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  • Is it possible to change HANDLE that has been opened for synchronous I/O to be opened for asynchrono

    - by Martin Dobšík
    Dear all, Most of my daily programming work in Windows is nowadays around I/O operations of all kind (pipes, consoles, files, sockets, ...). I am well aware of different methods of reading and writing from/to different kinds of handles (Synchronous, asynchronous waiting for completion on events, waiting on file HANDLEs, I/O completion ports, and alertable I/O). We use many of those. For some of our applications it would be very useful to have only one way to treat all handles. I mean, the program may not know, what kind of handle it has received and we would like to use, let's say, I/O completion ports for all. So first I would ask: Let's assume I have a handle: HANDLE h; which has been received by my process for I/O from somewhere. Is there any easy and reliable way to find out what flags it has been created with? The main flag in question is FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. The only way known to me so far, is to try to register such handle into I/O completion port (using CreateIoCompletionPort()). If that succeeds the handle has been created with FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. But then only I/O completion port must be used, as the handle can not be unregistered from it without closing the HANDLE h itself. Providing there is an easy a way to determine presence of FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, there would come my second question: Is there any way how to add such flag to already existing handle? That would make a handle that has been originally open for synchronous operations to be open for asynchronous. Would there be a way how to create opposite (remove the FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED to create synchronous handle from asynchronous)? I have not found any direct way after reading through MSDN and googling a lot. Would there be at least some trick that could do the same? Like re-creating the handle in same way using CreateFile() function or something similar? Something even partly documented or not documented at all? The main place where I would need this, is to determine the the way (or change the way) process should read/write from handles sent to it by third party applications. We can not control how third party products create their handles. Dear Windows gurus: help please! With regards Martin

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  • Problems with CGI wrapper for PHP

    - by user205878
    I'm having a bugger of a time with a CGI wrapper for PHP. I know very little about CGI and PHP as CGI. Here's what I know about the system: Solaris 10 on a 386 Suhosin PHP normally running as CGI, with cgiwrap (http://cgiwrap.sourceforge.net/). I am not able to find an example wrapper.cgi on the server to look at. Shared hosting (virtual host), so I don't have access to Apache config. But the admins are not helpful. Switching hosts is not an option. Options directive cannot be overridden in .htaccess (ExecCGI, for example). .htaccess: AddHandler php-handler .php Action php-handler "/bin/test.cgi" ~/public_html/bin/test.cgi: #!/usr/bin/sh # Without these 2 lines, I get an Internal Server Error echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to/php-cgi" 'foo.php'; /bin/foo.php: <?php echo "this is foo.php!"; Output of http://mysite.com/bin/test.cgi: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; Output of http:/ /mysite.com/anypage.php: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; The things I note are: PHP is being executed, as noted by the X-Powered-By ... header. The source of /bin/test.cgi is output in the results. No matter what I put as the second argument of exec, it isn't passed to the php binary. I've tried '-i' to get phpinfo, '-v' to get the version... When I execute test.cgi via the shell, I get the expected results (the argument is passed to php, and it is reflected in the output). Any ideas about how to get this to work? UPDATE It appears that the reason the source of the test.cgi was appearing was due to errors. Anytime fatal error occurred, either within the cgi itself or with the command being executed by exec, it would cause the source of the cgi to appear. Within test.cgi, I can get the proper output with exec "/path/to/php-cgi" -h (I get the same thing as I would from CLI).

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  • Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

    - by Nix
    I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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  • using Java interfaces

    - by mike_hornbeck
    I need to create interface MultiLingual, that allows to display object's data in different languages (not data itself, but introduction like "Author", "Title" etc.). Printed data looks like this : 3 grudnia 1998 10th of June 1924 Autor: Tolkien Tytul: LoTR Wydawnictwo: Amazon 2010 Author: Mitch Albom Title: Tuesdays with Morrie Publishing House: Time Warner Books 2003 37 360,45 PLN 5,850.70 GBP 3rd of December 1998 10th of June 1924 Author: Tolkien Title: LoTR Publishing House: Amazon 2010 Author: Mitch Albom Title: Tuesdays with Morrie Publishing House: Time Warner Books 2003 37,360.45 GBP 5,850.70 GBP Test code looks like this : public class Main { public static void main(String[] args){ MultiLingual gatecrasher[]={ new Data(3,12,1998), new Data(10,6,1924,MultiLingual.ENG), new Book("LoTR", "Tolkien", "Amazon", 2010), new Book("Tuesdays with Morrie", "Mitch Albom", "Time Warner Books",2003, MultiLingual.ENG), new Money(1232895/33.0,MultiLingual.PL), new Money(134566/23.0,MultiLingual.ENG), }; for(int i=0;i < gatecrasher.length;i++) System.out.println(gatecrasher[i]+"\n"); for(int i=0;i < gatecrasher.length;i++) System.out.println(gatecrasher[i].get(MultiLingual.ENG)+"\n"); } } So i need to introduce constants ENG, PL in MultiLingual interface, as well as method get(int language) : public interface MultiLingual { int ENG = 0; int PL= 1; String get(int lang); } And then I have class Book. Problem starts with the constructors. One of them needs to take MultiLingual.ENG as argument, but how to achieve that ? Is this the proper way? : class Book implements MultiLingual { private String title; private String publisher; private String author; public Book(String t, String a, String p, int y, MultiLingual lang){ } Or should I treat this MultiLingual.ENG as int variable , that will just change automatically constants in interface? Second constructor for book doesn't take MultLingual as argument, but following implementation is somehow wrong : public Book(String t, String a, String p, int y){ Book someBook = new Book(t, a, p, y, MultiLingual m); } I could just send int m in place of MultiLingual m but then I will have no control if language is set to PL or ENG. And finally get() method for Boook but I think at least this should be working fine: public String get(int lang){ String data; if (lang == ENG){ data = "Author: "+this.author+"\n"+ "Title: "+this.title+"\n"+ "Publisher: "+this.publisher+"\n"; } else { data = "Autor: "+this.author+"\n"+ "Tytul: "+this.title+"\n"+ "Wydawca: "+this.publisher+"\n"; } return data; } @Override public String toString(){ return ""; } }

