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  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • What do these errors mean? ISOC++ forbids assignment of arrays...

    - by xunlinkx
    I'm trying to compile some code on one of our systems for our DBA...I've edited the makefiles to include the pertinent libraries listed in the documentation, but I keep getting these errors... Can you discern any obvious problems from my command lines in reference to the errors listed? Thank you! make -f /u01/app/banner/ban8/TEST3/links/Makefile_tm_linux64_redhat5_ban8.mk gcc -m64 -D_NOFIXARGPTR -fpic -shared -DTMCILIB_EXPORTS -D_TMUNICODE -I/usr/local/ban_icu -I/usr/local/src/icu/source/i18n/ -I/usr/local/src/icu/source/common/ -I/usr/local/src/icu/source/extra/ustdio/ -I/usr/local/src/icu/source/io -L/usr/lib64 -L/usr/lib -L/usr/local/src/icu/source/data/ -L/usr/local/src/icu/source/data/out/ -L/usr/local/src/icu/source/tools/toolutil/ -L/usr/lib/im/icuconv/ -L/usr/local/lib/ -L. -licui18n -licudata -licuuc -licu-toolutil -licuio msgfmttm.cpp umsgtm.cpp tmcilib.cpp -o /u01/app/banner/ban8/TEST3/general/exe/libtmciuc.so umsgtm.cpp: In function ‘void fixArgPtr(const UChar*, __va_list_tag (*)[1])’: umsgtm.cpp:158: error: array must be initialized with a brace-enclosed initializer umsgtm.cpp:194: error: ISO C++ forbids assignment of arrays umsgtm.cpp: In function ‘int32_t tmumsg_vformat(void*, UChar, int32_t, __va_list_tag*, UErrorCode*)’: umsgtm.cpp:305: error: cannot convert ‘__va_list_tag**’ to ‘__va_list_tag ()[1]’ for argument ‘2’ to ‘void fixArgPtr(const UChar, __va_list_tag (*)[1])’ tmcilib.cpp: In function ‘int tmprintf(TMBundle*, const UChar*, ...)’: tmcilib.cpp:743: error: array must be initialized with a brace-enclosed initializer tmcilib.cpp: In function ‘int tmfprintf(TMBundle*, UFILE*, const UChar*, ...)’: tmcilib.cpp:757: error: array must be initialized with a brace-enclosed initializer tmcilib.cpp: In function ‘int tmsprintf(TMBundle*, UChar*, const UChar*, ...)’: tmcilib.cpp:808: error: array must be initialized with a brace-enclosed initializer

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  • Object doesn't support property or method 'transformNode' in Internet Explorer 10 (Windows 8)

    - by John Chapman
    I am having some JavaScript issues that seem to only occur in Internet Explorer 10 on Windows 8 (IE 7, 8, and 9 all work fine). The basic jist of what I am doing is getting XML and XSL from a web service and then transforming them in JavaScript to render on the page using the Sys.Net.XMLDOM object. XMLDOM = Sys.Net.XMLDOM; var xsl = // XSL gotten from somewhere else var xmlString = // XML gotten from somewhere else as a string... var xml = new XMLDOM(xmlString); var content = xml.transformNode(xsl); When I use the above code in IE 10, I get: Object doesn't support property or method 'transformNode' Any ideas on why Internet Explorer 10 is doing this? EDIT I have also tried this: xmldoc = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.DOMDocument"); xmldoc.async = false; xmldoc.load(xml); xsldoc = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.DOMDocument"); xsldoc.async = false; xsldoc.load(xsl); var content = xmldoc.transformNode(xsldoc); Which works in all previous versions of IE, but in IE 10 I get: Reference to undeclared namespace prefix: 'atom'.

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  • How do I correctly modify a custom cocoa framework?

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the very-useful ID3 framework in my cocoa project. There's one tiny thing I'd like to modify in it, but I can't seem to get the changes I've made to apply to the built framework. The source code provided with the framework comes with an Xcode project, so I've opened that up and for testings sake put an NSLog(@"hello"); in. It's definetly in a place where it will be called and there are other NSLog() calls in the framework that show up so it's not just console output being supressed. To build the framework once modified I've first cleaned the build folder, made sure that it's actually removed the files, and then built it. Then in the Xcode project I'm using the framework in, I've deleted the old reference and added a new one to the framework that's freshly built. Running my project with the newly build framework doesn't call the modified framework code. I've tried with both the Development and Deployment builds that are part of the framework Xcode project. My gut instinct is that the executable that the framework code is compiled into is being cached somehow. But as I'm fairly unfamiliar with the workings of frameworks, I'm not really sure where to look.

