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  • Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

    - by Chris Knight
    OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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  • Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but falls down when editing multiple rows. The behaviour I'm seeing is that editing a row will work as expected until you try to edit another row. Upon editing another row, all previously edited rows will have their "desc" value set to the value of the currently selected row. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Supplying a callback to Jeditable

    - by pjmorse
    Summary: When I try supplying a onsubmit or onreset callback to Jeditable, I get Object [function] has no method 'apply' errors. How I got here: I've been working on a rails plugin to supply Jeditable and jWYSIWYG for in-place WYSIWYG editing. Development is driven by a Rails project I'm working on which asks for specific functions. One of the options I added was the ability to trigger Jeditable's edit mode using a button instead of clicking on the editable text itself, following the pattern suggested in this answer. The next step, though, is to hide the button while in edit mode, and reveal it again when leaving edit mode. The hide is easy enough; I just added a line to the triggering function which sends .toggle() to the button. Reveal is trickier. I figure I need to .toggle() again on submit or cancel, and helpfully, Jeditable offers onsubmit and onreset callbacks. However, when I try using those callbacks, I get this Object [something] has no method 'apply' errors. What I'm trying: Because this is in the context of a Rails helper, the actual mechanics are a little more involved than this, but the upshot is that I'm trying to follow this pattern, handing Jeditable this in the args: "onsubmit":"showTrigger", and then including this script: function showTrigger(settings, original) { $(".edit_trigger[id='element_id']").toggle(); } However, on submitting changes or canceling an edit, I get the error Object showTrigger has no method 'apply' ...as described above. I also tried sending in a function directly as the "onsubmit" argument (i.e. "onsubmit": "function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();}" and then I just get Object function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();} has no method 'apply' instead. There must be something wrong with how I'm handing in this callback. Any ideas? ETA: This answer suggests to me that somehow I'm providing a string to Jeditable when it expects a function instead. However, because I'm working within the context of a Rails helper, I'm not at all sure how to fix that - the "showTrigger" bit is set as a Ruby variable in the helper, and although window.showTrigger() is defined when the window is loaded, I don't know how to designate that function within a Ruby variable such that it will be recognized as a function at page load time.

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  • NHibernate Mapping problem

    - by Bernard Larouche
    My database is being driven by my NHibernate mapping files. I have a Category class that looks like the following : public class Category { public Category() : this("") { } public Category(string name) { Name = name; SubCategories = new List<Category>(); Products = new HashSet<Product>(); } public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Category Parent { get; set; } public virtual bool IsDefault { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Category> SubCategories { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Product> Products { get; set; } and here is my Mapping file : <property name="Name" column="Name" type="string" not-null="true"/> <property name="IsDefault" column="IsDefault" type="boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="string" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Parent" column="ParentID"></many-to-one> <bag name="SubCategories" inverse="true"> <key column="ParentID"></key> <one-to-many class="Category"/> </bag> <set name="Products" table="Categories_Products"> <key column="CategoryId"></key> <many-to-many column="ProductId" class="Product"></many-to-many> </set> when I try to create the database I get the following error : failed: The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint "FK9AD976763BF05E2A". The conflict occurred in database "CoderForTraders", table "dbo.Categories", column 'CategoryId'. The statement has been terminated. I looked on the net for some answers but found none. Thanks for your help

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  • Annoying Captcha >> How to programm a form that can SMELL difference between human and robot?