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  • Securing a license key with RSA key.

    - by Jesse Knott
    Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

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  • Tomcat JNDI Connection Pool docs - Random Connection Closed Exceptions

    - by Andy Faibishenko
    I found this in the Tomcat documentation here What I don't understand is why they close all the JDBC objects twice - once in the try{} block and once in the finally{} block. Why not just close them once in the finally{} clause? This is the relevant docs: Random Connection Closed Exceptions These can occur when one request gets a db connection from the connection pool and closes it twice. When using a connection pool, closing the connection just returns it to the pool for reuse by another request, it doesn't close the connection. And Tomcat uses multiple threads to handle concurrent requests. Here is an example of the sequence of events which could cause this error in Tomcat: Request 1 running in Thread 1 gets a db connection. Request 1 closes the db connection. The JVM switches the running thread to Thread 2 Request 2 running in Thread 2 gets a db connection (the same db connection just closed by Request 1). The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 1 Request 1 closes the db connection a second time in a finally block. The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 2 Request 2 Thread 2 tries to use the db connection but fails because Request 1 closed it. Here is an example of properly written code to use a db connection obtained from a connection pool: Connection conn = null; Statement stmt = null; // Or PreparedStatement if needed ResultSet rs = null; try { conn = ... get connection from connection pool ... stmt = conn.createStatement("select ..."); rs = stmt.executeQuery(); ... iterate through the result set ... rs.close(); rs = null; stmt.close(); stmt = null; conn.close(); // Return to connection pool conn = null; // Make sure we don't close it twice } catch (SQLException e) { ... deal with errors ... } finally { // Always make sure result sets and statements are closed, // and the connection is returned to the pool if (rs != null) { try { rs.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } rs = null; } if (stmt != null) { try { stmt.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } stmt = null; } if (conn != null) { try { conn.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } conn = null; } }

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  • NSZombieEnabled breaking working code?

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I have the following method in UIImageManipulation.m: +(UIImage *)scaleImage:(UIImage *)source toSize:(CGSize)size { UIImage *scaledImage = nil; if (source != nil) { UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(size); [source drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, size.width, size.height)]; scaledImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } return scaledImage; } I am calling it in a different view with: imageFromFile = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageView.frame.size]; (imageView is a UIImageView allocated earlier) This is working great in my code. I resizes the image perfectly, and throws zero errors. I also don't have anything pop up under build - analyze. But the second I turn on NSZombieEnabled to debug a different EXC_BAD_ACCESS issue, the code breaks. Every single time. I can turn NSZombieEnabled off, code runs great. I turn it on, and boom. Broken. I comment out the call, and it works again. Every single time, it gives me an error in the console: -[UIImage release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b1d600. This error doesn't appear if `NSZombieEnabled is turned off. Any ideas? --EDIT-- Ok, This is killing me. I have stuck breakpoints everywhere I can, and I still cannot get a hold of this thing. Here is the full code when I call the scaleImage method: -(void)setupImageButton { UIImage *imageFromFile; if (object.imageAttribute == nil) { imageFromFile = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no-image.png"]; } else { imageFromFile = object.imageAttribute; } UIImage *scaledImage = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageButton.frame.size]; UIImage *roundedImage = [UIImageManipulator makeRoundCornerImage:scaledImage :10 :10 withBorder:YES]; [imageButton setBackgroundImage:roundedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } The other UIImageManipulator method (makeRoundCornerImage) shouldn't be causing the error, but just in case I'm overlooking something, I threw the entire file up on github here. It's something about this method though. Has to be. If I comment it out, it works great. If I leave it in, Error. But it doesn't throw errors with NSZombieEnabled turned off ever.