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  • XmlHttpRequest in a bookmarklet returns empty responseText on GET?

    - by David Eyk
    I'm trying to build a javascript bookmarklet for a special URL shortening service we've built at http://esv.to for shortening scripture references (i.e. "Matthew 5" becomes "http://esv.to/Mt5". The bookmarklet is supposed to do a GET request to http://api.esv.to/Matthew+5, which returns a text/plain response of http://esv.to/Mt5. The code for the bookmarklet itself looks like this (expanded for readability): var body = document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0], script = document.createElement('script'); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = 'http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js'; body.appendChild(script); void(0); The code from http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js looks like this: (function() { function shorten(ref, callback) { var url = "http://esv.to/api/" + escape(ref); var req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.onreadystatechange = function shortenIt() { if ( this.readyState == 4 && this.status == 200 ) { callback(req.responseText); }; }; req.open( "GET", url ); req.send(); }; function doBookmarklet() { var ref = prompt("Enter a scripture reference or keyword search to link to:", "") shorten(ref, function (short) { prompt("Here is your shortened ESV URL:", short); }); }; doBookmarklet(); })(); When called from http://esv.to itself, the bookmarklet works correctly. But when used on another page, it does not. The strange thing is, when I watch the request from Firebug, the response is 200 OK, the browser downloads 17 bytes (the length of the returned string), but the response body is empty! No error is thrown, just an empty responseText on the XmlHttpRequest object. Now, according to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/664689/ajax-call-from-bookmarklet, GET shouldn't violate the same origin policy. Is this a bug? Is there a workaround?

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  • How to fluent-map this (using fluent nhibernate)?

    - by vikasde
    I have two tables in my database "Styles" and "BannedStyles". They have a reference via the ItemNo. Now styles can be banned per store. So if style x is banned at store Y then its very possible that its not banned at store Z or vice verse. What is the best way now to map this to a single entity? Should I be mapping this to a single entity? My Style entity looks like this: public class Style { public virtual int ItemNo { get; set;} public virtual string SKU { get; set; } public virtual string StyleName { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Store Store { get; set; } public virtual bool IsEntireStyleBanned { get; set; } }

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  • Could not load file or assembly System.EnterpriseServices

    - by Nifle
    I'm trying to read up on asp.net mvc, I have never used asp.net before but are familiar with regular c# development. Freshly installed, fully patched Windows XP Home. Freshly installed updated to SP1 Visual Studio 2008 Pro. Started a new project, selected "ASP.NET MVC Web Application", target framework is 3.5 I hit F5 and I get: "Could not load file or assembly System.EnterpriseServices" Exact wording in swedish: [FileNotFoundException: Det går inte att hitta filen. (Undantag från HRESULT: 0x80070002)] [FileNotFoundException: Det går inte att läsa in filen eller sammansättningen System.EnterpriseServices, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a eller ett av dess beroenden. Det går inte att hitta filen.] Adding a reference to System.EnterpriseServices in my project did not work. A quick google suggested I copy this file Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/System.EnterpriseServices.dll into %WINDOWS%/assembly but that did not work either. Any suggestions? Found the answer, I added it to the GAC with gacutil. C:\WINDOWS"C:\Program\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\bin\gacutil.exe" /i Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/System.EnterpriseServices.dll

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  • What is the rationale to non allow overloading of C++ conversions operator with non-member functio

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x has added explicit conversion operators, but they must always be defined as members of the Source class. The same applies to the assignment operator, it must be defined on the Target class. When the Source and Target classes of the needed conversion are independent of each other, neither the Source can define a conversion operator, neither the Target can define a constructor from a Source. Usually we get it by defining a specific function such as Target ConvertToTarget(Source& v); If C++0x allowed to overload conversion operator by non member functions we could for example define the conversion implicitly or explicitly between unrelated types. template < typename To, typename From operator To(const From& val); For example we could specialize the conversion from chrono::time_point to posix_time::ptime as follows template < class Clock, class Duration operator boost::posix_time::ptime( const boost::chrono::time_point& from) { using namespace boost; typedef chrono::time_point time_point_t; typedef chrono::nanoseconds duration_t; typedef duration_t::rep rep_t; rep_t d = chrono::duration_cast( from.time_since_epoch()).count(); rep_t sec = d/1000000000; rep_t nsec = d%1000000000; return posix_time::from_time_t(0)+ posix_time::seconds(static_cast(sec))+ posix_time::nanoseconds(nsec); } And use the conversion as any other conversion. So the question is: What is the rationale to non allow overloading of C++ conversions operator with non-member functions?