    - by Sam
    Hi folks. On the comment of my old form needing a CAPTHA, I felt I share my problem, perhaps you recognize it and find its time we had better solutions: FACTUAL PROBLEM I know most of my clients (typical age= 40~60) hate CAPTCHA things. Now, I myself always feel like a robot, when I have to sueeze my eyes and fill in the strange letters from the Capcha... Sometimes I fail! Go back etc. Turnoff. I mean comon its 2011, shouldnt the forms have better A.I. by now? MY NEW IDEA (please dont laugh) Ive thought about it and this is my idea's to tell difference between human and robot: My idea is to give credibility points. 100 points = human 0% = robot. require real human mouse movements require mousemovements that dont follow any mathematical pattern require non-instantaneous reading delays, between load and first input in form when typing in form, delays are measured between letters and words approve as human when typical human behaviour measured (deleting, rephrasing etc) dont allow instant pasting or all fields give points for real keyboard pressures retract points for credibility when hyperlinks in form Test wether fake email field (invisible by human) is populated (suggested by Tomalak) when more than 75% human cretibility, allow to be sent without captcha when less than 25% human crecibility, force captcha puzzle to be sure Could we write a A.I. PHP that replaces the human-annoying capthas, meanwhile stopping most spamservers filing in the data? Not only for the fun of it, but also actually to provide a 99% better alternative than CAPTHCA's. Imagine the userfriendlyness of your forms! Your site distinguishing itself from others, showing your audience your sites KNOWS the difference between a robot and a human. Imagine the advangage. I am trying to capture the essense of that distinguishing edge. PROGRAMMING QUESTION: 1) Are such things possible to programm? 2) If so how would you start such programm? 3) Are there already very good working solutions available elsewhere? 4) If it isn't so hard, your are welcome to share your answer/solutions below. 5) upon completion of hints and new ideas, could this page be the start of a new AI captcha, OR should I forget about it and just go with the flow, forget about the whole AI dream, and use captcha like everyone else.

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  • References between Spring beans when using a NameSpaceHandler

    - by teabot
    I'm trying to use a Spring context namespace to build some existing configuration objects in an application. I have defined a context and pretty much have if working satisfactorily - however, I'd like one bean defined by my namespace to implicitly reference another: Consider the class named 'Node': public Class Node { private String aField; private Node nextNode; public Node(String aField, Node nextNode) { ... } Now in my Spring context I have something like so: <myns:container> <myns:node aField="nodeOne"/> <myns:node aField="nodeTwo"/> </myns:container> Now I'd like nodeOne.getNode() == nodeTwo to be true. So that nodeOne.getNode() and nodeTwo refer to the same bean instance. These are pretty much the relevant parts I have in my AbstractBeanDefinitionParser: public AbstractBeanDefinition parseInternal(Element element, ParserContext parserContext) { ... BeanDefinitionBuilder containerFactory = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(ContainerFactoryBean.class); List<BeanDefinition> containerNodes = Lists.newArrayList(); String previousNodeBeanName; // iterate backwards over the 'node' elements for (int i = nodeElements.size() - 1; i >= 0; --i) { BeanDefinitionBuilder node = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(Node.class); node.setScope(BeanDefinition.SCOPE_SINGLETON); String nodeField = nodeElements.getAttribute("aField"); node.addConstructorArgValue(nodeField); if (previousNodeBeanName != null) { node.addConstructorArgValue(new RuntimeBeanReference(previousNodeBeanName)); } else { node.addConstructorArgValue(null); } BeanDefinition nodeDefinition = node.getBeanDefinition(); previousNodeBeanName = "inner-node-" + nodeField; parserContext.getRegistry().registerBeanDefinition(previousNodeBeanName, nodeDefinition); containerNodes.add(node); } containerFactory.addPropertyValue("nodes", containerNodes); } When the application context is created my Node instances are created and recognized as singletons. Furthermore, the nextNode property is populated with a Node instance with the previous nodes configuration - however, it isn't the same instance. If I output a log message in Node's constructor I see two instances created for each node bean definition. I can think of a few workarounds myself but I'm keen to use the existing model. So can anyone tell me how I can pass these runtime bean references so that I get the correct singleton behaviour for my Node instances?

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  • Should I deal with files longer than MAX_PATH?