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  • Silverlight DataGrid's sort by column doesn't update programmatically changed cells

    - by David Seiler
    For my first Silverlight app, I've written a program that sends user-supplied search strings to the Flickr REST API and displays the results in a DataGrid. Said grid is defined like so: <data:DataGrid x:Name="PhotoGrid" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Photo Title" Binding="{Binding Title}" CanUserSort="True" CanUserReorder="True" CanUserResize="True" IsReadOnly="True" /> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Photo" SortMemberPath="ImageUrl"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" VerticalAlignment="Center"> <TextBlock Text="Click here to show image" MouseLeftButtonUp="ShowPhoto"/> <Image Visibility="Collapsed" MouseLeftButtonUp="HidePhoto"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> It's a simple two-column table. The first column contains the title of the photo, while the second contains the text 'Click here to show image'. Clicks there call ShowPhoto(), which updates the Image element's Source property with a BitmapImage derived from the URI of the Flickr photo, and sets the image's visibility to Visible. Clicking on the image thus revealed hides it again. All of this was easy to implement and works perfectly. But whenever I click on one of the column headers to sort by that column, the cells that I've updated in this way do not change. The rest of the DataGrid is resorted and updated appropriately, but those cells remain behind, detached from the rest of their row. This is very strange, and not at all what I want. What am I doing wrong? Should I be freshening the DataGrid somehow in response to the sort event, and if so how? Or if I'm not supposed to be messing with the contents of the grid directly, what's the right way to get the behavior I want?

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  • T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

    - by Greg Potter
    I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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  • Common DataAnnotations in ASP.Net MVC2

    - by Scott Mayfield
    Howdy, I have what should be a simple question. I have a set of validations that use System.CompontentModel.DataAnnotations . I have some validations that are specific to certain view models, so I'm comfortable with having the validation code in the same file as my models (as in the default AccountModels.cs file that ships with MVC2). But I have some common validations that apply to several models as well (valid email address format for example). When I cut/paste that validation to the second model that needs it, of course I get a duplicate definition error because they're in the same namespace (projectName.Models). So I thought of removing the common validations to a separate class within the namespace, expecting that all of my view models would be able to access the validations from there. Unexpectedly, the validations are no longer accessible. I've verified that they are still in the same namespace, and they are all public. I wouldn't expect that I would have to have any specific reference to them (tried adding using statement for the same namespace, but that didn't resolve it, and via the add references dialog, a project can't reference itself (makes sense). So any idea why public validations that have simply been moved to another file in the same namespace aren't visible to my models? CommonValidations.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class CommonValidations { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class EmailFormatValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value != null) { var expression = @"^[a-zA-Z][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]@[a-zA-Z0-9][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]\.[a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z\.]*[a-zA-Z]$"; return Regex.IsMatch(value.ToString(), expression); } else { return false; } } } } } And here's the code that I want to use the validation from: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using Growums.Models; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class PrivacyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Required")] [EmailFormatValid(ErrorMessage="Invalid Email")] public string Email { get; set; } } }

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  • Unable to capture standard output of process using Boost.Process

    - by Chris Kaminski
    Currently am using Boost.Process from the Boost sandbox, and am having issues getting it to capture my standard output properly; wondering if someone can give me a second pair of eyeballs into what I might be doing wrong. I'm trying to take thumbnails out of RAW camera images using DCRAW (latest version), and capture them for conversion to QT QImage's. The process launch function: namespace bf = ::boost::filesystem; namespace bp = ::boost::process; QImage DCRawInterface::convertRawImage(string path) { // commandline: dcraw -e -c <srcfile> -> piped to stdout. if ( bf::exists( path ) ) { std::string exec = "bin\\dcraw.exe"; std::vector<std::string> args; args.push_back("-v"); args.push_back("-c"); args.push_back("-e"); args.push_back(path); bp::context ctx; ctx.stdout_behavior = bp::capture_stream(); bp::child c = bp::launch(exec, args, ctx); bp::pistream &is = c.get_stdout(); ofstream output("C:\\temp\\testcfk.jpg"); streamcopy(is, output); } return (NULL); } inline void streamcopy(std::istream& input, std::ostream& out) { char buffer[4096]; int i = 0; while (!input.eof() ) { memset(buffer, 0, sizeof(buffer)); int bytes = input.readsome(buffer, sizeof buffer); out.write(buffer, bytes); i++; } } Invoking the converter: DCRawInterface DcRaw; DcRaw.convertRawImage("test/CFK_2439.NEF"); The goal is to simply verify that I can copy the input stream to an output file. Currently, if I comment out the following line: args.push_back("-c"); then the thumbnail is written by DCRAW to the source directory with a name of CFK_2439.thumb.jpg, which proves to me that the process is getting invoked with the right arguments. What's not happening is connecting to the output pipe properly. FWIW: I'm performing this test on Windows XP under Eclipse 3.5/Latest MingW (GCC 4.4).

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  • JavaScript: Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

    - by Mike
    I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync.

