowercase I found that touching even a duplicate string of the d_name variable will cause a strange behaviour, like no more calls to readdir are called. Here is the code I'm using right now (the commented code is preliminary) and outputs for a given directory: #include <ctype.h> #include <dirent.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> char * strrch(char *string, size_t elements, char character) { char *reverse = string + elements; while (--reverse != string) if (*reverse == character) return reverse; return NULL; } void test(char *string) { // Even being a duplicate will make it fail: char *str = strdup(string); printf("Strings: %s %s\n", string, str); *str = 'a'; printf("Strings: %s %s\n", string, str); //unsigned short int i = 0; //for (; str[i] != '\0', str++; i++) // str[i] = tolower((unsigned char) str[i]); //puts(str); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { DIR *directory; struct dirent *element; if (directory = opendir(".")) { while (element = readdir(directory)) test(strrch(element->d_name, element->d_namlen, '.')); closedir(directory); puts(NULL); } else puts("Couldn't open the directory.\n"); } Output without modifying the duplicate (modification and the second printf call commented): Strings: (null) (null) Strings: . . Strings: .exe .exe Strings: .pdf .pdf Strings: .c .c Strings: .ini .ini Strings: .pdf .pdf Strings: .pdf .pdf Strings: .pdf .pdf Strings: .flac .flac Strings: .FLAC .FLAC Strings: .lnk .lnk Strings: .URL .URL Output of the same directory (with the code above, with the 2 printfs): Strings: (null) (null) Is there anything wrong? Is it a compiler issue? I'm using GCC 4.4.3 in Windows (MinGW) right now. Thank you very much for your help. By the way, is there any other way to work with files and directories in a Windows environment not using the POSIX functions?

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• "RFC 2833 RTP Event" Consecutive Events and the E "End" Bit

  - by brian_d

  Hello, I can send out a RFC 2833 dtmf event as outlined at http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2833.txt When I do set the E "End" bit, but leave it as 0, I get the following behaviour: If for example keys 7874556332111111145855885#3 were pressed, then ALL events would be sent and show up in a program like wireshark, however only 87456321458585#3 would sound. So the first key (which I figure could be a separate issue) and any repeats of an event (ie 11111) are failing to sound. In section 3.9, figure 2 of the above linked document, they give a 911 example. Here all but the last event have the E bit set. When I set the bit for all numbers, I never get an event to sound. I have thought of a couple possible thing but do not know if they are the reason: 1) figure 2 shows payload types of 96 and 97 sent. I have not nor know how to exactly. In section 3.8, codes 96 and 97 are described as "the dynamic payload types 96 and 97 have been assigned for the redundancy mechanism and the telephone event payload respectively" 2) In section 3.5, "E:", "A sender MAY delay setting the end bit until retransmitting the last packet for a tone, rather than on its first transmission" Does anyone have an idea of how to actually do this? I have also fiddled around with timestamp intervals and the RTP marker. Any help is greatly appreciated. Here is a sample wireshark event capture of the relevant areas: 6590 31.159045000 xx.x.x.xxx --.--.---.-- RTP EVENT Payload type=RTP Event, DTMF Pound # (end) Real-Time Transport Protocol Stream setup by SDP (frame 6225) Setup frame: 6225 Setup Method: SDP 10.. .... = Version: RFC 1889 Version (2) ..0. .... = Padding: False ...0 .... = Extension: False .... 0000 = Contributing source identifiers count: 0 0... .... = Marker: False Payload type: telephone-event (101) Sequence number: 0 Extended sequence number: 65536 Timestamp: 0 Synchronization Source identifier: 0x15f27104 (368210180) RFC 2833 RTP Event Event ID: DTMF Pound # (11) 1... .... = End of Event: True .0.. .... = Reserved: False ..00 0000 = Volume: 0 Event Duration: 2048

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• Problem getting Java Streams in HP Tandem (Non-Stop)