    - by John
    Just had an interesting case. My software reported back a failure caused by a path being longer than MAX_PATH. The path was just a plain old document in My Documents, e.g.: C:\Documents and Settings\Bill\Some Stupid FOlder Name\A really ridiculously long file thats really very very very..........very long.pdf Total length 269 characters (MAX_PATH==260). The user wasn't using a external hard drive or anything like that. This was a file on an Windows managed drive. So my question is this. Should I care? I'm not saying can I deal with the long paths, I'm asking should I. Yes I'm aware of the "\?\" unicode hack on some Win32 APIs, but it seems this hack is not without risk (as it's changing the behaviour of the way the APIs parse paths) and also isn't supported by all APIs . So anyway, let me just state my position/assertions: First presumably the only way the user was able to break this limit is if the app she used uses the special Unicode hack. It's a PDF file, so maybe the PDF tool she used uses this hack. I tried to reproduce this (by using the unicode hack) and experimented. What I found was that although the file appears in Explorer, I can do nothing with it. I can't open it, I can't choose "Properties" (Windows 7). Other common apps can't open the file (e.g. IE, Firefox, Notepad). Explorer will also not let me create files/dirs which are too long - it just refuses. Ditto for command line tool cmd.exe. So basically, one could look at it this way: a rouge tool has allowed the user to create a file which is not accessible by a lot of Windows (e.g. Explorer). I could take the view that I shouldn't have to deal with this. (As an aside, this isn't an vote of approval for a short max path length: I think 260 chars is a joke, I'm just saying that if Windows shell and some APIs can't handle 260 then why should I?). So, is this a fair view? Should I say "Not my problem"? Thanks! John

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  • Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

    - by Alexander
    I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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  • Read email from incoming mail server(POP)

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, I have used an open source code from codeproject to read email from incoming mail server(POP Server). The code can be found at following location: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/IP/Pop3MimeClient.aspx So far it works fine i can read emails. My objective of using this code was to retrieve emails from POP server and process them. My problem is: If i use gmails pop server "pop.gmail.com" and run the appplication. I get only those emails that i have not retrieved since the last time i run the application. but if i use my clients pop server everytime i run the application i get all the emails in the pop server. for example: If i use gmail pop server: pop.gmail.com I have three emails in the pop server. I haven't run the application. I am running the application for the first time. Application reads the email, this time i will get 3 all the three email. I run the application second time, my application will not read any emails this time because i have already read the 3 existing one. This is fine, this is what i want. Now i send email to pop.gmail.com. I run the application again for the third time, this time i will only get the email that has just arrived that is the fourth one. This is good behaviour, this is what i want. But if i use my clients pop server: No matter how many times i run the application, it reads all the emails in the mail box. This will create problem for me, because i am thinking of building a window service that will read emails from pop server and process them. This service will run continuously. I will process emails in the pop serve then sleep for let's say 1 minute and the process the emails again. If the application downloaded from codeproject reads all the emails all the time, my clients mailbox can have like thousands for email in this mail box, so this would not be feasible for me. Is there some settings that is to be made at my client's pop server that will allow my application to retrieve only those emails that i have not read since last time i run the service or any help Please help, thanks,

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  • .NET JIT Code Cache leaking?

    - by pitchfork
    We have a server component written in .Net 3.5. It runs as service on a Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition. It works great but after some time (days) we notice massive slowdowns and an increased working set. We expected some kind of memory leak and used WinDBG/SOS to analyze dumps of the process. Unfortunately the GC Heap doesn’t show any leak but we noticed that the JIT code heap has grown from 8MB after the start to more than 1GB after a few days. We don’t use any dynamic code generation techniques by our own. We use Linq2SQL which is known for dynamic code generation but we don’t know if it can cause such a problem. The main question is if there is any technique to analyze the dump and check where all this Host Code Heap blocks that are shown in the WinDBG dumps come from? [Update] In the mean time we did some more analysis and had Linq2SQL as probable suspect, especially since we do not use precompiled queries. The following example program creates exactly the same behaviour where more and more Host Code Heap blocks are created over time. using System; using System.Linq; using System.Threading; namespace LinqStressTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { for (int i = 0; i < 100; ++ i) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); while(runs < 1000000) { Thread.Sleep(5000); } } static void Worker(object state) { for (int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { using (var ctx = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { long id = rnd.Next(); var x = ctx.AccountNucleusInfos.Where(an => an.Account.SimPlayers.First().Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } var localruns = Interlocked.Add(ref runs, 1); System.Console.WriteLine("Action: " + localruns); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); } static Random rnd = new Random(); static long runs = 0; } } When we replace the Linq query with a precompiled one, the problem seems to disappear.