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  • How to create a compiler in vb.net

    - by Cyclone
    Before answering this question, understand that I am not asking how to create my own programming language, I am asking how, using vb.net code, I can create a compiler for a language like vb.net itself. Essentially, the user inputs code, they get a .exe. By NO MEANS do I want to write my own language, as it seems other compiler related questions on here have asked. I also do not want to use the vb.net compiler itself, nor do I wish to duplicate the IDE. The exact purpose of what I wish to do is rather hard to explain, but all I need is a nudge in the right direction for writing a compiler (from scratch if possible) which can simply take input and create a .exe. I have opened .exe files as plain text before (my own programs) to see if I could derive some meaning from what I assumed would be human readable text, yet I was obviously sorely disappointed to see the random ascii, though it is understandable why this is all I found. I know that a .exe file is simply lines of code, being parsed by the computer it is on, but my question here really boils down to this: What code makes up a .exe? How could I go about making one in a plain text editor if I wanted to? (No, I do not want to do that, but if I understand the process my goals will be much easier to achieve.) What makes an executable file an executable file? Where does the logic of the code fit in? This is intended to be a programming question as opposed to a computer question, which is why I did not post it on SuperUser. I know plenty of information about the System.IO namespace, so I know how to create a file and write to it, I simply do not know what exactly I would be placing inside this file to get it to work as an executable file. I am sorry if this question is "confusing", "dumb", or "obvious", but I have not been able to find any information regarding the actual contents of an executable file anywhere. One of my google searches Something that looked promising EDIT: The second link here, while it looked good, was an utter fail. I am not going to waste hours of my time hitting keys and recording the results. "Use the "Alt" and the 3-digit combinations to create symbols that do not appear on the keyboard but that you need in the program." (step 4) How the heck do I know what symbols I need??? Thank you very much for your help, and my apologies if this question is a nooby or "bad" one. To sum this up simply: I want to create a program in vb.net that can compile code in a particular language to a single executable file. What methods exist that can allow me to do this, and if there are none, how can I go about writing my own from scratch?

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  • Unexpected behavior of IntentService

    - by kknight
    I used IntentService in my code instead of Service because IntentService creates a thread for me in onHandleIntent(Intent intent), so I don't have to create a Thead myself in the code of my service. I expected that two intents to the same IntentSerivce will execute in parallel because a thread is generated in IntentService for each invent. But my code turned out that the two intents executed in sequential way. This is my IntentService code: public class UpdateService extends IntentService { public static final String TAG = "HelloTestIntentService"; public UpdateService() { super("News UpdateService"); } protected void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { String userAction = intent .getStringExtra("userAction"); Log.v(TAG, "" + new Date() + ", In onHandleIntent for userAction = " + userAction + ", thread id = " + Thread.currentThread().getId()); if ("1".equals(userAction)) { try { Thread.sleep(20 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { Log.e(TAG, "error", e); } Log.v(TAG, "" + new Date() + ", This thread is waked up."); } } } And the code call the service is below: public class HelloTest extends Activity { //@Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Intent selectIntent = new Intent(this, UpdateService.class); selectIntent.putExtra("userAction", "1"); this.startService(selectIntent); selectIntent = new Intent(this, UpdateService.class); selectIntent.putExtra("userAction", "2"); this.startService(selectIntent); } } I saw this log message in the log: V/HelloTestIntentService( 848): Wed May 05 14:59:37 PDT 2010, In onHandleIntent for userAction = 1, thread id = 8 D/dalvikvm( 609): GC freed 941 objects / 55672 bytes in 99ms V/HelloTestIntentService( 848): Wed May 05 15:00:00 PDT 2010, This thread is waked up. V/HelloTestIntentService( 848): Wed May 05 15:00:00 PDT 2010, In onHandleIntent for userAction = 2, thread id = 8 I/ActivityManager( 568): Stopping service: com.example.android/.UpdateService The log shows that the second intent waited the first intent to finish and they are in the same thread. It there anything I misunderstood of IntentService. To make two service intents execute in parallel, do I have to replace IntentService with service and start a thread myself in the service code? Thanks.

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  • TcpListener is queuing connections faster than I can clear them

    - by Matthew Brindley
    As I understand it, TcpListener will queue connections once you call Start(). Each time you call AcceptTcpClient (or BeginAcceptTcpClient), it will dequeue one item from the queue. If we load test our TcpListener app by sending 1,000 connections to it at once, the queue builds far faster than we can clear it, leading (eventually) to timeouts from the client because it didn't get a response because its connection was still in the queue. However, the server doesn't appear to be under much pressure, our app isn't consuming much CPU time and the other monitored resources on the machine aren't breaking a sweat. It feels like we're not running efficiently enough right now. We're calling BeginAcceptTcpListener and then immediately handing over to a ThreadPool thread to actually do the work, then calling BeginAcceptTcpClient again. The work involved doesn't seem to put any pressure on the machine, it's basically just a 3 second sleep followed by a dictionary lookup and then a 100 byte write to the TcpClient's stream. Here's the TcpListener code we're using: // Thread signal. private static ManualResetEvent tcpClientConnected = new ManualResetEvent(false); public void DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(TcpListener listener) { // Set the event to nonsignaled state. tcpClientConnected.Reset(); listener.BeginAcceptTcpClient( new AsyncCallback(DoAcceptTcpClientCallback), listener); // Wait for signal tcpClientConnected.WaitOne(); } public void DoAcceptTcpClientCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // Get the listener that handles the client request, and the TcpClient TcpListener listener = (TcpListener)ar.AsyncState; TcpClient client = listener.EndAcceptTcpClient(ar); if (inProduction) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client, serverCertificate)); // With SSL else ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client)); // Without SSL // Signal the calling thread to continue. tcpClientConnected.Set(); } public void Start() { currentHandledRequests = 0; tcpListener = new TcpListener(IPAddress.Any, 10000); try { tcpListener.Start(); while (true) DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(tcpListener); } catch (SocketException) { // The TcpListener is shutting down, exit gracefully CheckBuffer(); return; } } I'm assuming the answer will be related to using Sockets instead of TcpListener, or at least using TcpListener.AcceptSocket, but I wondered how we'd go about doing that? One idea we had was to call AcceptTcpClient and immediately Enqueue the TcpClient into one of multiple Queue<TcpClient> objects. That way, we could poll those queues on separate threads (one queue per thread), without running into monitors that might block the thread while waiting for other Dequeue operations. Each queue thread could then use ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem to have the work done in a ThreadPool thread and then move onto dequeuing the next TcpClient in its queue. Would you recommend this approach, or is our problem that we're using TcpListener and no amount of rapid dequeueing is going to fix that?

