Search Results

Search found 2068 results on 83 pages for 'refer'.

Page 61/83 | < Previous Page | 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68  | Next Page >

  • Where and how to start on C# and .Net Framework ?

    - by Rachel
    Currently, I have been working as an PHP developer for approximately 1 year now and I want learn about C# and .Net Framework, I do not have any experience with .Net Framework and C# and also there is not firm basis as to why I am going for C# and .Net Framework vs Java or any other programming languages, this decision is mere on career point of view and job opportunities. So my question is about: Is my decision wise to go for C# and .Net Framework route after working for sometime as an PHP Developer ? What are the good resources which I can refer and learn from to get knowledge on C# and .NET Framework ? How should I go about learning on C# and .NET Framework ? What all technologies should I be learning OR have experience with to be considered as an C#/.Net Developer, I am mentioning some technologies, please add or suggest one, if am missing out any ? Technologies C#-THE LANGUAGE GUI APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT WINDOWS CONTROL LIBRARY DELEGATES DATA ACCESS WITH ADO.NET MULTI THREADING ASSEMBLIES WINDOWS SERVICES VB INTRODUCTION TO VISUAL STUDIO .NET WINDOWS CONTROL LIBRARY DATA ACCESS WITH ADO.NET ASP.NET WEB TECHNOLOGIES CONTROLS VALIDATION CONTROL STATE MANAGEMENT CACHING ASP.NET CONFIGURATION ADO.NET ASP.NET TRACING & SECURITY IN ASP.NET XMLPROGRAMMING WEB SERVICES CRYSTAL REPORTS SSRS (SQL Server Reporting Services) MS-Reports LINQ: NET Language-Integrated Query NET Language-Integrated Query LINQ to SQL: SQL Integration WCF: Windows Communication Foundation What Is Windows Communication Foundation? Fundamental Windows Communication Foundation Concepts Windows Communication Foundation Architecture WPF: Windows Presentation Foundation Getting Started (WPF) Application Development WPF Fundamentals What are your thoughts, suggestions on this and from Job and Market Perspective, what areas of C#/.Net Development should I put my focus on ? I know this is very subjective and long question but advice would be highly appeciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

    Read the article

  • WCF done broke.

    - by SteveCav
    WCF is completely fouled up on my machine. I start a new sln in VS2008. Add a project (WCF Service Lib).Build the project (builds ok). debug the project -- it gets halfway through the progress bar and bombs out with the error below (real path changed to "my mex path" so codeproject doesn't think its spam). I'm assuming it's file permissions but don't know where to start. Any ideas?: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from my mex path If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at somewhere unhelpful Exchange Error URI: my mex path Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'my mex path'. Could not connect to my mex path. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731HTTP GET Error URI: my mex path There was an error downloading 'my mex path'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731

    Read the article

  • Media recommendation engine - Single user system - How to start

    - by Microkernel
    Hi guys, I want to implement a media recommendation engine. I saw a similar posts on this, but I think my requirements are bit different from those, so posting here. Here is the deal. I want to implement a recommendation engine for media players like VLC, which would be an engine that has to care for only single user. Like, it would be embedded in a media player on a PC which is typically used by single user. And it will start learning the likes and dislikes of the user and gradually learns what a user likes. Here it will not be able to find similar users for using their data for recommendation as its a single user system. So how to go about this? Or you can consider it as a recommendation engine that has to be put in say iPods, which has to learn about a single user and recommend music/Movies from the collections it has. I thought of start collecting the genre of music/movies (maybe even artist name) that user watches and recommend movies from the most watched Genre, but it look very crude, isn't it? So is there any algorithms I can use or any resources I can refer up to? Regards, MicroKernel :)

    Read the article

  • Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

    - by David Easley
    Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • JS Object this.method() breaks via jQuery

    - by Peter Boughton
    I'm sure there's a simple answer to this, but it's Friday afternoon and I'm tired. :( Not sure how to explain it, so I'll just go ahead and post example code... Here is a simple object: var Bob = { Stuff : '' , init : function() { this.Stuff = arguments[0] } , doSomething : function() { console.log( this.Stuff ); } } And here it is being used: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready( init ); function init() { Bob.init('hello'); Bob.doSomething(); $j('#MyButton').click( Bob.doSomething ); } Everything works, except for the last line. When jQuery calls the doSomething method it is overriding 'this' and stopping it from working. Trying to use just Stuff doesn't work either. So how do I refer to an object's own properties in a way that allows jQuery to call it, and also allows the object to work with the calling jQuery object? i.e. I would like to be able to do things like this: doSomething : function() { console.log( <CurrentObject>.Stuff + $j(<CallerElement>).attr('id') ); } (Where <CurrentObject> and <CallerElement> are replaced with appropriate names.)