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  • gcc/g++: error when compiling large file

    - by Alexander
    Hi, I have a auto-generated C++ source file, around 40 MB in size. It largely consists of push_back commands for some vectors and string constants that shall be pushed. When I try to compile this file, g++ exits and says that it couldn't reserve enough virtual memory (around 3 GB). Googling this problem, I found that using the command line switches --param ggc-min-expand=0 --param ggc-min-heapsize=4096 may solve the problem. They, however, only seem to work when optimization is turned on. 1) Is this really the solution that I am looking for? 2) Or is there a faster, better (compiling takes ages with these options acitvated) way to do this? Best wishes, Alexander Update: Thanks for all the good ideas. I tried most of them. Using an array instead of several push_back() operations reduced memory usage, but as the file that I was trying to compile was so big, it still crashed, only later. In a way, this behaviour is really interesting, as there is not much to optimize in such a setting -- what does the GCC do behind the scenes that costs so much memory? (I compiled with deactivating all optimizations as well and got the same results) The solution that I switched to now is reading in the original data from a binary object file that I created from the original file using objcopy. This is what I originally did not want to do, because creating the data structures in a higher-level language (in this case Perl) was more convenient than having to do this in C++. However, getting this running under Win32 was more complicated than expected. objcopy seems to generate files in the ELF format, and it seems that some of the problems I had disappeared when I manually set the output format to pe-i386. The symbols in the object file are by standard named after the file name, e.g. converting the file inbuilt_training_data.bin would result in these two symbols: binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start and binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_end. I found some tutorials on the web which claim that these symbols should be declared as extern char _binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start;, but this does not seem to be right -- only extern char binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start; worked for me.

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  • Nservicebus serization issue of derived types

    - by Tiju John
    Hi Guys, for the context setting, I am exchanging messages between my nServiceBus client and nSerivceBus server. its is the namespace xyz.Messages and and a class, Message : IMessage I have more messages that are in the other dlls, like xyz.Messages.Domain1, xyz.Messages.Domain2, xyz.Messages.Domain3. and messages that derive form that base message, Message. I have the endpoints defined as like : at client <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> at Server <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> and the bus initialized as IBus serviceBus = Configure.With() .SpringBuilder() .XmlSerializer() .MsmqTransport() .UnicastBus() .LoadMessageHandlers() .CreateBus() .Start(); now when i try sending instance of Message type or any type derived types of Message, it successfully sends the message over and at the server, i get the proper type. eg. Message message= new Message(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers Message type message = new MessageDerived1(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived1 type message = new MessageDerived2(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived2 type My problem arises when any type, say MessageDerived1, contains a member variable of type Message, and when i assign it to a derived type, the type is not properly transferred over the wire. It transfers only as Message type, not the derived type. public class MessageDerived2 : Message { public Message message; } MessageDerived2 messageDerived2= new MessageDerived2(); messageDerived2.message = new MessageDerived1(); message = messageDerived2; Bus.Send(message); // incorrect behaviour, transfers MessageDerived2 correctly, but looses type of MessageDerived2.Message (it deserializes as Message type, instead of MessageDerived1) any help is strongly appreciated. Thanks TJ

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  • Delaying emails in PHP to avoid exceeding server limit

    - by Andrew P.
    Okay, so here's my problem: I have a list of members on a website, and periodically one of the admins my site (who are not very web or tech savvy) will send a newsletter to the memberlist. My current memberlist is well over 800 individuals long. So, I wrote an email script that sends the email to the full memberlist, with the members listed in the Bcc header. However, I've discovered that my host server has a limit of 300 emails per hour, which I apparently exceed even though the members are listed in the Bcc field. (I wasn't previously aware that the behaviour of Bcc was to send separate emails for each name on the list...) After some thought, I've come to the conclusion that my only solution is to have my script send only the email to only the first 300 emails, wait an hour, and send a second email to the next three hundred, wait another hour, and so on until I've sent the email to the whole member list. Looking around on the internet, I've seen some other solutions people have come up with for delaying emails in PHP. Sleep() is obviously not an option, because I can't just leave the script open and running for 3 or four hours. I've seen some people suggest cron jobs, but I'm not sure how feasible it would be to create three new cron jobs every time I send an email, use them once, and then delete them afterward. The final (and what I think is the smartest) solution I've seen, is to have a table in my database to temporarily store the emails to be delayed and sent later, and then create a cron job that checks this sql table every hour or so, compares the timestamp of the row to the current timestamp, and then sends the email if an hour has passed. So I'm asking you all which method you would recommend. Is there an easier solution that I've completely looked over (aside from getting a different hosting plan. ha!), or is there a cleaner way to do it than the database / cron job approach? tl;dr: I have 800 emails to send in an hour on a server that limits me to 300/hr. Using PHP, find a way to get around this problem in a way that the person sending the email needs only to click "send."