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • Advice on logic circuits and serial communications

    - by Spencer Ruport
    As far as I understand the serial port so far, transferring data is done over pin 3. As shown here: There are two things that make me uncomfortable about this. The first is that it seems to imply that the two connected devices agree on a signal speed and the second is that even if they are configured to run at the same speed you run into possible synchronization issues... right? Such things can be handled I suppose but it seems like there must be a simpler method. What seems like a better approach to me would be to have one of the serial port pins send a pulse that indicates that the next bit is ready to be stored. So if we're hooking these pins up to a shift register we basically have: (some pulse pin)-clk, tx-d Is this a common practice? Is there some reason not to do this? EDIT Mike shouldn't have deleted his answer. This I2C (2 pin serial) approach seems fairly close to what I did. The serial port doesn't have a clock you're right nobugz but that's basically what I've done. See here: private void SendBytes(byte[] data) { int baudRate = 0; int byteToSend = 0; int bitToSend = 0; byte bitmask = 0; byte[] trigger = new byte[1]; trigger[0] = 0; SerialPort p; try { p = new SerialPort(cmbPorts.Text); } catch { return; } if (!int.TryParse(txtBaudRate.Text, out baudRate)) return; if (baudRate < 100) return; p.BaudRate = baudRate; for (int index = 0; index < data.Length * 8; index++) { byteToSend = (int)(index / 8); bitToSend = index - (byteToSend * 8); bitmask = (byte)System.Math.Pow(2, bitToSend); p.Open(); p.Parity = Parity.Space; p.RtsEnable = (byte)(data[byteToSend] & bitmask) > 0; s = p.BaseStream; s.WriteByte(trigger[0]); p.Close(); } } Before anyone tells me how ugly this is or how I'm destroying my transfer speeds my quick answer is I don't care about that. My point is this seems much much simpler than the method you described in your answer nobugz. And it wouldn't be as ugly if the .Net SerialPort class gave me more control over the pin signals. Are there other serial port APIs that do?

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  • Oracle Coding Standards Feature Implementation

    - by Mike Hofer
    Okay, I have reached a sort of an impasse. In my open source project, a .NET-based Oracle database browser, I've implemented a bunch of refactoring tools. So far, so good. The one feature I was really hoping to implement was a big "Global Reformat" that would make the code (scripts, functions, procedures, packages, views, etc.) standards compliant. (I've always been saddened by the lack of decent SQL refactoring tools, and wanted to do something about it.) Unfortunatey, I am discovering, much to my chagrin, that there doesn't seem to be any one widely-used or even "generally accepted" standard for PL-SQL. That kind of puts a crimp on my implementation plans. My search has been fairly exhaustive. I've found lots of conflicting documents, threads and articles and the opinions are fairly diverse. (Comma placement, of all things, seems to generate quite a bit of debate.) So I'm faced with a couple of options: Add a feature that lets the user customize the standard and then reformat the code according to that standard. —OR— Add a feature that lets the user customize the standard and simply generate a violations list like StyleCop does, leaving the SQL untouched. In my mind, the first option saves the end-users a lot of work, but runs the risk of modifying SQL in potentially unwanted ways. The second option runs the risk of generating lots of warnings and doing no work whatsoever. (It'd just be generally annoying.) In either scenario, I still have no standard to go by. What I'd need to know from you guys is kind of poll-ish, but kind of not. If you were going to use a tool of this nature, what parts of your SQL code would you want it to warn you about or fix? Again, I'm just at a loss due to a lack of a cohesive standard. And given that there isn't anything out there that's officially published by Oracle, I think this is something the community could weigh in on. Also, given the way that voting works on SO, the votes would help to establish the popularity of a given "refactoring." P.S. The engine parses SQL into an expression tree so it can robustly analyze the SQL and reformat it. There should be quite a bit that we can do to correct the format of the SQL. But I am thinking that for the first release of the thing, layout is the primary concern. Though it is worth noting that the thing already has refactorings for converting keywords to upper case, and identifiers to lower case.

