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  • How much abstraction is too much?

    - by Daniel Bingham
    In an Object Oriented Program: How much abstraction is too much? How much is just right? I have always been a nuts and bolts kind of guy. I understood the concept behind high levels of encapsulation and abstraction, but always felt instinctively that adding too much would just confuse the program. I always tried to shoot for an amount of abstraction that left no empty classes or layers. And where in doubt, instead of adding a new layer to the hierarchy, I would try and fit something into the existing layers. However, recently I've been encountering more highly abstracted systems. Systems where everything that could require a representation later in the hierarchy gets one up front. This leads to a lot of empty layers, which at first seems like bad design. However, on second thought I've come to realize that leaving those empty layers gives you more places to hook into in the future with out much refactoring. It leaves you greater ability to add new functionality on top of the old with out doing nearly as much work to adjust the old. The two risks of this seem to be that you could get the layers you need wrong. In this case one would wind up still needing to do substantial refactoring to extend the code and would still have a ton of never used layers. But depending on how much time you spend coming up with the initial abstractions, the chance of screwing it up, and the time that could be saved later if you get it right - it may still be worth it to try. The other risk I can think of is the risk of over doing it and never needing all the extra layers. But is that really so bad? Are extra class layers really so expensive that it is much of a loss if they are never used? The biggest expense and loss here would be time that is lost up front coming up with the layers. But much of that time still might be saved later when one can work with the abstracted code rather than more low level code. So when is it too much? At what point do the empty layers and extra "might need" abstractions become overkill? How little is too little? Where's the sweet spot? Are there any dependable rules of thumb you've found in the course of your career that help you judge the amount of abstraction needed?

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  • Rails - embedded polymorphic comment list + add comment form - example?

    - by odigity
    Hey, all. Working on my first Rails app. I've searched all around - read a bunch of tutorials, articles, and forum posts, watched some screencasts, and I've found a few examples that come close to what I'm trying to do (notably http://railscasts.com/episodes/154-polymorphic-association and ep 196 about nested model forms), but not exactly. I have two models (Podcast and BlogPost) that need to be commentable, and I have a Comment model that is polymorphically related to both. The railscasts above had a very similar example (ep 154), but Ryan used a full set of nested routes, so there were specific templates for adding and editing comments. What I want to do is show the list of comments right on the Podcast or BlogPost page, along with an Add Comment form at the bottom. I don't need a separate add template/route, and I don't need the ability to edit, only delete. This is a pretty common design on the web, but I can't find a Rails example specifically about this pattern. Here's my current understanding: I need routes for the create and delete actions, of course, but there are no templates associated with those. I'm also guessing that the right approach is to create a partial that can be included at the bottom of both the Podcast and BlogPost show template. The logical name for the partial seems to me to be something like _comments.html.haml. I know it's a common convention to have the object passed to the partial be named after the template, but calling the object 'comments' seems to not match my use case, since what I really need to pass is the commentable object (Podcast or BlogPost). So, I guess I'd use the locals option for the render partial call? (:commentable = @podcast). Inside the partial, I could call commentable.comments to get the comments collection, render that with a second partial (this time with the conventional use case, calling the partial _comment.html.haml), then create a form that submits to... what? REST-wise, it should be a POST to the collection, which would be /podcast|blogpost/:id/comments, and I think the helper for that is podcast_comments_path(podcast) if it were a podcast - not sure what to do though, since I'm using polymorphic comments. That would trigger the Comment.create action, which would then need to redirect back to the podcast|blogpost path /podcast|blogpost/:id. It's all a bit overwhelming, which is why I was really hoping to find a screencast or example that specifically implements this design.

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  • Problem with core data migration mapping model

    - by dpratt
    I have an iphone app that uses Core Data to do storage. I have successfully deployed it, and now I'm working on the second version. I've run into a problem with the data model that will require a few very simple data transformations at the time that the persistent store gets upgraded, so I can't just use the default inferred mapping model. My object model is stored in an .xcdatamodeld bundle, with versions 1.0 and 1.1 next to each other. Version 1.1 is set as the active version. Everything works fine when I use the default migration behavior and set NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption to YES. My sqlite storage gets upgraded from the 1.0 version of the model, and everything is good except for, of course, the few transformations I need done. As an additional experimental step, I added a new Mapping Model to the core data model bundle, and have made no changes to what xcode generated. When I run my app (with an older version of the data store), I get the following * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Object's persistent store is not reachable from this NSManagedObjectContext's coordinator' What am I doing wrong? Here's my code for to get the managed object model and the persistent store coordinator. - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (_persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return _persistentStoreCoordinator; } _persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"gti_store.sqlite"]]; NSError *error; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![_persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:options error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Eror creating persistent store coodinator - %@", [error localizedDescription]); } return _persistentStoreCoordinator; } - (NSManagedObjectModel *)managedObjectModel { if(_managedObjectModel == nil) { _managedObjectModel = [[NSManagedObjectModel mergedModelFromBundles:nil] retain]; NSDictionary *entities = [_managedObjectModel entitiesByName]; //add a sort descriptor to the 'Foo' fetched property so that it can have an ordering - you can't add these from the graphical core data modeler NSEntityDescription *entity = [entities objectForKey:@"Foo"]; NSFetchedPropertyDescription *fetchedProp = [[entity propertiesByName] objectForKey:@"orderedBar"]; NSSortDescriptor* sortDescriptor = [[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"index" ascending:YES] autorelease]; NSArray* sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [[fetchedProp fetchRequest] setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } return _managedObjectModel; }