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  • Raphael Scope Drag n drop multiple paper instances

    - by donald
    I have two Raphael paper instances. In both I want to drag and drop an element (circle). It is important for me to assign both these circles the same id. I expected no problem, as both are in different paper instances and therefore in different scope. What happens is, that somehow both elements react, when I have clicked both elements at least once. If I however give these elements different IDs everything works fine (each element only calls its "start", "drag" and "up" function if draged around). Is this intended behaviour of Raphael and do I have to assign different IDs to the elements in the different paper instances? Hopefully not and you can point me to the right direction :-) Thanks a lot for your Help in advance, Here comes the code: <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>DragNDrop</title> <script src="raphael-min.js"></script> </head> <body> <h1>Paper1</h1> <div id="divPaper1" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <h1>Paper2</h1> <div id="divPaper2" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <script> start1 = function () { console.log("start1"); } drag1 = function () { console.log("move1"); } up1 = function () { console.log("up1"); } start2 = function () { console.log("start2"); } drag2 = function () { console.log("move2"); } up2 = function () { console.log("up2"); } var paper1 = Raphael("divPaper1", "100%", "100%"); var circle1 = paper1.circle(40, 40, 30); circle1.attr("fill", "yellow"); circle1.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle1.drag(drag1, start1, up1); paper2 = Raphael("divPaper2", "100%", "100%"); var circle2 = paper2.circle(40, 40, 30); circle2.attr("fill", "red"); circle2.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle2.drag(drag2, start2, up2); </script> </body>

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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • OpenGL suppresses exceptions in MFC dialog-based application

    - by Mikhail
    Hello. I have an MFC-driven dialog-based application created with MSVS2005. Here is my problem step by step. I have button on my dialog and corresponding click-handler with code like this: int* i = 0; *i = 3; I'm running debug version of program and when I click on the button, Visual Studio catches focus and alerts "Access violation writing location" exception, program cannot recover from the error and all I can do is to stop debugging. And this is the right behavior. Now I add some OpenGL initialization code in the OnInitDialog() method: HDC DC = GetDC(GetSafeHwnd()); static PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR pfd = { sizeof(PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR), // size of this pfd 1, // version number PFD_DRAW_TO_WINDOW | // support window PFD_SUPPORT_OPENGL | // support OpenGL PFD_DOUBLEBUFFER, // double buffered PFD_TYPE_RGBA, // RGBA type 24, // 24-bit color depth 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, // color bits ignored 0, // no alpha buffer 0, // shift bit ignored 0, // no accumulation buffer 0, 0, 0, 0, // accum bits ignored 32, // 32-bit z-buffer 0, // no stencil buffer 0, // no auxiliary buffer PFD_MAIN_PLANE, // main layer 0, // reserved 0, 0, 0 // layer masks ignored }; int pixelformat = ChoosePixelFormat(DC, &pfd); SetPixelFormat(DC, pixelformat, &pfd); HGLRC hrc = wglCreateContext(DC); ASSERT(hrc != NULL); wglMakeCurrent(DC, hrc); Of course this is not exactly what I do, it is the simplified version of my code. Well now the strange things begin to happen: all initialization is fine, there are no errors in OnInitDialog(), but when I click the button... no exception is thrown. Nothing happens. At all. If I set a break-point at the *i = 3; and press F11 on it, the handler-function halts immediately and focus is returned to the application, which continue to work well. I can click button again and the same thing will happen. It seems like someone had handled occurred exception of access violation and silently returned execution into main application message-receiving cycle. If I comment the line wglMakeCurrent(DC, hrc);, all works fine as before, exception is thrown and Visual Studio catches it and shows window with error message and program must be terminated afterwards. I experience this problem under Windows 7 64-bit, NVIDIA GeForce 8800 with latest drivers (of 11.01.2010) available at website installed. My colleague has Windows Vista 32-bit and has no such problem - exception is thrown and application crashes in both cases. Well, hope good guys will help me :) PS The problem originally where posted under this topic.