  - by AndreaG

  Hi. We are porting a simple Java application between Tandem NonStop systems, from G-Series to H-Series. Java version is 1.5.0_02. When performing basic I/O tasks like getting output stream from or opening a client socket, we receive exceptions like java.io.IOException: Value out of range or java.net.SocketException: Value out of range ("value out of range" is Tandem native jargon for, well, quite everything I suppose). Has anybody got similar issues? i.e. I/O corruption while for example messing with JNI? I suppose there is something wrong with the system, but where might it be? Thank you. EDIT: adding snippets as requested sample snippet (a) - using Runtime.exec () (adapted) Properties envVars = new Properties(); Process p = r.exec("/bin/env"); envVars.load(p.getInputStream()); Stack trace (a): java.io.IOException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.io.FileInputStream.readBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileInputStream.read(FileInputStream.java:194) at java.lang.UNIXProcess$DeferredCloseInputStream.read(UNIXProcess.java:221) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read1(BufferedInputStream.java:254) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:313) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.readBytes(StreamDecoder.java:411) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.implRead(StreamDecoder.java:453) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder.read(StreamDecoder.java:183) at java.io.InputStreamReader.read(InputStreamReader.java:167) at java.io.BufferedReader.fill(BufferedReader.java:136) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:299) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:362) at util.Environment.getVariables(Environment.java:39) Last line fails, and output gets redirected to console (!). sample snippet (b) - using HttpURLConnection: public WorkerThread (HttpURLConnection conn, String requestData, Logger logger) { this.conn = conn; ... } public void run () { OutputStream out = conn.getOutputStream (); } Stack trace (b): java.net.SocketException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:507) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:155) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:365) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:477) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.<init>(HttpsClient.java:280) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:337) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:176) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:736) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:162) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:828) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getOutputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:230) Case (a) can be avoided because it was a workaround for other issues with previous JRE version (!), but same behaviour with sockets is really nasty.

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• VB6 app not executing as scheduled task unless user is logged on

  - by Tedd Hansen

  Hi Would greatly apprechiate some help on this one! It may be a tricky one. :) Problem I have an VB6 application which is set up as scheduled task. It starts every time, but when executing CreateObject it fails if user is not logged on to computer. I am looking for information on what could cause this. Primary suspicion is that some Windows API fails. Key points Behaviour confirmed on Windows 2000, 2003, 2008 and Vista. The application executes as user X at scheduled time, executed by Windows Task Scheduler. It executes every time. Application does start! -- If user X is logged on via RDP it runs perfectly. (Note that user doesn't need to be connected, only logged on) -- If user X is not logged on to computer the application fails. Failure point Application fails when using CreateObject() to instansiate a DCOM object which is also part of the application. The DCOM objects declare .dll-references at startup (globally/on top of .bas-file) and run a small startup function. Failure must be during startup, possibly in one of the .dll-declarations. Thoughts After some Googling my initial suspicion was directed at MAPI. From what I could see MAPI required user to be logged on. The application has MAPI references. But even with all MAPI references removed it still does not work. What is the difference if an user is logged on? Registry mapping? Environment? explorer.exe is running. Isn't the user logged on when application executes as the user? What info would help? A definitive answer would be truly great. Any information regarding any VB6 feature/Windows API that could act differently depending on wether user is logged on or not would definitively help. Similar experiences may lead me in the right direction. Tips on debuggin this. Thanks! :)

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• PHP mysqli wrapper: passing by reference with __call() and call_user_func_array()

