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  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

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  • Python's asyncore to periodically send data using a variable timeout. Is there a better way?

    - by Nick Sonneveld
    I wanted to write a server that a client could connect to and receive periodic updates without having to poll. The problem I have experienced with asyncore is that if you do not return true when dispatcher.writable() is called, you have to wait until after the asyncore.loop has timed out (default is 30s). The two ways I have tried to work around this is 1) reduce timeout to a low value or 2) query connections for when they will next update and generate an adequate timeout value. However if you refer to 'Select Law' in 'man 2 select_tut', it states, "You should always try to use select() without a timeout." Is there a better way to do this? Twisted maybe? I wanted to try and avoid extra threads. I'll include the variable timeout example here: #!/usr/bin/python import time import socket import asyncore # in seconds UPDATE_PERIOD = 4.0 class Channel(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, sock, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, sock=sock, map=sck_map) self.last_update = 0.0 # should update immediately self.send_buf = '' self.recv_buf = '' def writable(self): return len(self.send_buf) > 0 def handle_write(self): nbytes = self.send(self.send_buf) self.send_buf = self.send_buf[nbytes:] def handle_read(self): print 'read' print 'recv:', self.recv(4096) def handle_close(self): print 'close' self.close() # added for variable timeout def update(self): if time.time() >= self.next_update(): self.send_buf += 'hello %f\n'%(time.time()) self.last_update = time.time() def next_update(self): return self.last_update + UPDATE_PERIOD class Server(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, port, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, map=sck_map) self.port = port self.sck_map = sck_map self.create_socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.bind( ("", port)) self.listen(16) print "listening on port", self.port def handle_accept(self): (conn, addr) = self.accept() Channel(sock=conn, sck_map=self.sck_map) # added for variable timeout def update(self): pass def next_update(self): return None sck_map = {} server = Server(9090, sck_map) while True: next_update = time.time() + 30.0 for c in sck_map.values(): c.update() # <-- fill write buffers n = c.next_update() #print 'n:',n if n is not None: next_update = min(next_update, n) _timeout = max(0.1, next_update - time.time()) asyncore.loop(timeout=_timeout, count=1, map=sck_map)

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  • How do I ensure a Flex dataProvider processes the data synchronously?

    - by Matt Calthrop
    I am using an component, and currently have a dataProvider working that is an ArrayCollection (have a separate question about how to make this an XML file... but I digress). Variable declaration looks like this: [Bindable] private var _dpImageList : ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {"location" : "path/to/image1.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image2.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image3.jpg"} ]); I then refer to like this: <s:List id="lstImages" width="100%" dataProvider="{_dpImageList}" itemRenderer="path.to.render.ImageRenderer" skinClass="path.to.skins.ListSkin" > <s:layout> <s:HorizontalLayout gap="2" /> </s:layout> </s:List> Currently, it would appear that each item is processed asynchronously. However, I want them to be processed synchronously. Reason: I am displaying a list of images, and I want the leftmost one rendered first, followed by the one to its right, and so on. Edit: I just found this answer. Do you think that could be the same issue?

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  • Is WordPress MVC compliant?

    - by kovshenin
    Some people consider WordPress a blogging platform, some think of it as a CMS, some refer to WordPress as a development framework. Whichever it is, the question still remains. Is WordPress MVC compliant? I've read the forums and somebody asked about MVC about three years ago. There were some positive answers, and some negative ones. While nobody knows exactly what MVC is and everybody thinks of it in their own way, there's still a general concept that's present in all the discussions. I have little experience with MVC frameworks and there doesn't seem to be anything about the framework itself. Most of the MVC is done by the programmer, am I right? Now, going back to WordPress, could we consider the core rewrite engine (WP_Rewrite) the controller? Queries & plugin logic as the model? And themes as the view? Or am I getting it all wrong? Thanks ;)

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  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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  • java applet won't work

    - by scoobi_doobi
    hey guys, this is homework stuff, but the question is not much about coding. the task is to write a java applet to work on an m-grid server. i have the server running on apache. it has a few sample applets in .jar and .class form. the .class versions work; the .jar versions work on appletviewer, but they break if I submit them as a job to the server with this: load: class examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.<init>(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at java.net.HttpURLConnection.getResponseCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class I'm not really sure where exactly is the problem in here, given that they work on appletviewer. any help would be appreciated.. EDIT: don't know if I wrote it clearly. by ".class version" i refer to html file with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" code="examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class"></applet> and ".jar" with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" archive="PixelCount.jar" code="examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class"></applet>

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  • In Javascript, is it true that function aliasing works as long as the function being aliased doesn't

    - by Jian Lin
    In Javascript, if we are aliasing a function, such as in: f = g; f = obj.display; obj.f = foo; all the 3 lines above, they will work as long as the function / method on the right hand side doesn't touch this? Since we are passing in all the arguments, the only way it can mess up is when the function / method on the right uses this? Actually, line 1 is probably ok if g is also a property of window? If g is referencing obj.display, then the same problem is there. In line 2, when obj.display touches this, it is to mean the obj, but when f() is invoked, the this is window, so they are different. In line 3, it is the same: when f() is invoked inside of obj's code, then the this is obj, while foo might be using this to refer to window if it were a property of window. (global function). So line 2 can be written as f = function() { obj.display.apply(obj, arguments) } and line 3: obj.f = function() { foo.apply(window, arguments) } Is this the correct method, and are there there other methods besides this?