    Read the article

  • Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

    - by Tzur Gazit
    I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

    Read the article

  • Restful WCF Service - how to send data with illegal XML characters?

    - by Chris
    I have a RESTful WCF web service. One of my methods has several input parameters. One of the input parameters is a string. Some times the data I am passing to this web method will include content that has one or more "illegal characters" - i.e. "&". So, I replace this with &amp; before passing it to the web service - but it still throws an exception. The exception isn't visible, as the data never reaches the web service, but I know that it is this content that is causing the problem, as I have done several tests sending data that doesn't contain an illegal XML character, and every time it worked, but any data containing "&" will fail. Am I not supposed to replace "&" with &amp;? Please refer to the web method below: [WebGet] public MapNode AddMapNode(string nodeText) { return new inProcessEntities().AddMapNode(nodeText); } Please help on how I can fix this. Thanks. Chris

    Read the article

  • Mixins, variadic templates, and CRTP in C++

    - by Eitan
    Here's the scenario: I'd like to have a host class that can have a variable number of mixins (not too hard with variadic templates--see for example http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/summary?doi=10.1.1.103.144). However, I'd also like the mixins to be parameterized by the host class, so that they can refer to its public types (using the CRTP idiom). The problem arises when trying to mix the too--the correct syntax is unclear to me. For example, the following code fails to compile with g++ 4.4.1: template <template<class> class... Mixins> class Host : public Mixins<Host<Mixins>>... { public: template <class... Args> Host(Args&&... args) : Mixins<Host>(std::forward<Args>(args))... {} }; template <class Host> struct Mix1 {}; template <class Host> struct Mix2 {}; typedef Host<Mix1, Mix2> TopHost; TopHost *th = new TopHost(Mix1<TopHost>(), Mix2<TopHost>()); With the error: tst.cpp: In constructor ‘Host<Mixins>::Host(Args&& ...) [with Args = Mix1<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >, Mix2<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >, Mixins = Mix1, Mix2]’: tst.cpp:33: instantiated from here tst.cpp:18: error: type ‘Mix1<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >’ is not a direct base of ‘Host<Mix1, Mix2>’ tst.cpp:18: error: type ‘Mix2<Host<Mix1, Mix2> >’ is not a direct base of ‘Host<Mix1, Mix2>’ Does anyone have successful experience mixing variadic templates with CRTP?

    Read the article

  • Unable to change the system zone setting on Windows Server 2008 R2.

    - by Ganesh
    Hi All, I have an MFC application that tries to change the system zone setting on the Windows Server 2008 R2. I am using the SetTimeZoneInformation() API which fails with the error code 1314 .i.e. “A required privilege is not held by the client.”. Please refer the sample code below: TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION l_TimeZoneInfo; DWORD l_dwRetVal = 0; ZeroMemory(&l_TimeZoneInfo, sizeof(TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION)); l_TimeZoneInfo.Bias = -330; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardBias = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wDay = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wDayOfWeek = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wHour = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMilliseconds = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMinute = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wMonth = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wSecond = 0; l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardDate.wYear = 0; CString l_csDaylightName = _T("India Daylight Time"); CString l_csStdName = _T("India Standard Time"); wcscpy(l_TimeZoneInfo.DaylightName,l_csDaylightName.GetBuffer(l_csDaylightName.GetLength())); wcscpy(l_TimeZoneInfo.StandardName,l_csStdName.GetBuffer(l_csStdName.GetLength())); ::SetLastError(0); if(0 == ::SetTimeZoneInformation(&l_TimeZoneInfo)) { l_dwRetVal = ::GetLastError(); CString l_csErr = _T(""); l_csErr.Format(_T("%d"),l_dwRetVal); } The MFC application has been developed using Visual Studio 2008 and is UAC aware i.e. the application has UAC enabled in its manifest file with the UAC execution level set to “HighestAvailable”. I have administrator privileges and when I run the application it still fails to change the system zone setting. Thanks in Advance, Ganesh