  - by Dave

  Hi everyone. I'm a long running fan of stackoverflow, first time poster. I'd love to see if someone can help me with this. Let me dig in with a little code, then I'll explain my problem. I have the following wrapper classes: class mysqli_wrapper { private static $mysqli_obj; function __construct() // Recycles the mysqli object { if (!isset(self::$mysqli_obj)) { self::$mysqli_obj = new mysqli(MYSQL_SERVER, MYSQL_USER, MYSQL_PASS, MYSQL_DBNAME); } } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array(self::$mysqli_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return self::$mysqli_obj->$para; } function prepare($query) // Overloaded, returns statement wrapper { return new mysqli_stmt_wrapper(self::$mysqli_obj, $query); } } class mysqli_stmt_wrapper { private $stmt_obj; function __construct($link, $query) { $this->stmt_obj = mysqli_prepare($link, $query); } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->stmt_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return $this->stmt_obj->$para; } // Other methods will be added here } My problem is that when I call bind_result() on the mysqli_stmt_wrapper class, my variables don't seem to be passed by reference and nothing gets returned. To illustrate, if I run this section of code, I only get NULL's: $mysqli = new mysqli_wrapper; $stmt = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT cfg_key, cfg_value FROM config"); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($cfg_key, $cfg_value); while ($stmt->fetch()) { var_dump($cfg_key); var_dump($cfg_value); } $stmt->close(); I also get a nice error from PHP which tells me: PHP Warning: Parameter 1 to mysqli_stmt::bind_result() expected to be a reference, value given in test.php on line 48 I've tried to overload the bind_param() function, but I can't figure out how to get a variable number of arguments by reference. func_get_args() doesn't seem to be able to help either. If I pass the variables by reference as in $stmt->bind_result(&$cfg_key, &$cfg_value) it should work, but this is deprecated behaviour and throws more errors. Does anyone have some ideas around this? Thanks so much for your time.

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• How do I reward my developers for the little things they get right?

  - by Nat

  I am in a tech lead role and my developers get stuff right most of the time. How do I communicate to them thier value to me? (I.e. they have value because I do not have to go through and point out mistakes which means I do not have to watch them like a hawk which frees me to do more useful things). In summary For doing the mundane well on a day to day basis, it is good to recognise the developers effort verbally to them. An honest thankyou that mentions the specific behaviour and its positive repercussions to you personally will be well received, adjust the language to suite each individual. (Note that other developers within earshot may also respond to this by increasing their efforts in this specific activity.) Other things that should be done regularly are: Team drinks In many cultures this is an entirely worthy way of giving the team some time to socialise and relax. Be sure that you do not exclude people who do not drink or are not keen on pub culture. Shared meals are another option. Formal written (email) acknowledgment and praise to senior managers of the teams efforts and successes. (Note that acknowledging individuals alone may damage team spirit) Work the hours you expect your team to do. If they absolutely must work late for a deadline, be there in support Go to bat for the team. Refuse to let them be forced to work long periods of overtime without compensation. Protect them from level politics and stress. Give your team the best equipment you can afford. Good tools show respect and improve productivity. Small or large team rewards where appropriate can consist of many interesting activities/ items. If it allows the team to get together in a fun and even lightly competitive manner it will work (foosball table, go-karting, darts board, video game console etc). Don’t forget to listen to what the team wants, each team will have different ideas. Ensure they are getting a fair deal financially from the company. While different people may have different expectations of their pay, someone being paid unfairly will rot morale for the entire team

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• SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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• iPhone SDK / Core Data usage scenario, similar to GAE data store?

  - by boliva

  Hi all, I am currently rewriting a map based App which I wrote in the past, specifically for 2.2.1 devices. Originally I wrote it to make use of SQLite databases but I would like to try and migrate it over Core Data, now that it's available on 3.X (for which I am rewriting to). I am fairly experienced in iPhone/Obj-C development, SQL and server backend technologies, but I have never had the chance to work with Core Data so IDK really if it's the appropiate tool for what I am trying to accomplish. The App works on a limited area in a map over which there are about 4000 placemarks, with different kinds of icons and sizes. Of course not all 4000 placemarks are shown at once but only those currently visible in the map viewport, and depending on the zoom level. What I am doing right now is, after the user moves the map in any way (panning or zooming) I am requesting from the backend server the required information for the placemarks that would be visible given the viewport coordinates boundaries and zoom level, however the process isn't as smooth as I'd like (the backend is sending its response in XML and I am compressing it using gzip), it takes anywhere from 1 to 3 seconds to update the display of the placemarks after the user ends moving the map. What I would like to do is to prefetch all the placemarks data at the App launch and use it all through the app life time - I don't mind storing it for later use because the data should be dynamic. The way I would do it right now is, after retrieving all the data, to store it on an SQLite db which I would query later, whenever the user moves the map, to return only the placemarks inside the viewport coordinate boundaries and specific to a given zoom level. Now, the question itself is, if is it possible to use some more 'native', object driven way to carry this queries process, which got me thinking about Core Data and if it is in any way similar to what Google App Engine offers through its datastore where you can fetch a number of objects from the backend given a certain query or criteria, without resorting to an SQL query itself. Like I said before I don't have any experience on Core Data but I have a pretty deep understanding of Obj-C and iPhone development, as well as SQL databases. Any guides on how to achieve what I'm trying (if possible at all) would be greatly appreciated.