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  • How do I lookup a JNDI Datasource from outside a web container?

    - by masotime
    I have the following environment set up: Java 1.5 Sun Application Server 8.2 Oracle 10 XE Struts 2 Hibernate I'm interested to know how I can write code for a Java client (i.e. outside of a web application) that can reference the JNDI datasource provided by the application server. The ports for the Sun Application Server are all at their defaults. There is a JNDI datasource named jdbc/xxxx in the server configuration, but I noticed that the Hibernate configuration for the web application uses the name java:comp/env/jdbc/xxxx instead. Most of the examples I've seen so far involve code like Context ctx = new InitialContext(); ctx.lookup("jdbc/xxxx"); But it seems I'm either using the wrong JNDI name, or I need to configure a jndi.properties or other configuration file to correctly point to a listener? I have appserv-rt.jar from the Sun Application Server which has a jndi.properties inside of it, but it does not seem to help. There's a similar question here, but it doesn't give any code / refers to having iBatis obtain the JNDI Datasource automatically: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/39053/accessing-datasource-from-outside-a-web-container-through-jndi

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  • Fun things you can do by mutating Java strings

    - by polygenelubricants
    So I've come around since I asked how to limit setAccessible to only “legitimate” uses and have come to embrace its power for fun. Enabled by its power, of course, is string mutation. import java.lang.reflect.Field; public class Mutator { static void mutate(Object obj, String field, Object newValue) { try { Field f = obj.getClass().getDeclaredField(field); f.setAccessible(true); f.set(obj, newValue); } catch (Exception e) { } } public static void mutate(String from, String to) { mutate(from, "value", to.toCharArray()); mutate(from, "count", to.length()); } public static void main(String args[]) { Mutator.mutate(System.getProperty("line.separator"), "<br/>\n"); System.out.println("Hello world!"); Mutator.mutate(Integer.toString(Integer.MIN_VALUE), "OMG!"); System.out.println(-2147483648); Mutator.mutate(String.valueOf((Object) null), "LOL!"); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(new int[3][])); Mutator.mutate(Arrays.toString(new int[0]), ":("); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(new byte[0])); } } Output (if no exception is thrown): Hello world!<br/> OMG!<br/> [LOL!, LOL!, LOL!]<br/> :(<br/> Let's see what other fun things we can come up with.

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  • How can I load a view based on how long I hold a UIButton?

    - by Thomas
    Hello all, I've searched the net and documentation, but haven't found anything quite like what I'm trying to do. I'm working on an app where I want to load one view if a UIButton is held for x seconds, another if it's held for x+y seconds, etc. I found this tutorial. The problem I'm running into is, how do I switch the length of the button press? The tutorial switched the number of taps. -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSSet *allTouches = [event allTouches]; switch ([allTouches count]) { case 1: // Single touch { // Get the first touch. UITouch *touch = [[allTouches allObjects] objectAtIndex:0]; switch ([touch tapCount]) { case 1: // Single Tap. { // Start a timer timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:2 target:self selector:@selector(showAlertView:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [timer retain]; } break; case 2: // Double tap. break; } } break; case 2: // Double touch { } break; default: break; } } Any suggestions? Thanks! Thomas

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  • UITableView madness

    - by kesrut
    Hello, I'm new to iPhone application development. I'm trying to understand how to use UITableView. I'm wrote simple code: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 1 ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = @"Hello"; return cell; } UITable shows content, but if i'm drag table contents my application terminates. You can see video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TucTVJVhSD0 I tried to everything with array: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1 ; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [hello count] ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [hello objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; NSLog(@"Selected") ; } - (void) awakeFromNib { hello = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"hello", @"world", @"end", nil]; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } Content is shown and if I'm selecting item i'm getting: [Session started at 2010-03-16 19:21:48 +0200.] 2010-03-16 19:21:52.295 ViewTest[1775:207] * -[ViewTestViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3911ec0 I'm total new to iPhone programming. And as i see everything i do - i'm just getting application terminated ..