    Read the article

  • Change select's class based on selected option's class

    - by Alasdair
    I have a page that contains numerous <select> elements. What I'm trying to achieve is to ensure that if a <select>'s selected <option> has a class called italic, then the <select> then has the italic class added (i.e. jQuery.addClass('italic')). If it doesn't, then the italic class is removed from the <select> to ensure other <option> elements are displayed correctly (i.e. jQuery.removeClass('italic')). What I'm noticing with most of my attempts is that either all the <select> have the italic class or that the italic class isn't being removed accordingly. Since I'm unsure my choice in selectors and callback logic are particularly sound or good practice in this instance (as I've been frustratingly trying to make it work) I've decided not to include the code I used in previous attempts. Instead, refer to this small HTML & CSS example: .italic { font-style: italic; } <select id="foo" name="foo" size="1" <option value="NA" selected="selected" - Select - </option <option value="1"Bar</option <option value="2"Fu</option <option value="3"Baz</option </select Also, I am aware that not all browsers support CSS styling of <select> and <option>. The related J2EE web application will only ever be accessed via Firefox under a controlled environment.

    Read the article

  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Cascading input control is empty while accessing a Jasper Report

    - by Yogesh R
    I call a jasper report through an independent URL through which I pass one of the input controls needed to run the report. E.g. http:// localhost:8080/jasperserver/flow.html?_flowId=viewReportFlow&standAlone=true&reportUnit=xyz&ParentFolderUri=abcd&j_username=xyz&j_password=xyz&parameter1=value1& . . . As you can see in the URL, I pass the JasperServer username and password, reportUnit name and location and other mandatory parameters, along with the report input parameter, i.e., "parameter1" which can have a value like "value1". I used a mandatory, read-only and visible input control for this input value. Its value would come from the URL, showed in the box but was read-only and hence could not be changed. The report was working absolutely fine upto this point. But the tragedy began when my client rejected this idea. He wanted a completely invisible input control to my report and the input value would be passed through the URL, just like illustrated above. And then my client asked me to refer to this and made me work on cascading input controls. Recently I added a cascading input control to this report. The input control type is a single select query, which utilizes two parameters that I pass to the report through the URL. Now when the Jasper server responds to the URL with the input parameters, all the other static parameters work properly, except for the cascaded one. When I click the select box of the cascaded input, I can see the desired options for a second, and then, it just goes empty while I'm viewing the select list. But when I make the "Parameter1" input control visible, the cascading input control works! And then I turn in invisible, the cascading input control turns into a beast that does things by itself and not listen to his master. I am not able to understand why this is happening. Could anybody please provide me a solution to this?

    Read the article

  • Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

    Read the article

  • What does flushing thread local memory to global memory mean?

    - by Jack Griffith
    Hi, I am aware that the purpose of volatile variables in Java is that writes to such variables are immediately visible to other threads. I am also aware that one of the effects of a synchronized block is to flush thread-local memory to global memory. I have never fully understood the references to 'thread-local' memory in this context. I understand that data which only exists on the stack is thread-local, but when talking about objects on the heap my understanding becomes hazy. I was hoping that to get comments on the following points: When executing on a machine with multiple processors, does flushing thread-local memory simply refer to the flushing of the CPU cache into RAM? When executing on a uniprocessor machine, does this mean anything at all? If it is possible for the heap to have the same variable at two different memory locations (each accessed by a different thread), under what circumstances would this arise? What implications does this have to garbage collection? How aggressively do VMs do this kind of thing? Overall, I think am trying to understand whether thread-local means memory that is physically accessible by only one CPU or if there is logical thread-local heap partitioning done by the VM? Any links to presentations or documentation would be immensely helpful. I have spent time researching this, and although I have found lots of nice literature, I haven't been able to satisfy my curiosity regarding the different situations & definitions of thread-local memory. Thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to use DLL reference with an ActiveX <object> via JavaScript

    - by John Factorial
    My question: how can I set an ActiveX object's property via JavaScript to an enum value found in a non-ActiveX DLL? Problem description: I am instantiating an ActiveX object with the following object tag: <object classid="clsid:F338193D-2491-4D7B-80CE-03487041A278" id="VideoCapture1" width="500" height="500"></object> (This is the guid for the 3rd party ActiveX I'm using, "VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.VFVideoCapture4X") I have example C# code for using this ActiveX, which I am porting to JavaScript. Code like this works just fine: VideoCapture1.Debug_Mode = true; var devcount = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetCount(); var devs = []; for (var i =0; i < devcount; ++i) { devs[devs.length] = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetItem(i); } ... etc ... However, VideoCapture1 has some settings which refer to a DLL enum, like so (C# code): VideoCapture1.Mode = VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview; I can see in Visual Web Developer that TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview is value 1 in the enum. However, the following JS does not appear to set the Mode properly: VideoCapture1.Mode = 1; Does anyone know how I can set VideoCapture1.Mode to the enum value found in the TxVFMode? PS: In Visual Web Developer, when I "Go to definition" on TxVFMode, I get the Guid for the enum. I thought I could create an with this Guid or instantiate a VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode in JS, but neither gives me a usable object.