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  • jquery - establishing truths when loading inline javascript via AJAX

    - by yaya3
    I have thrown together a quick prototype to try and establish a few very basic truths regarding what inline JavaScript can do when it is loaded with AJAX: index.html <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','white'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIRST but is "undefined" $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ajax-loaded-content-wrapper').load('loaded-by-ajax.html', function(){ $('p').css('color','grey'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS LAST (as expected) }); $('p').css('color','purple'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SECOND }); </script> <p>Content not loaded by ajax</p> <div id="ajax-loaded-content-wrapper"> </div> </body> </html> loaded-by-ajax.html <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','yellow'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS THIRD $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','pink'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FOURTH }); </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','blue'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIFTH }); $('p').css('color','green'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SIX </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> Notes: a) All of the above (except the first) successfully change the colour of all the paragraphs (in firefox 3.6.3). b) I've used alert instead of console.log as console is undefined when called in the 'loaded' HTML. Truths(?): $(document).ready() does not treat the 'loaded' HTML as a new document, or reread the entire DOM tree including the loaded HTML JavaScript that is contained inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can successfully use the jQuery library inside 'loaded' HTML to effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can not use the firebug inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the existing DOM (proven by Note a) Am I correct in deriving these 'truths' from my tests (test validity)? If not, how would you test for these?

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  • Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

    - by Adam Alexander
    Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

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  • Admob in iPhone with Tabbar and TableView

    - by satyam
    I'm having tab bar with 5 buttons. Out of 5 tabs, 2 are table views which uses navigation controller for showing sub views on click of cell. Above the tab bar, in each view I left some space for ads using "Admob". I'm adding ads using IB. But its giving EXC_BAD_ACCESS when its reaching "adMobAd = [AdMobView requestAdWithDelegate:self];" in AdViewController.m I'm using following lines of code to add views to tab bar view. In my code, I just added ads to LatestNews only. Can some one help me out of this problem. UINavigationController *localNavigationController; // create tab bar controller and array to hold the view controllers tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:5]; // setup the first view controller (Root view controller) LatestNews* latestNewsController; latestNewsController = [[LatestNews alloc] initWithTabBar]; // create the nav controller and add the root view controller as its first view localNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:latestNewsController]; // add the new nav controller (with the root view controller inside it) // to the array of controllers [localControllersArray addObject:localNavigationController]; // release since we are done with this for now [localNavigationController release]; [latestNewsController release]; // setup the second view controller just like the first Forums* forumsController; forumsController = [[Forums alloc] initWithTabBar]; localNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:forumsController]; [localControllersArray addObject:localNavigationController]; [localNavigationController release]; [forumsController release]; RecipeList* recipesController = [[RecipeList alloc] initWithTabBar]; localNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:recipesController]; [localControllersArray addObject:localNavigationController]; [localNavigationController release]; [recipesController release]; //Setup Connect view Connect* cnt = [[Connect alloc] initWithTabBar]; [localControllersArray addObject:cnt]; [cnt release]; //Setup Subscribe View Subscribe* scribe = [[Subscribe alloc] initWithTabBar]; [localControllersArray addObject:scribe]; [scribe release]; // load up our tab bar controller with the view controllers tabBarController.viewControllers = localControllersArray; [localControllersArray release]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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  • jQuery show/hide menu problem

    - by jerrygarciuh
    Hi folks, I am encountering an odd behavior using jQuery to show/hide a menu. I have an absolutely positioned div which contains an "activator " div (relatively positioned) which I want to reveal a menu on moseover. Menu div is contained by the activator div and is also relatively positioned. I was working on assumption that since it would be contained by the activator that rolloff would not be triggered when the mouse travels over into the reveled menu. When you roll onto the revealed menu however show/hide starts pulsing and does so a second or so even after the mouse clears the area. CSS looks like this #myAbsolutePos { position:absolute; height:335px; width:213px; top:508px; left:0; z-index:2; } #activator { position:relative; height:35px; margin-top:95px; text-align:center; width:inherit; cursor:pointer; } #menu { position:relative; height:255px; width:243px; top:-45px; left:190px; padding:20px 25px 20px 25px; } #menuContents { width:190px; } jQuery funcs: $('#activator').mouseover(function () { $('#menu').show('slow'); }); $('#activator').mouseout(function () { $('#menu').hide('slow'); }); HTML: <div id="myAbsolutePos"> <div id="activator"> // content <div id="menu" style="display:none"> <div id="menuContents"> // content </div> </div> </div> </div> To see problem in action roll over the current weather location (Thunder Horse) in the lower left here: http://www.karlsenner.dreamhosters.com/index.php Any advice is most appreciated! JG

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  • JNDI / Classpath problem in glassfish