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  • Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

    - by alex
    I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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  • Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

    - by MichaelD
    Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

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  • Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

    - by Galilyou
    I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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  • How to add namespaces to a flex AIR project in Flash Builder 4?

    - by milkplus
    In my ant build.xml script I have... <namespace uri="http://ns.foo.com/mxml/2011" manifest="src/manifest.xml"/> <namespace uri="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" manifest="flex_src/spark-manifest.xml"/> <namespace uri="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" manifest="flex_src/mx-manifest.xml"/> That works! But... I'm not sure how to add these namespaces to my project properties in Flash Builder 4 so I can debug. When I try, it changes this line in my .actionScriptProperties <compiler additionalCompilerArguments="-namespace http://ns.foo.com/mxml/2011 src/manifest.xml -namespace=library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark flex_src/spark-manifest.xml -namespace http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml flex_src/mx-manifest.xml" autoRSLOrdering="true" copyDependentFiles="true" fteInMXComponents="false" generateAccessible="true" htmlExpressInstall="true" htmlGenerate="false" htmlHistoryManagement="false" htmlPlayerVersionCheck="true" includeNetmonSwc="false" outputFolderPath="bin-debug" sourceFolderPath="src" strict="true" targetPlayerVersion="0.0.0" useApolloConfig="true" useDebugRSLSwfs="true" verifyDigests="true" warn="true"> but gives me a "no default arguments are expected" error. What is the reason for this error? The error location is "Unknown" and seems to refer to these compiler arguments.

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  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

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  • Preventing a button from responding to 'Enter' in ASP.net

    - by kd7iwp
    I have a master template that all the pages on my site use. In the template there is an empty panel. In the code-behind for the page an imagebutton is created in the panel dynamically in my Page_Load section (makes a call to the DB to determine which button should appear via my controller). On some pages that use this template and have forms on them, pressing the Enter key fires the click event on this imagebutton rather than the submit button in the form. Is there a simple way to prevent the imagebutton click event from firing unless it's clicked by the mouse? I'm thinking a javascript method is a hack, especially since the button doesn't even exist in the master template until the button is dynamically created on Page_Load (this is ugly since I can't simply do <% =btnName.ClientId %> to refer to the button's name in my aspx page). I tried setting a super-high tabindex for the image button and that did nothing. Also set the button to be the DefaultButton in its panel on the master template but that did not work either.

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  • Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

    - by csharpnoob
    UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

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  • Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

    - by prendio2
    I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

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  • Getting the data inside the C# web service from Jsonified string

    - by gnomixa
    In my JS I use Jquery's $ajax functions to call the web service and send the jsonified data to it. The data is in the following format: var countries = { "1A": { id: "1A", name: "Andorra" }, "2B": { id: 2B name: "Belgium" }, ..etc }; var jsonData = JSON.stringify({ data: data }); //then $ajax is called and it makes the call to the c# web service On the c# side the web service needs to unpack this data, currently it comes in as string[][] data type. How do I convert it to the format so I can refer to the properties such as .id and .name? Assuming I have a class called Sample with these properties? Thanks! EDIT: Here is my JS code: var jsonData = JSON.stringify(countries); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/MyService.asmx/Foo', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: jsonData, success: function (msg) { alert(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, status) { switch (status) { case 404: alert('File not found'); break; case 500: alert('Server error'); break; case 0: alert('Request aborted'); break; default: alert('Unknown error ' + status); } } }); inside c# web service I have: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Data; using System.Collections; using System.IO; using System.Web.Script.Services; [WebMethod] [ScriptMethod] public string Foo(IDictionary<string, Country> countries) { return "success"; }

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  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

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  • Thread-safty of boost RNG

    - by Maciej Piechotka
    I have a loop which should be nicely pararellized by insering one openmp pragma: boost::normal_distribution<double> ddist(0, pow(retention, i - 1)); boost::variate_generator<gen &, BOOST_TYPEOF(ddist)> dgen(rng, ddist); // Diamond const std::uint_fast32_t dno = 1 << i - 1; // #pragma omp parallel for for (std::uint_fast32_t x = 0; x < dno; x++) for (std::uint_fast32_t y = 0; y < dno; y++) { const std::uint_fast32_t diff = size/dno; const std::uint_fast32_t x1 = x*diff, x2 = (x + 1)*diff; const std::uint_fast32_t y1 = y*diff, y2 = (y + 1)*diff; double avg = (arr[x1][y1] + arr[x1][y2] + arr[x2][y1] + arr[x2][y2])/4; arr[(x1 + x2)/2][(y1 + y2)/2] = avg + dgen(); } (unless I make an error each execution does not depend on others at all. Sorry that not all of code is inserted). However my question is - are boost RNG thread-safe? They seems to refer to gcc code for gcc so even if gcc code is thread-safe it may not be the case for other platforms.