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  • Python constructor does weird things with optional parameters

    - by christangrant
    Can you help me understand of the behaviour and implications of the python __init__ constructor. It seems like when there is an optional parameter and you try and set an existing object to a new object the optional value of the existing object is preserved and copied. Ok that was confusing... so look at an example I concocted below. In the code below I am trying to make a tree structure with nodes and possibly many children . In the first class NodeBad, the constructor has two parameters, the value and any possible children. The second class NodeGood only takes the value of the node as a parameter. Both have an addchild method to add a child to a node. When creating a tree with the NodeGood class, it works as expected. However, when doing the same thing with the NodeBad class, it seems as though a child can only be added once! The code below will result in the following output: Good Tree 1 2 3 [< 3 >] Bad Tree 1 2 2 [< 2 >, < 3 >] Que Pasa? Here is the Example: #!/usr/bin/python class NodeBad: def __init__(self, value, c=[]): self.value = value self.children = c def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value class NodeGood: def __init__(self, value): self.value = value self.children = [] def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value if __name__ == '__main__': print 'Good Tree' ng = NodeGood(1) # Root Node rootgood = ng ng.addchild(NodeGood(2)) # 1nd Child ng = ng.children[0] ng.addchild(NodeGood(3)) # 2nd Child print rootgood.value print rootgood.children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children print 'Bad Tree' nb = NodeBad(1) # Root Node rootbad = nb nb.addchild(NodeBad(2)) # 1st Child nb = nb.children[0] nb.addchild(NodeBad(3)) # 2nd Child print rootbad.value print rootbad.children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children

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  • Seeding repository Rhino Mocks

    - by ahsteele
    I am embarking upon my first journey of test driven development in C#. To get started I'm using MSTest and Rhino.Mocks. I am attempting to write my first unit tests against my ICustomerRepository. It seems tedious to new up a Customer for each test method. In ruby-on-rails I'd create a seed file and load the customer for each test. It seems logical that I could put this boiler plate Customer into a property of the test class but then I would run the risk of it being modified. What are my options for simplifying this code? [TestMethod] public class CustomerTests : TestClassBase { [TestMethod] public void CanGetCustomerById() { // arrange var customer = new Customer() { CustId = 5, DifId = "55", CustLookupName = "The Dude", LoginList = new[] { new Login { LoginCustId = 5, LoginName = "tdude" } } }; var repository = Stub<ICustomerRepository>(); // act repository.Stub(rep => rep.GetById(5)).Return(customer); // assert Assert.AreEqual(customer, repository.GetById(5)); } [TestMethod] public void CanGetCustomerByDifId() { // arrange var customer = new Customer() { CustId = 5, DifId = "55", CustLookupName = "The Dude", LoginList = new[] { new Login { LoginCustId = 5, LoginName = "tdude" } } }; var repository = Stub<ICustomerRepository>(); // act repository.Stub(rep => rep.GetCustomerByDifID("55")).Return(customer); // assert Assert.AreEqual(customer, repository.GetCustomerByDifID("55")); } [TestMethod] public void CanGetCustomerByLogin() { // arrange var customer = new Customer() { CustId = 5, DifId = "55", CustLookupName = "The Dude", LoginList = new[] { new Login { LoginCustId = 5, LoginName = "tdude" } } }; var repository = Stub<ICustomerRepository>(); // act repository.Stub(rep => rep.GetCustomerByLogin("tdude")).Return(customer); // assert Assert.AreEqual(customer, repository.GetCustomerByLogin("tdude")); } } Test Base Class public class TestClassBase { protected T Stub<T>() where T : class { return MockRepository.GenerateStub<T>(); } } ICustomerRepository and IRepository public interface ICustomerRepository : IRepository<Customer> { IList<Customer> FindCustomers(string q); Customer GetCustomerByDifID(string difId); Customer GetCustomerByLogin(string loginName); } public interface IRepository<T> { void Save(T entity); void Save(List<T> entity); bool Save(T entity, out string message); void Delete(T entity); T GetById(int id); ICollection<T> FindAll(); }