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  • VS2010: "Select Resource" dialog & resx location

    - by Dav
    Got two issues with the VS2010 / VS2008 select resource dialog - the one that appears when you want to add an image to a button in a WinForms app for example. Give me my files back! It only seems to see the default project resources file (Properties\Resources.resx), and resx files in project root (say MyProject\famfamfam.resx). We have quite a few icons all over the app, and because some of them come from different icon sets (like famfamfam), and some are related to this project only we'd like to keep them separate. For that same reason (keeping solution neat & tidy) we want to store these extra resource files in the Resources folder (eg. Resources\famfamfam.resx). However, we'd also like to keep using the Select Resource dialog :-) Because it does not see the 'extra' resource files, we're having to select a 'fake' icon now (from the global Resources.resx file) and then manually change that to reference the right icon in .Designer.cs. As you can imagine, this is a pain. Stop modifying my files! Second issue is a bit more annoying. We use the excellent MultiLang add-in for Visual Studio to globalize our app. It stores its translations in MultiLang.resx & MultiLang.XY.resx files in the project root, where XY is a language code, eg. .cs.resx for Czech. These have to be set to No code generation access modifier. What Select Resource seems to be doing is set all .resx files it can find to Internal. Exec summary Is there a way to convince Select Resource dialog to look for extra .resx files anywhere besides the project root? Is there any way to stop it from modifying the access modifier of the resources it does see (other than file a bug with MS)? Thanks in advance for any suggestions!

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  • PHP Loop Over ONLY Different Arrays

    - by Steven
    Hello, I have a single array with several of the same values. And I only want to loop over DIFFERENT values. How could I go about doing this? Example 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO; 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108_119 166-01 001;09;UO;_86_97_108_119 I have that in a single array, but I only want to loop for the different ones. So it would loop once for nothing, then once for _86, then once for _86_97, then once for _86_97_108, and then once for _86-97_108_119. So only loop for different key values, or would there be a way to count the number of different keys?

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  • Excel VBA SQL Import

    - by user307655
    Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

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  • Can I use a *.tag from another *.tag file in the same /WEB-INF/tags folder?

    - by Ytsejammer
    Hello, I am trying to refactor my JSP code so that a small conditional test condition gets reused through a *.tag file. There are some big parts of my UI that depend on the value of a two-state property of an object present in the request. Let's say the property is 'gender' and the object is of type Person. Like I said, I would like to simplify & centralize the test on the gender property using a tag. For this purpose, I created two tag files: /WEB-INF/tags/if-male.tag /WEB-INF/tags/if-female.tag Now, I have another tiny spot that gets repeated in all over my application; let's say is the salutation to my site user. With this idea, I created a tag like this: /WEB-INF/tags/salutation.tag As you can imagine, I am trying to use the if-male/if-female test within the salutation.tag file to output 'Mrs.' or 'Mr.' like this: <%@ tag body-content="empty" %> <%@ taglib prefix="g" uri="/WEB-INF/tags" %> <g:if-male> Mr. </g:if-male> <g:if-female> Mrs. </g:if-female> Is the use of the if-male/if-female tags legal within the salutation.tag file? I have tried with such arrangement, but it looks like the JDeveloper 10.1.3.4 compiler gets confused and cannot deal with the salutation.tag tag invoking the other two tags in the same 'library' (folder under /WEB-INF/tags). The reference works perfectly in Jetty 6 and it looks like it works as well if I deploy the application to OC4J directly without relying on JDeveloper to pre-compile all my JSPs. I hope someone can shed some light on this. Thanks, YJ

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  • PHP: How to store XML data in an array?