    - by Michael Borgwardt
    I am in the process of converting a large J2EE app from EJB 2 to EJB 3 (all stateless session beans, using glassfish 2.1.1), and running out of ideas. The first EJB I converted (let's call it Foo) ran without major problems (it was the only one in its ejb-module and I could completely replace the deployment descriptor with annotations) and the app ran fine. But after converting the second one (let's call it Bar, one of several in a different ejb-module) there is a weird combination of problems: The app deploys without errors (nothing in the logs either) There is an error when looking up Bar via JNDI When looking at the JNDI tree in the glassfish admin console, Bar is not present at all. Then when I look at the logs, I see this (Foo is the correct name of the EJB's remote interface of the first converted, previously working EJB): Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: ejb ref resolution error for remote business interface Foo [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Foo] at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:425) at com.sun.ejb.containers.RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.getObjectInstance(RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.java:74) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getObjectInstance(NamingManager.java:304) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:414) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:603) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: XXX at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1578) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.getBusinessIntfClassLoader(EJBUtils.java:679) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:348) ... 75 more This is followed by more exceptions for all the entries that (like Foo) do appear in the JNDI tree. These look like this: Caused by: javax.naming.NotContextException: BarHome cannot be listed at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:607) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more However, no exception for Bar, it does not appear in the log at all except one entry during deployment. The other EJBs in the same module do appear, as does Foo. Any ideas what could cause this or how to diagnose it further? The beans are pretty straightforward: @Stateless(name = "Foo") @RolesAllowed("FOOUSER") @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTS) public class FooImpl extends BaseBean implements Foo { I'm also having some problems with the deployment descriptor for Bar (I'd like to eliminate it, but glassfish doesn't seem to like having a bean appear only in sun-ejb-jar.xml, or having some beans in a module declared in the descriptor and others use only annotations), but I can't see how that could cause the ClassNotFoundException on Foo. Is there a way to see the ClassPath that Glassfish is actually using?

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  • Why does filter: blur(0) still cause text to blur under Webkit?

    - by johnkavanagh
    I've come across a bug today that's taken far longer than I would like to admit to identify. Essentially: setting a filter: blur(0) (or the vendor-specific -webkit-filter) on an element should - I believe - mean that no form of blur is applied. However, having tested this today, it would appear that Webkit based browsers still blur the text within any element with either blur(0) or blur(0px) assigned to it. I've knocked together a quick Fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/f9rBE/ These are three identical dixs containing text (no custom fonts): This has absolutely nothing assigned Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Aliquam facilisis orci in quam venenatis, in tempus ipsum sagittis. Suspendisse potenti. Donec ullamcorper lacus vel odio accumsan, vel aliquam libero tempor. Praesent nec libero venenatis, ultrices arcu non, luctus quam. Morbi scelerisque sit amet turpis sit amet tincidunt. Praesent semper erat non purus pretium consequat. Aenean et iaculis turpis. Curabitur diam tellus, consectetur non massa et, commodo venenatis metus. One has no styles at all assigned, the other two have blur(0) and blur(0px): .no-blur{} .zero-px-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0px); -moz-filter: blur(0px); -o-filter: blur(0px); -ms-filter: blur(0px); filter: blur(0px); } .zero-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0); -moz-filter: blur(0); -o-filter: blur(0); -ms-filter: blur(0); filter: blur(0); } If you preview this under Chrome/Safari you'll see that the text in the second two are still blurred: A few things worth noting: This unintentional blurring occurs in Safari on iOS7 devices (both iPhones and iPads); It also occurs on Chrome and Safari under OSX; It doesn't happen under FireFox in OSX. Of course, this isn't supported at all in Firefox just yet so it's hard to tell whether the behaviour I'm seeing is intentional/expected behaviour, or whether this is a bug in Webkit? Is it possible that this is only prevalent in higher-density resolution devices (ie: retina MacBook/iPhone/iPad)? With this in mind, how do you actually overwrite an item that has blur applied to it to set it back to non-blurred?

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  • getExtra from Intent launched from a pendingIntent

    - by spagi
    Hi. I am trying to make some alarms after the user selects something with a time from a list and create a notification for it at the given time. My problem is that the "showname" that a putExtra on my Intent cant be received at the broadcast receiver. It always get null value. This is the way I do it for most of my intents but I think this time maybe because of the pendingIntent or the broadcastReceiver something need to be done differentelly. Thank you The function that sends the Intent through the pending intent public void setAlarm(String showname,String time) { String[] hourminute=time.split(":"); String hour = hourminute[0]; String minute = hourminute[1]; Calendar rightNow = Calendar.getInstance(); rightNow.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, Integer.parseInt(hour)); rightNow.set(Calendar.MINUTE, Integer.parseInt(minute)); rightNow.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); long t=rightNow.getTimeInMillis(); long t1=System.currentTimeMillis(); try { Intent intent = new Intent(this, alarmreceiver.class); Bundle c = new Bundle(); c.putString("showname", showname);//This is the value I want to pass intent.putExtras(c); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 12345, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, rightNow.getTimeInMillis(),pendingIntent); //Log.e("ALARM", "time of millis: "+System.currentTimeMillis()); Toast.makeText(this, "Alarm set", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e("ALARM", "ERROR IN CODE:"+e.toString()); } } And this is the receiving end public class alarmreceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // Toast.makeText(context, "Alarm worked.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Bundle b = intent.getExtras(); String showname=b.getString("showname");//This is where I suppose to receive it but its null NotificationManager manger = (NotificationManager) context .getSystemService(context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, "TVGuide ?pe???µ?s?", System.currentTimeMillis()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, new Intent(context, tvguide.class), 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(context, "?? ?????aµµa ?e????se", showname, contentIntent); notification.flags = Notification.FLAG_ONLY_ALERT_ONCE; notification.sound = Uri.parse("file:///sdcard/dominating.mp3"); notification.vibrate = new long[]{100, 250, 100, 500}; manger.notify(1, notification); } }

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  • For a .NET winforms datagridview I would like a combobox column to have a different set of values for each row.