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  • Comparing two large sets of attributes

    - by andyashton
    Suppose you have a Django view that has two functions: The first function renders some XML using a XSLT stylesheet and produces a div with 1000 subelements like this: <div id="myText"> <p id="p1"><a class="note-p1" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Lorem ipsum</p> <p id="p2"><a class="note-p2" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Foo bar</p> <p id="p3"><a class="note-p3" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Chocolate peanut butter</p> (etc for 1000 lines) <p id="p1000"><a class="note-p1000" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Go Yankees!</p> </div> The second function renders another XML document using another stylesheet to produce a div like this: <div id="myNotes"> <p id="n1"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>1</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n2"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>2</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n3"><cite class="note-p2"><sup>3</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> (etc for n lines) <p id="n"><cite class="note-p885"><sup>n</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> </div> I need to see which elements in #myText have classes that match elements in #myNotes, and display them. I can do this using the following jQuery: $('#myText').find('a').each(function() { var $anchor = $(this); $('#myNotes').find('cite').each(function() { if($(this).attr('class') == $anchor.attr('class')) { $anchor.show(); }); }); However this is incredibly slow and inefficient for a large number of comparisons. What is the fastest/most efficient way to do this - is there a jQuery/js method that is reasonable for a large number of items? Or do I need to reengineer the Django code to do the work before passing it to the template?

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  • IoC/DI in the face of winforms and other generated code

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    When using dependency injection (DI) and inversion of control (IoC) objects will typically have a constructor that accepts the set of dependencies required for the object to function properly. For example, if I have a form that requires a service to populate a combo box you might see something like this: // my files public interface IDataService { IList<MyData> GetData(); } public interface IComboDataService { IList<MyComboData> GetComboData(); } public partial class PopulatedForm : BaseForm { private IDataService service; public PopulatedForm(IDataService service) { //... InitializeComponent(); } } This works fine at the top level, I just use my IoC container to resolve the dependencies: var form = ioc.Resolve<PopulatedForm>(); But in the face of generated code, this gets harder. In winforms a second file composing the rest of the partial class is generated. This file references other components, such as custom controls, and uses no-args constructors to create such controls: // generated file: PopulatedForm.Designer.cs public partial class PopulatedForm { private void InitializeComponent() { this.customComboBox = new UserCreatedComboBox(); // customComboBox has an IComboDataService dependency } } Since this is generated code, I can't pass in the dependencies and there's no easy way to have my IoC container automatically inject all the dependencies. One solution is to pass in the dependencies of each child component to PopulatedForm even though it may not need them directly, such as with the IComboDataService required by the UserCreatedComboBox. I then have the responsibility to make sure that the dependencies are provided through various properties or setter methods. Then, my PopulatedForm constructor might look as follows: public PopulatedForm(IDataService service, IComboDataService comboDataService) { this.service = service; InitializeComponent(); this.customComboBox.ComboDataService = comboDataService; } Another possible solution is to have the no-args constructor to do the necessary resolution: public class UserCreatedComboBox { private IComboDataService comboDataService; public UserCreatedComboBox() { if (!DesignMode && IoC.Instance != null) { comboDataService = Ioc.Instance.Resolve<IComboDataService>(); } } } Neither solution is particularly good. What patterns and alternatives are available to more capably handle dependency-injection in the face of generated code? I'd love to see both general solutions, such as patterns, and ones specific to C#, Winforms, and Autofac.

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  • Symfony: embedRelation() controlling options for nesting multiple levels of relations

    - by wulftone
    Hey all, I'm trying to set some conditional statements for nested embedRelation() instances, and can't find a way to get any kind of option through to the second embedRelation. I've got a "Measure-Page-Question" table relationship, and I'd like to be able to choose whether or not to display the Question table. For example, say I have two "success" pages, page1Success.php and page2Success.php. On page1, I'd like to display "Measure-Page-Question", and on page2, I'd like to display "Measure-Page", but I need a way to pass an "option" to the PageForm.class.php file to make that kind of decision. My actions.class.php file has something like this: // actions.class.php $this-form = new measureForm($measure, array('option'=$option)); to pass an option to the "Page", but passing that option through "Page" into "Question" doesn't work. My measureForm.class.php file has an embedRelation in it that is dependent on the "option": // measureForm.class.php if ($this-getOption('option') == "page_1") { $this-embedRelation('Page'); } and this is what i'd like to do in my pageForm.class.php file: // pageForm.class.php if ($this-getOption('option') == "page_1") { // Or != "page_2", or whatever $this-embedRelation('Question'); } I can't seem to find a way to do this. Any ideas? Is there a preferred Symfony way of doing this type of operation, perhaps without embedRelation? Thanks, -Trevor As requested, here's my schema.yml: # schema.yml Measure: connection: doctrine tableName: measure columns: _kp_mid: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true description: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false frequency: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Page: local: _kp_mid foreign: _kf_mid type: many Page: connection: doctrine tableName: page columns: _kp_pid: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true _kf_mid: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false next: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false number: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false previous: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Measure: local: _kf_mid foreign: _kp_mid type: one Question: local: _kp_pid foreign: _kf_pid type: many Question: connection: doctrine tableName: question columns: _kp_qid: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true _kf_pid: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false text: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false type: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Page: local: _kf_pid foreign: _kp_pid type: one