    - by tommy
    Below is the XML I am working with - there are more items - this is the first set. How can I get these elements in to an array? I have been trying with PHP's SimpleXML etc. but I just cant do it. <response xmlns:lf="http://api.lemonfree.com/ns/1.0"> <lf:request_type>listing</lf:request_type> <lf:response_code>0</lf:response_code> <lf:result type="listing" count="10"> <lf:item id="56832429"> <lf:attr name="title">Used 2005 Ford Mustang V6 Deluxe</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="year">2005</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="make">FORD</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="model">MUSTANG</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="vin">1ZVFT80N555169501</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="price">12987</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="mileage">42242</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="auction">no</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="city">Grand Rapids</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="state">Michigan</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="image">http://www.lemonfree.com/images/stock_images/thumbnails/2005_38_557_80.jpg</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="link">http://www.lemonfree.com/56832429.html</lf:attr> </lf:item> <!-- more items --> </lf:result> </response> Thanks guys EDIT: I want the first items data in easy to access variables, I've been struggling for a couple of days to get SimpleXML to work as I am new to PHP, so I thought manipulating an array is easier to do.

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • getting a tiled image collection on the iPad (deepzoom)

    - by Chris B
    I have a set of tiled image collections created via microsoft's deep zoom composer, and a silverlight app that currently consumes them for display via MultiScaleImage - it's all working pretty well - I'd just like to get some experience with iPad programming and have a couple of ideas for some ipad applications. All my ideas rely on me being able to display/manipulate these tiled image sets (on the iPad). I just picked up a iMac to facilitate this. I'm not seeing any objective-c / cocoa-touch libraries for this though, so am assuming I will have to roll my own. (Saw the seadragon ajax component, which is pretty slick, but I'm dealing with collections here, which it doesn't support. I would also like to roll this as a native app just to get the experience). The only open source project I found for displaying/manipulating the tiled image sets was Openzoom -a flash component. I'm not to familiar with actionscript either (python, java, c#, and c are the only languages I have really used), but briefly inspecting the code I didn't really have any issues with it and can probably use it for hints on how to swap the tiles in and out, etc.. But, as I'm pretty new to obj-c/cocoa-touch, some pointers in the right direction would be appreciated. 1) Are there any other projects out there I am missing, or is openzoom my best bet for some reference? 2) Should I be trying to do this display in the UIKit framework, or should I do it as an OpenGL display? 3) Any other suggestions/pointers that I didn't think to ask.

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  • jsTree: How to create a new ID for the new added node?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I can normally get the ID of the default tree nodes but my problem is onCreate then jsTree will add a new node but it doesn't have an ID. My question is how can I add an ID to the newly created tree node? What I'm thinking to do is adding the ID HTML attribute to the newly created tree node but how? I need to get the ID of all of the nodes because it will serve as a reference for the node's respective div storage. HTML code: <div class="demo" id="demo_1"> <ul> <li id="phtml_1" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 1</a></li> <li id="phtml_2" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 2</a></li> </ul> </div> JS code: $("#demo_1").tree({ ui : { theme_name : "apple" }, callback : { onrename : function (NODE, TREE_OBJ) { alert(TREE_OBJ.get_text(NODE)); alert($(NODE).attr('id')); } } }); Cheers, Mark

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  • Creating a Facebook session for getting page info

    - by Marty Haught
    I am trying to get info on a page that my user is admin for. This user has granted my fb_connect app offline access. I have saved the session_key that allows offline access (it has the user's id in it). I am able to publish to this fan page with this session key. But when I try to access the page's info I get an SessionExpired error. This doesn't make sense. Look at the code and output below: p is is a 'profile' object that holds the three pieces of relevant fb data (user_id, session_key and page id) fb_session = Facebooker::Session.create = # fb_session.secure_with!(p.fb_session_key, p.fb_user_id, 0) = nil fb_session.user.has_permission?("offline_access") = true fb_session.user.has_permission?("publish_stream") = true fb_session.user.has_permission?("read_stream") = true pages = fb_session.fql_query("select fan_count from page where page_id = #{p.fb_page_id}") Facebooker::Session::SessionExpired: Session key invalid or no longer valid ... pages = fb_session.pages(:fields = {:page_ids = p.fb_page_id}) Facebooker::Session::SessionExpired: Session key invalid or no longer valid ... pages = Facebooker::Session.create.fql_query("select fan_count from page where page_id = #{p.fb_page_id}") = [#] Perhaps I'm not creating the session right or maybe offline access doesn't give me access to the user's page even though I have permissions to push to it. As you can see when I just use an anon session I'm able to get the fan count, which I'm guessing is publicly available. Does anyone have an idea on this?

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  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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  • SWFUpload Authentication

    - by durilai
    I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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