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  • Zaypay alternatives for payments using call or sms

    - by JohannesH
    We are currently trying to implement a payment provider in zaypay for paying for services using sms or by calling a number. We already have google checkout and paypal working for regular payments but zaypay is rather inflexible, poorly documented and a pain to setup when you have hundreds of products with varying prices. So my question is, do you know of any other european payment providers that take sms and call payments? As a response to Roberts answer/question Hi Robert, I must say that the Zaypay solution is the best and only I've seen thus far regarding phoned payments. However, since its now 2 months ago I finished the implementation of our custom Zaypay UI I can't remember much of the the details of the problems we were having. I'll try to give a brief of them anyways the best I can. First of all I would like to see a redirection type scenario for payalogues. From what I remember you guys are using the JS framework "Prototype" which doesn't play nice with jQuery which we are using so we weren't able to use the popup-type scenario supported by payalogues. Furthermore when implementing our custom interface I remember a lot of missing translations, like words that were codes instead of a word or a phrase. This meant we ended up writing/translating all the messages we needed ourselves. Also, another point of annoyance was the setup of prices and items. I wish we could just send in the order items/prices as a part of the interface like you can in Google Checkout or PayPal (not that they're flawless either), instead of having to define ALL the items you will ever sell through your admin interface beforehand. As far as I can remember it is virtually impossible to use Zaypay for a multi-item order in its current form. Finally there are, as far as I can tell, some security issues that you have to think about when you implement a custom solution... especially a ajax driven one. As I said in my original post you do mention this in the documentation but I believe the documentation wasn't that comprehensive regarding security issues. Again I wish I could give more details but the code & client is long since gone, so I can't look up the comments I wrote. Sorry! Oh yeah, the general API documentation weren't exactly comprehensive and 100% correct either. Again, I don't want to advice people against using Zaypay, I just want to advice that they should try it out first on a realistic prototype and think about their implementation before releasing to production. Maybe its just me who misunderstood a lot of things but I generally had a difficult time using your framework and I was left with a feeling that the API was very new and not thought through from the beginning.

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  • Java getInputStreat SocketTimeoutException instead of NoRouteToHostException

    - by Jon
    I have an odd issue happening when trying to open multiple Input Streams (in separate threads) on Linux (RHEL). The behaviour works as expected on windows. I am kicking off 3 threads to open https connections to 3 different servers. All three are invalid IP addresses (in this test case), so I expect an NoRouteToHostException for each of them. The first two return these as expected, and quite quickly. (see stack trace below) However the third (and 4th when I tested it that way) do NOT give a no route exception. They wait for ages, and then give a SocketTimeoutException (see other stack trace below). This takes ages to come back, and does not accurately express the connection issue. The offending line of code is: reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); Has anyone seen something like this before? Are there multi-threading issues with sockets on REHL or some limit somewhere to how many can connect at once...or...something? Expected stack trace, as received for first two: java.net.NoRouteToHostException: No route to host at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234) Unexpected stack trace, as received on 3rd: java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234)

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  • Issues loading Jquery (Galleria) script from inside an i-frame (beginner javascript?)

    - by 103188530284789248582
    Hello, first of all - I'm not entirely new to javascript, but am not fluent in it as I am with html and css, and am especially new to jQuery... so please excuse me if this questions seems easy or obvious, but after days of google I still have no solution to the problem... using jQuery 1.4.2.min, jQuery-ui-1.8.1 .... the site in question: http://homecapture.ca/sets/project_index.html The scenario: I have a tabbed menu generated from an unordered list, when a menu item is clicked it reveals an iframe which links to the page containing an image gallery. I am using jQuery UI tabs for the tabbed menu, and the galleries to which I'm linking are jQuery Galleria pages, automatically generated with Jalbum. The problem: The galleria plug-in only works normally from inside of the containing iframe in Chrome, has inconsistent behaviour in IE8 (seems to work in my local copy, but won't load properly online), and is not loaded properly in Firefox. Instead of displaying a thumbnail area and the first large image, the Galleria page shows the first thumbnail only, then when it is clicked the image it links to, but if you right-click and go Back, the iframe content shows up as a properly rendered Galleria page. Jalbum generates more script in the < head of the page in addition to linking to jquery and the galleria plug-in. All of it seems to be in charge of the gallery navigation , and I have relocated it to the < body of the page, in an effort to make it load after the parent page scripts, and together with the gallery content. At this point I am not sure what else I could do to solve the problem, without digging around in all or some of the library and pluging .js files (which I am not knowledgeable enough to do without some pointers). Has anyone dealt with a similar issue? I'm seeing some solutions for manipulating iframe content from a parent page with jQuery on here, is that what I should be researching instead? Thanks in advance for all the help! ps. I tried posting some code, but it seems I do not have enough 'reputation' for things to work right on here either :)