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  • RMI-applets - Cannot understand error message

    - by aeter
    In a simple RMI game I'm writing (an assignment in uni), I reveice: java.rmi.MarshalException: error marshalling arguments; nested exception is: java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:138) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invokeRemoteMethod(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:178) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:132) at $Proxy2.drawWorld(Unknown Source) at PlayerServerImpl$1.actionPerformed(PlayerServerImpl.java:180) at javax.swing.Timer.fireActionPerformed(Timer.java:271) at javax.swing.Timer$DoPostEvent.run(Timer.java:201) at java.awt.event.InvocationEvent.dispatch(InvocationEvent.java:209) at java.awt.EventQueue.dispatchEvent(EventQueue.java:597) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.pumpOneEventForFilters(EventDispatchThread.java:269) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForFilter(EventDispatchThread.java:184) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForHierarchy(EventDispatchThread.java:174) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(EventDispatchThread.java:169) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(EventDispatchThread.java:161) at java.awt.EventDispatchThread.run(EventDispatchThread.java:122) The error message appears after the second Player is registered with the RMI Server and the server starts to send the image (the array of pixels) to the 2 applets. The PlayerImpl and the PlayerServerImpl both extend UnicastRemoteObject. I have been struggling with other error messages for some time now, but I cannot understand how to troubleshoot this one. Please help. The relevant parts of the code are: PlayerServerImpl.java: ... timer = new Timer(10, new ActionListener() { // every 10 milliseconds do: @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { ... BufferedImage buff_image = new BufferedImage(GAME_APPLET_WIDTH, GAME_APPLET_HEIGHT, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); // create a graphics context on the buffered image Graphics buff_g = buff_image.createGraphics(); ... // draw the score somewhere on the screen buff_g.drawString(score, GAME_APPLET_WIDTH - 20, 10); ... int[] rgbs = new int[GAME_APPLET_WIDTH * GAME_APPLET_HEIGHT]; int imgPixelsGrabbed[] = buff_image.getRGB(0,0,GAME_APPLET_WIDTH,GAME_APPLET_HEIGHT,rgbs,0,GAME_APPLET_WIDTH); // send the new state to the applets for (Player player : players) { player.drawWorld(imgPixelsGrabbed); System.out.println("Sent image to player"); } PlayerImpl.java: private PlayerApplet applet; public PlayerImpl(PlayerApplet applet) throws RemoteException { super(); this.applet = applet; } ... @Override public void drawWorld(int[] imgPixelsGrabbed) throws RemoteException { applet.setWorld(imgPixelsGrabbed); applet.repaint(); } ... PlayerApplet.java: ... private int[] world; // an array of pixels for the new image to be drawn ... // register players player = new PlayerImpl(applet); String serverIPAddressPort = ipAddressField.getText(); if (validateIPAddressPort(serverIPAddressPort)) { server = (PlayerServer) Naming.lookup("rmi://" + serverIPAddressPort + "/PlayerServer"); server.register(player); idPlayer = server.sendPlayerID(); ... @Override public void update(Graphics g) { buff_img = createImage((ImageProducer) new MemoryImageSource(getWidth(), getHeight(), world, 0, getWidth())); Graphics gr = buff_img.getGraphics(); paint(gr); g.drawImage(buff_img, 0, 0, this); } public void setWorld(int[] world) { this.world = world; }

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  • Robust LINQ to XML query for sibling key-value pairs