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a DataGridView that I am binding to a POCO. I have the databinding working fine. However, I have added a combobox column that I want to be different for each row. Specifically, I have a grid of purchased items, some of which have sizes (like Adult XL, Adult L) and other items are not sized (like Car Magnet.) So essentially what I want to change is the DATA SOURCE for a combobox column in the data grid. Can that be done? What event can I hook into that would allow me to change properties of certain columns FOR EACH ROW? An acceptable alternative is to change a property when the user clicks or tabs into the row. What event is that? Seth EDIT I need more help with this question. With Triduses help I am SO close but I need a bit more information. First, per the question, is the CellFormatting event really the best/only event for changing the DataSource for a combo box column. I ask because I am doing something rather resource/data intensive, not merely formatting the cell. Second, the cellformatting event is being called just by having the mouse hover over the cell. I tried to set the FormattingApplied property inside my if-block and then I check for it in the if- test but that is returning a weird error message. My ideal situation is that I would apply change the data source for the combo box once for each row and then be done with it. Finally, in order to set the data source of the combobox colunm I have to be able to cast the Cell inside my if block to a type of DataGridViewComboBoxColumn so that I can fill it with rows or set the datasource or something. Here is the code I have right now. Private Sub ProductsDataGrid_CellFormatting(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs) Handles ProductsDataGrid.CellFormatting If e.ColumnIndex = ProductsDataGrid.Columns("SizeDGColumn").Index Then ' AndAlso Not e.FormattingApplied Then Dim product As LeagueOrderProductInfo = DirectCast(ProductsDataGrid.Rows(e.RowIndex).DataBoundItem, LeagueOrderProductInfo) Dim sizes As LeagueOrderProductSizeList = product.ProductSizes sizes.RemoveSizeFromList(_parentOrderDetail.SizeID) 'WHAT DO I DO HERE TO FILL THE COMBOBOX COLUMN WITH THE sizes collection. End If End Sub Please help. I am completely stuck and this task item should have taken an hour and I am 4+ hours in now. BTW, I am also open to resolving this by taking a completely different direction with it (as long as I can be done quickly.) Seth

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  • Keeping the DI-container usage in the composition root in Silverlight and MVVM

    - by adrian hara
    It's not quite clear to me how I can design so I keep the reference to the DI-container in the composition root for a Silverlight + MVVM application. I have the following simple usage scenario: there's a main view (perhaps a list of items) and an action to open an edit view for one single item. So the main view has to create and show the edit view when the user takes the action (e.g. clicks some button). For this I have the following code: public interface IView { IViewModel ViewModel {get; set;} } Then, for each view that I need to be able to create I have an abstract factory, like so public interface ISomeViewFactory { IView CreateView(); } This factory is then declared a dependency of the "parent" view model, like so: public class SomeParentViewModel { public SomeParentViewModel(ISomeViewFactory viewFactory) { // store it } private void OnSomeUserAction() { IView view = viewFactory.CreateView(); dialogService.ShowDialog(view); } } So all is well until here, no DI-container in sight :). Now comes the implementation of ISomeViewFactory: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = ???? } } The "????" part is my problem, because the view model for the view needs to be resolved from the DI-container so it gets its dependencies injected. What I don't know is how I can do this without having a dependency to the DI-container anywhere except the composition root. One possible solution would be to have either a dependency on the view model that gets injected into the factory, like so: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public SomeViewFactory(ISomeViewModel viewModel) { // store it } public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = viewModel; } } While this works, it has the problem that since the whole object graph is wired up "statically" (i.e. the "parent" view model will get an instance of SomeViewFactory, which will get an instance of SomeViewModel, and these will live as long as the "parent" view model lives), the injected view model implementation is stateful and if the user opens the child view twice, the second time the view model will be the same instance and have the state from before. I guess I could work around this with an "Initialize" method or something similar, but it doesn't smell quite right. Another solution might be to wrap the DI-container and have the factories depend on the wrapper, but it'd still be a DI-container "in disguise" there :) Any thoughts on this are greatly appreciated. Also, please forgive any mistakes or rule-breaking, since this is my first post on stackoverflow :) Thanks! ps: my current solution is that the factories know about the DI-container, and it's only them and the composition root that have this dependency.

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  • Java web-app debugging not possible due to direct undeploy on debug