    Read the article

  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

    Read the article

  • as3 tracking number value of variables

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hi, I have a bunch an as3 game going. In my game when newCrag hits egg_mc the score gets added. // Add the score var newScore:score_mc; newScore = new score_mc(); addChild(newScore); newScore.x = 20; newScore.y = 20; newScore.score_txt.text='0/15'; var score:Number=0; function getEggs(event:Event):void { if(event.target.hitTestObject(MovieClip(root).newCrag) && event.target is egg_mc) { sndEgg.play(); if(event.target.stage) { event.target.parent.removeChild(event.target); } // Increase score score++; newScore.score_txt.text = "" + score + '/15'; } } I am trying to refer to the number value of the score using if statements. I need to change the speed variables based off the number that is inside the score box. var speed:Number if(score > 10 || score == 10) { speed=20; trace("speed3"); } else if(score > 5 || score == 5 && score < 10) { speed=18; trace("speed2"); } else { speed=14; trace("speed1"); } However, this part of the code is not working. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks, Wade

    Read the article

  • TSQL - How to join 1..* from multiple tables in one resultset?

    - by ElHaix
    A location table record has two address id's - mailing and business addressID that refer to an address table. Thus, the address table will contain up to two records for a given addressID. Given a location ID, I need an sproc to return all tbl_Location fields, and all tbl_Address fields in one resultset: LocationID INT, ClientID INT, LocationName NVARCHAR(50), LocationDescription NVARCHAR(50), MailingAddressID INT, BillingAddressID INT, MAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), MAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), MCity NVARCHAR(50), MState NVARCHAR(50), MZip NVARCHAR(10), MCountry CHAR(3), BAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), BAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), BCity NVARCHAR(50), BState NVARCHAR(50), BZip NVARCHAR(10), BCountry CHAR(3) I've started by creating a temp table with the required fields, but am a bit stuck on how to accomplish this. I could do sub-selects for each of the required address fields, but seems a bit messy. I've already got a table-valued-function that accepts an address ID, and returns all fields for that ID, but not sure how to integrate it into my required result. Off hand, it looks like 3 selects to create this table - 1: Location, 2: Mailing address, 3: Billing address. What I'd like to do is just create a view and use that. Any assistance would be helpful. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Http Digest Authentication, Handle different browser char-sets...

    - by user160561
    Hi all, I tried to use the Http Authentication Digest Scheme with my php (apache module) based website. In general it works fine, but when it comes to verification of the username / hash against my user database i run into a problem. Of course i do not want to store the user´s password in my database, so i tend to store the A1 hashvalue (which is md5($username . ':' . $realm . ':' . $password)) in my db. This is just how the browser does it too to create the hashes to send back. The Problem: I am not able to detect if the browser does this in ISO-8859-1 fallback (like firefox, IE) or UTF-8 (Opera) or whatever. I have chosen to do the calculation in UTF-8 and store this md5 hash. Which leads to non-authentication in Firefox and IE browsers. How do you solve this problem? Just do not use this auth-scheme? Or Store a md5 Hash for each charset? Force users to Opera? (Terms of A1 refer to the http://php.net/manual/en/features.http-auth.php example.) (for digest access authentication read the according wikipedia entry)