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• ExecuteNonQuery on a stored proc causes it to be deleted

  - by FinancialRadDeveloper

  This is a strange one. I have a Dev SQL Server which has the stored proc on it, and the same stored proc when used with the same code on the UAT DB causes it to delete itself! Has anyone heard of this behaviour? SQL Code: -- Check if user is registered with the system IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL BEGIN DROP PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL PRINT '<<< FAILED DROPPING PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' ELSE PRINT '<<< DROPPED PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' END go create procedure dbo.sp_is_valid_user @username as varchar(20), @isvalid as int OUTPUT AS BEGIN declare @tmpuser as varchar(20) select @tmpuser = username from CPUserData where username = @username if @tmpuser = @username BEGIN select @isvalid = 1 END else BEGIN select @isvalid = 0 END END GO Usage example DECLARE @isvalid int exec dbo.sp_is_valid_user 'username', @isvalid OUTPUT SELECT valid = @isvalid The usage example work all day... when I access it via C# it deletes itself in the UAT SQL DB but not the Dev one!! C# Code: public bool IsValidUser(string sUsername, ref string sErrMsg) { string sDBConn = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["StoredProcDBConnection"]; SqlCommand sqlcmd = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); try { SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(sDBConn); sqlcmd.Connection = conn; conn.Open(); sqlcmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; sqlcmd.CommandText = "sp_is_valid_user"; // params to pass in sqlcmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@username", sUsername); // param for checking success passed back out sqlcmd.Parameters.Add("@isvalid", SqlDbType.Int); sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; sqlcmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); int nIsValid = (int)sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Value; if (nIsValid == 1) { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "User Valid"; return true; } else { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "Username : " + sUsername + " not found."; return false; } } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "Error :" + e.Source + " msg: " + e.Message; return false; } }

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• Zend Framework - Ruby on Rails has a screencast showing how to code a blog in 15 minutes. Does ZF ha

  - by Sootah

  Ruby on Rails has a screencast presentation they use to promote their framework that shows how to code a basic weblog system in 15 minutes with RoR. Does the Zend PHP Framework have a similar screencast/presentation/whatever demonstrating something similar? It doesn't have to be a blog specifically, but I would definitely like to find a presentation that shows some rapid application development using ZF. Where I'm coming from: I have been programming on and off for years now. I started out with QBASIC waaaaay back in the day making little programs (text adventure games, screensavers, simple little things). I then moved to C++ but never really did anything too impressive with it. Since then (probably 5 years or so now) I have started to use C# for my desktop development and PHP for my web development. I've made some pretty cool tools here and there, but am certainly not a professional programmer by any stretch of the term as it has always simply been a hobby of mine. Right now I have two major web applications that I will start work on shortly. (Like tomorrow, or later tonight ideally.. :) ) Both will be database-driven apps that will require user registration, the ability to manipulate data that is specific to their account (their posts, listings, user account details, etc), amongst other things. Currently I am evaluating different frameworks to help me develop these web apps more quickly. I've been looking at, and have heard good things about Ruby on Rails. Hulu and YellowPages.com using it is an obvious endorsement - Of course, I have heard about the scalability issues that it potentially has; but that shouldn't be an issue with what I am working on. I don't expect millions of users per day for either project. I am also seriously looking at the Zend Framework for my needs because I already have some experience with PHP. Ideally I would like to find a ZF screencast that shows an app being written quickly so that I have a roughly equal comparison between the two options I am exploring and can see first-hand how things get done in both. That said - I am not opposed to considering frameworks other than RoR or ZF. The only research I've done on the subject has been over the past couple of days so I am quite certain that there are other excellent options out there that I've not even looked at - or heard of. Of course, it'd be awesome if there is a rapid app dev presentation that I can watch for whatever else is suggested. So - Suggestions? Links to good screencasts that show rapid application development in other frameworks? Are there other PHP frameworks that I should be considering? (Ones that are easy to deploy would be ideal, so I don't have to purchase a dedicated server that I have full control over. I'd like to keep my hosting costs down assuming that it's reasonable) Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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• C# - How to override GetHashCode with Lists in object