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  • Accessing Content Page elements

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I am facing a strange problem.. may be i am overlooking something and not able to find the silly issue. Need your help! I have a Master page and a Content Page: <form id="AccountForm" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MenuHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <hr /> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> And my content page has some form elements: <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> First Name: <asp:TextBox ID="fName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Middle Name: <asp:TextBox ID="mName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Family Name: <asp:TextBox ID="lName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Birthday: <asp:TextBox ID="birthday" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Mobile Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="mobile" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Alternate Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="phone" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> I also have the code for submit button in the content page where i try to retrieve the values from the form elements and persist it into DB. Here is the SubmitButton_Click code: protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { log.Info("From Submit button: " + customerObject.first_name + " " + customerObject.family_name); if (fName != null) log.Info("First Name is not null"); log.Info("First Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Middle Name:" + mName.Text); log.Info("Family Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Mobile:" + mobile.Text); log.Info("Phone: " + phone.Text); log.Info("Address:" + bAddressL1.Text + bAddressL2.Text); Strangly.. i don't get any data that is filled into my text fields? Their objects are not null as well!! why is this behaviour happening? I am not trying to access elements in master page or other.. all the fields are in the content page.. only thing is there is no form element in the content page and the form element is in master page! Thanks in advance for your suggestions and answers. Abdel Raoof Olakara

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  • Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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  • dynamiclly schedule a lead sales agent

    - by Josh
    I have a website that I'm trying to migrate from classic asp to asp.net. It had a lead schedule, where each sales agent would be featured for the current day, or part of the day.The next day a new agent would be scheduled. It was driven off a database table that had a row for each day in it. So to figure out if a sales agent would show on a day, it was easy, just find today's date in the table. Problem was it ran out rows, and you had to run a script to update the lead days 6 months at a time. Plus if there was ever any change to the schedule, you had to delete all the rows and re-run the script. So I'm trying to code it where sql server figures that out for me, and no script has to be ran. I have a table like so CREATE TABLE [dbo].[LeadSchedule]( [leadid] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NOT NULL, [sunday] [bit] NOT NULL, [monday] [bit] NOT NULL, [tuesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [wednesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [thursday] [bit] NOT NULL, [friday] [bit] NOT NULL, [saturday] [bit] NOT NULL, [StartDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [EndDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [StartTime] [time](0) NULL, [EndTime] [time](0) NULL, [order] [int] NULL, So the user can schedule a sales agent depending on their work schedule. Also if they wanted to they could split certain days, or sales agents by time, So from Midnight to 4 it was one agent, from 4-midnight it was another. So far I've tried using a numbers table, row numbers, goofy date math, and I'm at a loss. Any suggestions on how to handle this purely from sql code? If it helps, the table should always be small, like less than 20 never over 100. update After a few hours all I've managed to come up with is the below. It doesn't handle filling in days not available or times, just rotates through all the sales agents with leadTable as ( select leadid,userid,[order],StartDate, case DATEPART(dw,getdate()) when 1 then sunday when 2 then monday when 3 then tuesday when 4 then wednesday when 5 then thursday when 6 then friday when 7 then saturday end as DayAvailable , ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [order] ASC) AS ROWID from LeadSchedule where GETDATE()>=StartDate and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())>= StartTime or StartTime is null) and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())<= EndTime or EndTime is null) ) select userid, DATEADD(d,(number+ROWID-2)*totalUsers,startdate ) leadday from (select *, (select COUNT(1) from leadTable) totalUsers from leadTable inner join Numbers on 1=1 where DayAvailable =1 ) tb1 order by leadday asc

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  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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