    Read the article

  • INSERT INTO sql server error : invalid object name

    - by thormayer
    I have a problem with some statement on SQL SERVER the error I get is that I have an invalid object name 'TBL_VIDEOS' INSERT INTO TBL_VIDEOS ( TBL_VIDEOS.ID, TBL_VIDEOS.TITLE, TBL_VIDEOS.V_DESCRIPTION, TBL_VIDEOS.UPLOAD_DATE, TBL_VIDEOS.V_VIEWS, TBL_VIDEOS.USERNAME, TBL_VIDEOS.RATING, TBL_VIDEOS.V_SOURCE, TBL_VIDEOS.FLAG ) VALUES ('Z8MTRH3LmTVm', 'Why Creativity is the New Economy', 'Dr Richard Florida, one of the world&#39;s leading experts on economic competitiveness, demographic trends and cultural and technological innovation shows how developing the full human and creative capabilities of each individual, combined with institutional supports such as commercial innovation and new industry, will put us back on the path to economic and social prosperity. Listen to the podcast of the full event including audience Q&amp;A: http://www.thersa.org/events/audio-and-past-events/2012/why-creativity-is-the-new-economy Our events are made possible with the support of our Fellowship. Support us by donating or applying to become a Fellow. Donate: http://www.thersa.org/support-the-rsa Become a Fellow: http://www.thersa.org/fellowship/apply', CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, 0, 1, 0, 'http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VPX7gowr2vE&feature=g-all-u' ,0) and I wonder what i've done wrong ? (btw, the error refer to line 1.. guess its the table name.. but it correct!

    Read the article

  • Extand legacy site with another server-side programming platform best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Company I work for have a site developed 6-8 years ago by a team that was enthusiastic enough to use their own private PHP-based CMS. I have to put dynamic data from one intranet company database on this site in one week: 2-3 pages. I contacted company site administrator and she showed me administrative part - CMS allows only to insert html blocks & manage site map (site is deployed on machine that is inside company & fully accessible & upgradable). I'm not a PHP-guy & I don't want to dive into legacy hardly-who-ever-heard-about CMS engine I also don't want to contact developers team, 'cos I'm not sure they are still present and capable enough to extend this old days site and it'll take too much time anyway. I am about to deploy helper asp.net site on iis with 2-3 pages required & refer helper site via iframe from present site. New pages will allow to download some dynamic content from present site also. Is it ok and what are the pitfalls with iframe approach?

    Read the article

  • how can exec change the behavior of exec'ed program

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I am trying to track down a very odd crash. What is so odd about it is a workaround that someone discovered and which I cannot explain. The workaround is this small program which I'll refer to as 'runner': #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { if (argc == 1) { fprintf(stderr, "Usage: %s prog [args ...]\n", argv[0]); return 1; } execvp(argv[1], argv + 1); fprintf(stderr, "execv failed: %s\n", strerror(errno)); // If exec returns because the program is not found or we // don't have the appropriate permission return 255; } As you can see, all this program does is use execvp to replace itself with a different program. The program crashes when it is directly invoked from the command line: /path/to/prog args # this crashes but works fine when it is indirectly invoked via my runner shim: /path/to/runner /path/to/prog args # works successfully For the life of me, I can figure out how having an extra exec can change the behavior of the program being run (as you can see the program does not change the environment). Some background on the crash. The crash itself is happening in the C++ runtime. Specifically, when the program does a throw, the crashing version incorrectly thinks there is no matching catch (although there is) and calls terminate. When I invoke the program via runner, the exception is properly caught. My question is any idea why the extra exec changes the behavior of the exec'ed program?

    Read the article

  • Do fluent interfaces significantly impact runtime performance of a .NET application?

    - by stakx
    I'm currently occupying myself with implementing a fluent interface for an existing technology, which would allow code similar to the following snippet: using (var directory = Open.Directory(@"path\to\some\directory")) { using (var file = Open.File("foobar.html").In(directory)) { // ... } } In order to implement such constructs, classes are needed that accumulate arguments and pass them on to other objects. For example, to implement the Open.File(...).In(...) construct, you would need two classes: // handles 'Open.XXX': public static class OpenPhrase { // handles 'Open.File(XXX)': public static OpenFilePhrase File(string filename) { return new OpenFilePhrase(filename); } // handles 'Open.Directory(XXX)': public static DirectoryObject Directory(string path) { // ... } } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).XXX': public class OpenFilePhrase { internal OpenFilePhrase(string filename) { _filename = filename } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).In(XXX): public FileObject In(DirectoryObject directory) { // ... } private readonly string _filename; } That is, the more constituent parts statements such as the initial examples have, the more objects need to be created for passing on arguments to subsequent objects in the chain until the actual statement can finally execute. Question: I am interested in some opinions: Does a fluent interface which is implemented using the above technique significantly impact the runtime performance of an application that uses it? With runtime performance, I refer to both speed and memory usage aspects. Bear in mind that a potentially large number of temporary, argument-saving objects would have to be created for only very brief timespans, which I assume may put a certain pressure on the garbage collector. If you think there is significant performance impact, do you know of a better way to implement fluent interfaces?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68  | Next Page >