    - by Hendrik
    When i try to debug my webapp it starts up the tomcat server and the application, but shuts down the debugger shortly before the app gets usable. I see the debugging toolbar for a second before it vanishes again, though the app keeps running. Tomcat-log: Listening for transport dt_socket at address: 11555 23.03.2010 01:24:35 org.apache.catalina.core.AprLifecycleListener init INFO: The APR based Apache Tomcat Native library which allows optimal performance in production environments was not found on the java.library.path: .:/Library/Java/Extensions:/System/Library/Java/Extensions:/usr/lib/java 23.03.2010 01:24:35 org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol init INFO: Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-8084 23.03.2010 01:24:35 org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina load INFO: Initialization processed in 847 ms 23.03.2010 01:24:35 org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService start INFO: Starting service Catalina 23.03.2010 01:24:35 org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngine start INFO: Starting Servlet Engine: Apache Tomcat/6.0.20 log4j:WARN No appenders could be found for logger (org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader). log4j:WARN Please initialize the log4j system properly. 23.03.2010 01:24:41 org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol start INFO: Starting Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-8084 23.03.2010 01:24:41 org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket init INFO: JK: ajp13 listening on /0.0.0.0:8009 23.03.2010 01:24:41 org.apache.jk.server.JkMain start INFO: Jk running ID=0 time=0/78 config=null 23.03.2010 01:24:41 org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina start INFO: Server startup in 5855 ms 23.03.2010 01:24:42 org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig checkResources INFO: Undeploying context [] 23.03.2010 01:24:45 org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start INFO: Container org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.[Catalina].[localhost].[/] has already been started Debugging log: Attached JPDA debugger to localhost:11555 Checking data source definitions for missing JDBC drivers... Deploying JDBC driver to /Applications/NetBeans/apache-tomcat-6.0.20/lib/mysql-connector-java-5.1.6-bin.jar Stopping Tomcat process... Waiting for Tomcat... Tomcat server stopped. Starting Tomcat process... Waiting for Tomcat... Tomcat server started. Undeploying ... OK - Undeployed application at context path / In-place deployment at /path/to/project/dir/build/web deploy?config=file%3A%2Fvar%2Ffolders%2FZP%2FZPbqxGrbHFaUlXzAfgWV1%2B%2B%2B%2BTQ%2F-Tmp-%2Fcontext734173871283203218.xml&path=/ OK - Deployed application at context path / start?path=/ Start is in progress... OK - Started application at context path / debug-display-browser: Browsing: http://localhost:8084/ connect-client-debugger: BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 18 seconds) System is Netbeans 6.8 on MacOS 10.6.2. Thank you very much, guys!

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  • In Protobuf-net how can I pass an array of type object with objects of different types inside, knowi

    - by cloudraven
    I am trying to migrate existing code that uses XmlSerializer to protobuf-net due to the increased performance it offers, however I am having problems with this specific case. I have an object[] that includes parameters that are going to be sent to a remote host (sort of a custom mini rpc facility). I know the set of types from which these parameters can be, but I cannot tell in advance in which order they are going to be sent. I have three constraints. The first is that I am running in Compact Framework, so I need something that works there. Second, as I mentioned performance is a big concern (on the serializing side) so I would rather avoid using a lot of reflection there if possible. And the most important is that I care about the order in which this parameters were sent. Using XmlSerializer it was easy just adding XmlInclude, but for fields there is nothing equivalent as far as I know in Protobuf-net. So, is there a way to do this? Here is a simplified example. [Serializable] [XmlInclude(typeof(MyType1)), XmlInclude(typeof(MyType2)), XmlInclude(typeof(MyType3)) public class Message() { public object[] parameters; public Message(object[] parms) { parameters = parms; } } Message m = new Message(new object[] {MyType1(), 33, "test", new MyType3(), new MyType3()}); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Message)); xml.Serialize(ms,xml); That will just work with XmlSerializer, but if I try to convert it to protobuf-net I will get a "No default encoding for Object" message. The best I came up with is to use generics and [ProtoInclude] as seen in this example. Since I can have different object types within the array this doesn't quite make it. I added a generic List for each potential type and a property with [ProtoIgnore] with type object[] to add them and get them. I have to use reflection when adding them (to know in which array to put each item) which is not desirable and I still can't preserve the ordering as I just extract all the items on each list one by one and put them into a new object[] array on the property get. I wonder if there is a way to accomplish this?

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  • How to Connect Crystal Reports to MySQL directly by C# code without DSN or a DataSet

    - by Yanko Hernández Alvarez
    How can I connect a Crystal Report (VS 2008 basic) to a MySQL DB without using a DSN or a preload DataSet using C#? I need install the program on several places, so I must change the connection parameters. I don't want to create a DSN on every place, nor do I want to preload a DataSet and pass it to the report engine. I use nhibernate to access the database, so to create and fill the additional DS would take twice the work and additional maintenance later. I think the best option would be to let the crystal reports engine to connect to MySQL server by itself using ODBC. I managed to create the connection in the report designer (VS2008) using the Database Expert, creating an ODBC(RDO) connection and entering this connection string "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain" and in the "Next" page filling the "User ID", "Password" and "Database" parameters. I didn't fill the "Server" parameter. It worked. As a matter of fact, if you use the former connection string, it doesn't matter what you put on the "Server" parameter, it seems the parameter is unused. On the other hand, if you use "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver}" as a connection string and later fill the "Server" parameter with the FQDN of the server, the connection doesn't work. How can I do that by code? All the examples I've seen till now, use a DSN or the DataSet method. I saw the same question posted but for PostgreSQL and tried to adapt it to mysql, but so far, no success. The first method: Rp.Load(); Rp.DataSourceConnections[0].SetConnection("DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain", "database", "user", "pass"); Rp.ExportToDisk(ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat, "report.pdf"); raise an CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.LogOnException during ExportToDisk Message="Logon failed.\nDetails: IM002:[Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified.\rError in File temporal file path.rpt:\nUnable to connect: incorrect log on parameters. the InnerException is an System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException with the same message and no InnerException The "no default driver specified" makes me wonder if the server parameter is unused here too (see above). In that case: How can I specify the connection string? I haven't tried the second method because it doesn't apply. Does anybody know the solution?