  - by Christian

  Hi, I am trying to create a "KeySet" to modify UIElement behaviour. The idea is to create a special function if, eg. the user clicks on an element while holding a. Or ctrl+a. My approach so far, first lets create a container for all possible modifiers. If I would simply allow a single key, it would be no problem. I could use a simple Dictionary, with Dictionary<Keys, Action> _specialActionList If the dictionary is empty, use the default action. If there are entries, check what action to use depending on current pressed keys And if I wasn't greedy, that would be it... Now of course, I want more. I want to allow multiple keys or modifiers. So I created a wrapper class, wich can be used as Key to my dictionary. There is an obvious problem when using a more complex class. Currently two different instances would create two different key, and thereby he would never find my function (see code to understand, really obvious) Now I checked this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/638761/c-gethashcode-override-of-object-containing-generic-array which helped a little. But my question is, is my basic design for the class ok. Should I use a hashset to store the modifier and normal keyboardkeys (instead of Lists). And If so, how would the GetHashCode function look like? I know, its a lot of code to write (boring hash functions), some tips would be sufficient to get me started. Will post tryouts here... And here comes the code so far, the Test obviously fails... public class KeyModifierSet { private readonly List<Key> _keys = new List<Key>(); private readonly List<ModifierKeys> _modifierKeys = new List<ModifierKeys>(); private static readonly Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action> _testDict = new Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action>(); public static void Test() { _testDict.Add(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A), () => Debug.WriteLine("nothing")); if (!_testDict.ContainsKey(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A))) throw new Exception("Not done yet, help :-)"); } public KeyModifierSet(IEnumerable<Key> keys, IEnumerable<ModifierKeys> modifierKeys) { foreach (var key in keys) _keys.Add(key); foreach (var key in modifierKeys) _modifierKeys.Add(key); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key, ModifierKeys modifierKey) { _keys.Add(key); _modifierKeys.Add(modifierKey); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key) { _keys.Add(key); } }

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• How to Configure SSL over Database in Spring?

  - by Sameer Malhotra

  Hi, I want to add SSL security in the Database layer. I am using Struts2.1.6, Spring 2.5, JBOSS 5.0 and Informix 11.5. Any idea how to do this? I have researched through a lot on the internet but could not find any solution. Please suggest! Here is my datasource and entity manager beans which is working perfect without SSL: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="database" value="INFORMIX" /> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:informix-sqli://SERVER_NAME:9088/DB_NAME:INFORMIXSERVER=SERVER_NAME;DELIMIDENT=y;" /> <property name="username" value="username" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="minIdle" value="2" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean" lazy-init="false"> <property name="targetObject" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="targetMethod" value="addConnectionProperty" /> <property name="arguments"> <list> <value>characterEncoding</value> <value>UTF-8</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" scope="prototype"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" />

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• _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

  - by Stefan Hubert

  I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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• How to get this Qt state machine to work?