    - by awshepard
    (First post, please be gentle!) I am just learning about LINQ to XML in all its glory and frailty, trying to hack it to do what I want to do: Given an XML file like this - <list> <!-- random data, keys, values, etc.--> <key>FIRST_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>FIRST_WANTED_VALUE</value> <key>SECOND_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>SECOND_WANTED_VALUE</value> <!-- wanted because it's first --> <key>SECOND_WANTED_KEY</key> <value>UNWANTED_VALUE</value> <!-- not wanted because it's second --> <!-- nonexistent <key>THIRD_WANTED_KEY</key> --> <!-- nonexistent <value>THIRD_WANTED_VALUE</value> --> <!-- more stuff--> </list> I want to extract the values of a set of known "wanted keys" in a robust fashion, i.e. if SECOND_WANTED_KEY appears twice, I only want SECOND_WANTED_VALUE, not UNWANTED_VALUE. Additionally, THIRD_WANTED_KEY may or may not appear, so the query should be able to handle that as well. I can assume that FIRST_WANTED_KEY will appear before other keys, but can't assume anything about the order of the other keys - if a key appears twice, its values aren't important, I only want the first one. An anonymous data type consisting of strings is fine. My attempt has centered around something along these lines: var z = from y in x.Descendants() where y.Value == "FIRST_WANTED_KEY" select new { first_wanted_value = ((XElement)y.NextNode).Value, //... } My question is what should that ... be? I've tried, for instance, (ugly, I know) second_wanted_value = ((XElement)y.ElementsAfterSelf() .Where(w => w.Value=="SECOND_WANTED_KEY") .FirstOrDefault().NextNode).Value which should hopefully allow the key to be anywhere, or non-existent, but that hasn't worked out, since .NextNode on a null XElement doesn't seem to work. I've also tried to add in a .Select(t => { if (t==null) return new XElement("SECOND_WANTED_KEY",""); else return t; }) clause in after the where, but that hasn't worked either. I'm open to suggestions, (constructive) criticism, links, references, or suggestions of phrases to Google for, etc. I've done a fair share of Googling and checking around S.O., so any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How to write this Linq SQL as a Dynamic Query (using strings)?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Skip to the "specific question" as needed. Some background: The scenario: I have a set of products with a "drill down" filter (Query Object) populated with DDLs. Each progressive DDL selection will further limit the product list as well as what options are left for the DDLs. For example, selecting a hammer out of tools limits the Product Sizes to only show hammer sizes. Current setup: I created a query object, sent it to a repository, and fed each option to a SQL "table valued function" where null values represent "get all products". I consider this a good effort, but far from DDD acceptable. I want to avoid any "programming" in SQL, hopefully doing everything with a repository. Comments on this topic would be appreciated. Specific question: How would I rewrite this query as a Dynamic Query? A link to something like 101 Linq Examples would be fantastic, but with a Dynamic Query scope. I really want to pass to this method the field in quotes "" for which I want a list of options and how many products have that option. from p in db.Products group p by p.ProductSize into g select new Category { PropertyType = g.Key, Count = g.Count() } Each DDL option will have "The selection (21)" where the (21) is the quantity of products that have that attribute. Upon selecting an option, all other remaining DDLs will update with the remaining options and counts. Edit: Additional notes: .OrderBy("it.City") // "it" refers to the entire record .GroupBy("City", "new(City)") // This produces a unique list of City .Select("it.Count()") //This gives a list of counts... getting closer .Select("key") // Selects a list of unique City .Select("new (key, count() as string)") // +1 to me LOL. key is a row of group .GroupBy("new (City, Manufacturer)", "City") // New = list of fields to group by .GroupBy("City", "new (Manufacturer, Size)") // Second parameter is a projection Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("new(City)", "new ( null as string)")// Projection not available later? .Select("new (key.City, it.count() as string)")// GroupBy new makes key an object Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("new(City)", "new ( null as string)")// Projection not available later? .Select("new (key.City, it as object)")// the it object is the result of GroupBy var a = Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("@0", "it", "City") // This fails to group Product at all .Select("new ( Key, it as Product )"); // "it" is property cast though What I have learned so far is LinqPad is fantastic, but still looking for an answer. Eventually, completely random research like this will prevail I guess. LOL. Edit:

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  • php recursive list help

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am trying to display a recursive list in PHP for a site I am working on. I am really having trouble trying to get the second level to display. I have a function that displays the contents to the page as follows. function get_menu_entries($content,$which=0) { global $tbl_prefix, $sys_explorer_vars, $sys_config_vars; // INIT LIBRARIES $db = new DB_Tpl(); $curr_time = time(); $db->query("SELECT * FROM ".$tbl_prefix."sys_explorer WHERE preid = '".$which."' && config_id = '".$sys_explorer_vars['config_id']."' && blocked = '0' && startdate < '".$curr_time."' && (enddate > '".$curr_time."' || enddate = '') ORDER BY preid,sorting"); while($db->next_record()){ $indent = $db->f("level") * 10 - 10; $sitemap_vars['break'] = ""; $sitemap_vars['bold'] = ""; if($db->f("level") == 2) { $sitemap_vars['ul_start'] = ""; $sitemap_vars['bold'] = "class='bold'"; $sitemap_vars['ul_end'] = ""; } switch($db->f("link_type")) { case '1': // External Url $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = $db->f("link_url"); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; if($db->f("link_target") != "") { $sitemap_vars['target'] = "target=\"".$db->f("link_target")."\""; } break; case '2': // Shortcut $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = create_url($db->f("link_eid"),$db->f("name"),$sys_config_vars['mod_rewrite']); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; break; default: $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = create_url($db->f("eid"),$db->f("name"),$sys_config_vars['mod_rewrite']); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; break; } if($db->f("level") > 1) { $content .= "<div style=\"text-indent: ".$indent."px;\" ".$sitemap_vars['bold']."><a href=\"".$sitemap_vars['hyperlink']."\" ".$sitemap_vars['target'].">".$db->f("name")."</a></div>\n"; } $content = get_menu_entries($content,$db->f("eid")); } return(''.$content.''); } At the moment the content displays properly, however I want to turn this function into a DHTML dropdown menu. At present what happens with the level 2 elements is that using CSS the contents are indented using CSS. What I need to happen is to place the UL tag at the beginning and /UL tag at the end of the level 2 elements. I hope this makes sense. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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