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  • Are there any working implementations of the rolling hash function used in the Rabin-Karp string sea

    - by c14ppy
    I'm looking to use a rolling hash function so I can take hashes of n-grams of a very large string. For example: "stackoverflow", broken up into 5 grams would be: "stack", "tacko", "ackov", "ckove", "kover", "overf", "verfl", "erflo", "rflow" This is ideal for a rolling hash function because after I calculate the first n-gram hash, the following ones are relatively cheap to calculate because I simply have to drop the first letter of the first hash and add the new last letter of the second hash. I know that in general this hash function is generated as: H = c1ak - 1 + c2ak - 2 + c3ak - 3 + ... + cka0 where a is a constant and c1,...,ck are the input characters. If you follow this link on the Rabin-Karp string search algorithm , it states that "a" is usually some large prime. I want my hashes to be stored in 32 bit integers, so how large of a prime should "a" be, such that I don't overflow my integer? Does there exist an existing implementation of this hash function somewhere that I could already use? Here is an implementation I created: public class hash2 { public int prime = 101; public int hash(String text) { int hash = 0; for(int i = 0; i < text.length(); i++) { char c = text.charAt(i); hash += c * (int) (Math.pow(prime, text.length() - 1 - i)); } return hash; } public int rollHash(int previousHash, String previousText, String currentText) { char firstChar = previousText.charAt(0); char lastChar = currentText.charAt(currentText.length() - 1); int firstCharHash = firstChar * (int) (Math.pow(prime, previousText.length() - 1)); int hash = (previousHash - firstCharHash) * prime + lastChar; return hash; } public static void main(String[] args) { hash2 hashify = new hash2(); int firstHash = hashify.hash("mydog"); System.out.println(firstHash); System.out.println(hashify.hash("ydogr")); System.out.println(hashify.rollHash(firstHash, "mydog", "ydogr")); } } I'm using 101 as my prime. Does it matter if my hashes will overflow? I think this is desirable but I'm not sure. Does this seem like the right way to go about this?

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  • Trying to read FormsAuthentication tickets to read in other areas of site

    - by Pasha Aryana
    Hi, NOTE: I have included 3 links in here to my localhost areas but could not submit the post so I seperetaed them with a space character so it would post on stackoverflow. I currently have 2 ASP.NET MVC apps in my solution. First I run the first one by setting it to be startup project. It goes to the login page, from there once the data has been entered I execute the following code: var authTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, login.LoginDataContract.MSISDN, DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(Convert.ToDouble("30")), true, ""); string cookieContents = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authTicket); var cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookieContents) { Expires = authTicket.Expiration, //Path = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath //Path = "http://localhost" Domain = "" }; if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current != null) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); } As you can see I have set the Domain = "", so theoretically speaking it should work on any thing under my http: //localhost. Then I have set the persist security of the cookie to true so I can access it from any where under localhost. The cookie writes fine and I get logged in and all godd for now. BTW the url for this login page is: http //localhost/MyAccount/Login Now then I stop the solution and set the other MVC apps to be the startup. Then I run it. The URL for the second site is: http: //localhost/WebActivations/ Here is the code in the other apps start controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; // PASHA: Added code to read the authorization cookie set at // login in MyAccount *.sln for (int i = 0; i < System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Count;i++) { Response.Write(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Name + " " + System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Value); } HttpCookie authorizationCookie = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName.ToString()]; // decrypt. FormsAuthenticationTicket authorizationForm = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(authorizationCookie.Value); ViewData["Message"] = authorizationForm.UserData[0].ToString(); return View(); } public ActionResult About() { return View(); } The problem is in this Home controller when I run the solution it cannot read the authentication cookie, you see the loop there it does not find the .ASPXAUTH cookie. But once it crashes in Firefox I have a look in the Page Info and then security and Cookies and its there and its the same cookie. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Why is django giving me an attribute error when I call _set.all() for its children models?

    - by user1876508
    I have two models defined from django.db import models class Blog(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=144) @property def posts(self): self.Post_set.all() class Post(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=144) text = models.TextField() blog = models.ForeignKey('Blog') but the problem is, when I run shell, and enter >>> blog = Blog(title="My blog") >>> post = Post(title="My first post", text="Here is the main text for my blog post", blog=blog) >>> blog.posts I get the error Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/home/lucas/Programming/Python/Django/djangorestfun/blog/models.py", line 9, in posts self.Post_set.all() AttributeError: 'Blog' object has no attribute 'Post_set' >>> Now I am having the following problem >>> from blog.models import * >>> blog = Blog(title="gewrhter") >>> blog.save() >>> blog.__dict__ {'_state': <django.db.models.base.ModelState object at 0x259be10>, 'id': 1, 'title': 'gewrhter'} >>> blog._state.__dict__ {'adding': False, 'db': 'default'} >>> post = Post(title="sdhxcvb", text="hdbfdgb", blog=blog) >>> post.save() >>> post.__dict__ {'blog_id': 1, 'title': 'sdhxcvb', 'text': 'hdbfdgb', '_blog_cache': <Blog: Blog object>, '_state': <django.db.models.base.ModelState object at 0x259bed0>, 'id': 1} >>> blog.posts >>> print blog.posts None Second update So I followed your guide, but I am still getting nothing. In addition, blog.posts gives me an error. >>> from blog.models import * >>> blog = Blog(title="asdf") >>> blog.save() >>> post = Post(title="asdf", text="sdxcvb", blog=blog) >>> post.save() >>> blog.posts Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'Blog' object has no attribute 'posts' >>> print blog.all_posts None

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  • z-index issues with jQuery Tabs, Superfish Menu