  - by Ton van den Heuvel

  I have two widgets that can be checked, and a numeric entry field that should contain a value greater than zero. Whenever both widgets have been checked, and the numeric entry field contains a value greater than zero, a button should be enabled. I am struggling with defining a proper state machine for this situation. So far I have the following: QStateMachine *machine = new QStateMachine(this); QState *buttonDisabled = new QState(QState::ParallelStates); buttonDisabled->assignProperty(ui_->button, "enabled", false); QState *a = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *aUnchecked = new QState(a); QFinalState *aChecked = new QFinalState(a); aUnchecked->addTransition(wa, SIGNAL(checked()), aChecked); a->setInitialState(aUnchecked); QState *b = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *bUnchecked = new QState(b); QFinalState *bChecked = new QFinalState(b); employeeUnchecked->addTransition(wb, SIGNAL(checked()), bChecked); b->setInitialState(bUnchecked); QState *weight = new QState(registerButtonDisabled); QState *weightZero = new QState(weight); QFinalState *weightGreaterThanZero = new QFinalState(weight); weightZero->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(validWeight()), weightGreaterThanZero); weight->setInitialState(weightZero); QState *buttonEnabled = new QState(); buttonEnabled->assignProperty(ui_->registerButton, "enabled", true); buttonDisabled->addTransition(buttonDisabled, SIGNAL(finished()), buttonEnabled); buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); machine->addState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->addState(registerButtonEnabled); machine->setInitialState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->start(); The problem here is that the following transition: buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); causes all the child states in the registerButtonDisabled state to be reverted to their initial state. This is unwanted behaviour, as I want the a and b states to remain in the same state. How do I prevent this?

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• Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

  - by davidhong

  I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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• Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

  - by Chris Knight

  OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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• Hibernate + Spring : cascade deletion ignoring non-nullable constraints

  - by E.Benoît

  Hello, I seem to be having one weird problem with some Hibernate data classes. In a very specific case, deleting an object should fail due to existing, non-nullable relations - however it does not. The strangest part is that a few other classes related to the same definition behave appropriately. I'm using HSQLDB 1.8.0.10, Hibernate 3.5.0 (final) and Spring 3.0.2. The Hibernate properties are set so that batch updates are disabled. The class whose instances are being deleted is: @Entity( name = "users.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "credentials" , schema = "users" ) public class Credentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /* Some basic fields here */ /** Administrator credentials, if any */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public AdminCredentials adminCredentials; /** Active account data */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public Account activeAccount; /* Some more reverse relations here */ } (ModelBase is a class that simply declares a Long field named "id" as being automatically generated) The Account class, which is one for which constraints work, looks like this: @Entity( name = "users.Account" ) @Table( name = "accounts" , schema = "users" ) public class Account extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials the account is linked to */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } And here is the AdminCredentials class, for which the constraints are ignored. @Entity( name = "admin.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "admin_credentials" , schema = "admin" ) public class AdminCredentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials linked with an administrative account */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } The code that attempts to delete the Credentials instances is: try { if ( account.validationKey != null ) { this.hTemplate.delete( account.validationKey ); } this.hTemplate.delete( account.languageSetting ); this.hTemplate.delete( account ); } catch ( DataIntegrityViolationException e ) { return false; } Where hTemplate is a HibernateTemplate instance provided by Spring, its flush mode having been set to EAGER. In the conditions shown above, the deletion will fail if there is an Account instance that refers to the Credentials instance being deleted, which is the expected behaviour. However, an AdminCredentials instance will be ignored, the deletion will succeed, leaving an invalid AdminCredentials instance behind (trying to refresh that instance causes an error because the Credentials instance no longer exists). I have tried moving the AdminCredentials table from the admin DB schema to the users DB schema. Strangely enough, a deletion-related error is then triggered, but not in the deletion code - it is triggered at the next query involving the table, seemingly ignoring the flush mode setting. I've been trying to understand this for hours and I must admit I'm just as clueless now as I was then.

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• Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

  - by Alexander

  I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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• Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

  - by ndg

  I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but falls down when editing multiple rows. The behaviour I'm seeing is that editing a row will work as expected until you try to edit another row. Upon editing another row, all previously edited rows will have their "desc" value set to the value of the currently selected row. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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