    - by NightMICU
    Hi all, For the life of me I cannot get my Superfish menu to stop hiding behind my jQuery UI tabs in IE 7. I have read the documentation out there, have tried changing z-index values and tried the bgIframe plugin, although I am not sure if I am implementing it correctly (left out in my example below, using Supersubs). Here is the Javascript I am using for Superfish - using the Supersubs plugin: $(document).ready(function() { $("ul.sf-menu").supersubs({ minWidth: 12, // minimum width of sub-menus in em units maxWidth: 27, // maximum width of sub-menus in em units extraWidth: 1 // extra width can ensure lines don't sometimes turn over // due to slight rounding differences and font-family }).superfish({ delay: 1000, // one second delay on mouseout animation: {opacity:'show',height:'show'}, // fade-in and slide-down animation speed: 'medium' // faster animation speed }); }); And here is the structure of my page: <div id="page-container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="nav-admin"> <!-- This is where Superfish goes --> </div> <div id="header-shadow"></div> <div id="content"> <div id="admin-main"> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Tab 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Tab 2</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <!-- Content for Tab 1 --> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <!-- Content for Tab 2 --> </div> </div> </div> </div> <div id="footer-shadow"></div> <div id="footer"> <div id="alt-nav"> <?php include $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/altnav.inc.php'; //CHANGE WHEN UPLOADED TO MATCH DOCUMENT ROOT ?> </div> </div> </div>

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  • decrypt an encrypted value ?

    - by jim
    I have an old Paradox database (I can convert it to Access 2007) which contains more then 200,000 records. This database has two columns: the first one is named "Word" and the second one is named "Mean". It is a dictionary database and my client wants to convert this old database to ASP.NET and SQL. However, we don't know what key or method is used to encrypt or encode the "Mean" column which is in the Unicode format. The software itself has been written in Delphi 7 and we don't have the source code. My client only knows the credentials for logging in to database. The problem is decoding the Mean column. What I do have is the compiled windows application and the Paradox database. This software can decode the "Mean" column for each "Word" so the method and/or key is in its own compiled code(.exe) or one of the files in its directory. For example, we know that in the following row the "Zymurgy" exactly means "???? ??? ????? ?? ???? ????, ????? ?????" since the application translates it like that. Here is what the record looks like when I open the database in Access: Word Mean Zymurgy 5OBnGguKPdDAd7L2lnvd9Lnf1mdd2zDBQRxngsCuirK5h91sVmy0kpRcue/+ql9ORmP99Mn/QZ4= Therefore we're trying to discover how the value in the Mean column is converted to "???? ??? ????? ?? ???? ????, ????? ?????". I think the "Mean" column value in above row is encoded in Base64 string format, but decoding the Base64 string does not yet result in the expected text. The extensions for files in the win app directory are dll, CCC, DAT, exe (other than the main app file), SYS, FAM, MB, PX, TV, VAL. Any kind of help is appreciated. Additional information: guys! the creators are not that stupid to save the values only in encoded form. they're definitely encrypted them. so i guess we have to look for the key.

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  • Diophantine Equation [closed]

    - by ANIL
    In mathematics, a Diophantine equation (named for Diophantus of Alexandria, a third century Greek mathematician) is a polynomial equation where the variables can only take on integer values. Although you may not realize it, you have seen Diophantine equations before: one of the most famous Diophantine equations is: X^n+Y^n=Z^n We are not certain that McDonald's knows about Diophantine equations (actually we doubt that they do), but they use them! McDonald's sells Chicken McNuggets in packages of 6, 9 or 20 McNuggets. Thus, it is possible, for example, to buy exactly 15 McNuggets (with one package of 6 and a second package of 9), but it is not possible to buy exactly 16 nuggets, since no non- negative integer combination of 6's, 9's and 20's adds up to 16. To determine if it is possible to buy exactly n McNuggets, one has to solve a Diophantine equation: find non-negative integer values of a, b, and c, such that 6a + 9b + 20c = n. Problem 1 Show that it is possible to buy exactly 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, and 55 McNuggets, by finding solutions to the Diophantine equation. You can solve this in your head, using paper and pencil, or writing a program. However you chose to solve this problem, list the combinations of 6, 9 and 20 packs of McNuggets you need to buy in order to get each of the exact amounts. Given that it is possible to buy sets of 50, 51, 52, 53, 54 or 55 McNuggets by combinations of 6, 9 and 20 packs, show that it is possible to buy 56, 57,..., 65 McNuggets. In other words, show how, given solutions for 50-55, one can derive solutions for 56-65. Problem 2 Write an iterative program that finds the largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity. Your program should print the answer in the following format (where the correct number is provided in place of n): "Largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity: n" Hints: Hypothesize possible instances of numbers of McNuggets that cannot be purchased exactly, starting with 1 For each possible instance, called n, a. Test if there exists non-negative integers a, b, and c, such that 6a+9b+20c = n. (This can be done by looking at all feasible combinations of a, b, and c) b. If not, n cannot be bought in exact quantity, save n When you have found six consecutive values of n that in fact pass the test of having an exact solution, the last answer that was saved (not the last value of n that had a solution) is the correct answer, since you know by the theorem that any amount larger can also be bought in exact quantity

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  • CCNet web dashboard not showing anything when MSBuild fails

    - by cfdev9
    I have a simple project in ccnet using svn & msbuild only. There is a 30 second trigger for svn and the msbuild file compiles a web application then copies it to a numbered build folder. When an error occurs in the msbuild task I get a failed build. When I view a failed build in the web dashboard I can see the 'Modifications since last build' section in the dashboard, but nothing else. I have to click on the build log and read through all of the xml in the error log to see what the error was. Why won't the dashboard show the errors from the build log? I haven't changed anything in the dashboard.config since installing ccnet. Dashboard Version : 1.5.7256.1 <project name="SimpleWebapp1"> <artifactDirectory>C:\Program Files\CruiseControl.NET\server\SimpleWebapp1\Artifacts\</artifactDirectory> <triggers> <intervalTrigger name="continuous" seconds="30" buildCondition="IfModificationExists" initialSeconds="5" /> </triggers> <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <executable>C:\Program Files\CollabNet\Subversion Client\svn.exe</executable> <trunkUrl>https://server:8443/svn/SimpleWebapp1/trunk</trunkUrl> <workingDirectory>D:\CCNetSandbox\SimpleWebapp1</workingDirectory> <username>username</username> <password>password</password> </sourcecontrol> <tasks> <msbuild> <executable> C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\MSBuild.exe </executable> <workingDirectory> D:\CCNetSandbox\SimpleWebapp1 </workingDirectory> <projectFile>SimpleWebapp1.build</projectFile> <buildArgs>/p:Configuration=Debug /p:Platform="Any CPU"</buildArgs> <targets>CompileLatest</targets> <timeout>900</timeout> <logger>ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.MsBuild.XMLLogger, C:\Program Files\CruiseControl.NET\server\ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.MsBuild.dll</logger> </msbuild> </tasks> <publishers> <xmllogger /> <buildpublisher> <publishDir>C:\Program Files\CruiseControl.NET\server\SimpleWebapp1\Artifacts\</publishDir> <useLabelSubDirectory>true</useLabelSubDirectory> </buildpublisher> </publishers> </project>

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  • C# - WebBrowser control seems to cache screenshots

    - by Justin
    Hey, I'm using the WebBrowser control in an ASP.NET MVC 2 app (don't judge, I'm doing it in an admin section only to be used by me), here's the code: public static class Screenshot { private static string _url; private static int _width; private static byte[] _bytes; public static byte[] Get(string url) { // This method gets a screenshot of the webpage // rendered at its full size (height and width) return Get(url, 50); } public static byte[] Get(string url, int width) { //set properties. _url = url; _width = width; //start screen scraper. var webBrowseThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(TakeScreenshot)); webBrowseThread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); webBrowseThread.Start(); //check every second if it got the screenshot yet. //i know, the thread sleep is terrible, but it's the secure section, don't judge... int numChecks = 20; for (int k = 0; k < numChecks; k++) { Thread.Sleep(1000); if (_bytes != null) { return _bytes; } } return null; } private static void TakeScreenshot() { try { //load the webpage into a WebBrowser control. using (WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser()) { wb.ScrollBarsEnabled = false; wb.ScriptErrorsSuppressed = true; wb.Navigate(_url); while (wb.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) { Application.DoEvents(); } //set the size of the WebBrowser control. //take Screenshot of the web pages full width. wb.Width = wb.Document.Body.ScrollRectangle.Width; //take Screenshot of the web pages full height. wb.Height = wb.Document.Body.ScrollRectangle.Height; //get a Bitmap representation of the webpage as it's rendered in the WebBrowser control. var bitmap = new Bitmap(wb.Width, wb.Height); wb.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, new Rectangle(0, 0, wb.Width, wb.Height)); //resize. var height = _width * (bitmap.Height / bitmap.Width); var thumbnail = bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(_width, height, null, IntPtr.Zero); //convert to byte array. var ms = new MemoryStream(); thumbnail.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); _bytes = ms.ToArray(); } } catch(Exception exc) {//TODO: why did screenshot fail? string message = exc.Message; } } This works fine for the first screenshot that I take, however if I try to take subsequent screenshots of different URL's, it saves screenshots of the first url for the new url, or sometimes it'll save the screenshot from 3 or 4 url's ago. I'm creating a new instance of WebBrowser for each screenshot and am disposing of it properly with the "using" block, any idea why it's behaving this way? Thanks, Justin

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  • Crawling not working windows2008

    - by axtolf
    Hi, We installed a new MOSS 2007 farm on windows 2008 SP2 enviroment. We used SQL2008 too. Configuration is 1 index, 1 FE and 1 server with 2008, all on ESX 4.0. All the Service that need it uses a dedicated user, so search has a dedicated user. Installation went well and we found no problem. We installed an SP1 MOSS from a ISO and after we upgraded WSS and MOSS to SP2. We installed the Italian language pack too and patched it to SP2. We created a new SSP. We created a web application and created a root website under it. The problem is that we can't male crawling work in any way. Seems that crawling is not able to reach the web application that we want to crawl. In event viewer of the index we have this error when we try to crawl it: The start address <h..p://name.domain.it:81 cannot be crawled. Context: Application 'SSP1', Catalog 'Portal_Content' Details: The object was not found. (0x80041201) The log of crawling from the search admin, only says: h..p://name.domani.it:81 The object was not found. (The item was deleted because it was either not found or the crawler was denied access to it.) The domain is fully accessible from everywhere using both farm admin user or the search user that we are using for service to run. Site is fully accessible from the index and seem not have problem. Inside the we application we created a root site collection with a couple of file. The log of the farm simply says.... nothing! When we ask to do a full crawl of the site, it runs for a second and after we have the errors that I wrote above. But the farm's log says nothing. Any suggestion or help is really appreciated since we are losing a lot of time on it and really we do not have any idea of what's wrong about this farm.

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  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

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