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  • How might I wrap the FindXFile-style APIs to the STL-style Iterator Pattern in C++?

    - by BillyONeal
    Hello everyone :) I'm working on wrapping up the ugly innards of the FindFirstFile/FindNextFile loop (though my question applies to other similar APIs, such as RegEnumKeyEx or RegEnumValue, etc.) inside iterators that work in a manner similar to the Standard Template Library's istream_iterators. I have two problems here. The first is with the termination condition of most "foreach" style loops. STL style iterators typically use operator!= inside the exit condition of the for, i.e. std::vector<int> test; for(std::vector<int>::iterator it = test.begin(); it != test.end(); it++) { //Do stuff } My problem is I'm unsure how to implement operator!= with such a directory enumeration, because I do not know when the enumeration is complete until I've actually finished with it. I have sort of a hack together solution in place now that enumerates the entire directory at once, where each iterator simply tracks a reference counted vector, but this seems like a kludge which can be done a better way. The second problem I have is that there are multiple pieces of data returned by the FindXFile APIs. For that reason, there's no obvious way to overload operator* as required for iterator semantics. When I overload that item, do I return the file name? The size? The modified date? How might I convey the multiple pieces of data to which such an iterator must refer to later in an ideomatic way? I've tried ripping off the C# style MoveNext design but I'm concerned about not following the standard idioms here. class SomeIterator { public: bool next(); //Advances the iterator and returns true if successful, false if the iterator is at the end. std::wstring fileName() const; //other kinds of data.... }; EDIT: And the caller would look like: SomeIterator x = ??; //Construct somehow while(x.next()) { //Do stuff } Thanks! Billy3

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  • Extracting noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun from Text

    - by ssuhan
    I would like to query if it is possible to extract noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun in R package openNLP?That is, I would like to use linguistic filtering to extract candidate noun phrases. Could you direct me how to do? Many thanks. Thanks for the responses. here is the code: library("openNLP") acq <- "Gulf Applied Technologies Inc said it sold its subsidiaries engaged in pipeline and terminal operations for 12.2 mln dlrs. The company said the sale is subject to certain post closing adjustments, which it did not explain. Reuter." acqTag <- tagPOS(acq) acqTagSplit = strsplit(acqTag," ") acqTagSplit qq = 0 tag = 0 for (i in 1:length(acqTagSplit[[1]])){ qq[i] <-strsplit(acqTagSplit[[1]][i],'/') tag[i] = qq[i][[1]][2] } index = 0 k = 0 for (i in 1:(length(acqTagSplit[[1]])-1)) { if ((tag[i] == "NN" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "NNS" && tag[i+1] == "NNS") | (tag[i] == "NNS" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "NN" && tag[i+1] == "NNS") | (tag[i] == "JJ" && tag[i+1] == "NN") | (tag[i] == "JJ" && tag[i+1] == "NNS")){ k = k +1 index[k] = i } } index Reader can refer index on acqTagSplit to do noun+noun or (adj|noun)+noun extractation. (The code is not optimum but work. If you have any idea, please let me know.) Furthermore, I still have a problem. Justeson and Katz (1995) proposed another linguistic filtering to extract candidate noun phrases: ((Adj|Noun)+|((Adj|Noun)(Noun-Prep)?)(Adj|Noun))Noun I cannot well understand its meaning, could someone do me a favor to explain it or transform such representation into R language

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  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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  • How to map (large) integer on (small in size( alphanumeric string with PHP? (Cantor?)

    - by Glooh
    Dear all, I can't figure out how to optimally do the following in PHP: In a database, I have messages with a unique ID, like 19041985. Now, I want to refer to these messages in a short-url service but not using generated hashes but by simply 'calculate' the original ID. In other words, for example: http://short.url/sYsn7 should let me calculate the message ID the visitor would like to request. To make it more obvious, I wrote the following in PHP to generate these 'alphanumeric ID versions' and of course, the other way around will let me calculate the original message ID. The question is: Is this the optimal way of doing this? I hardly think so, but can't think of anything else. $alphanumString = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ-_'; for($i=0;$i < strlen($alphanumString);$i++) { $alphanumArray[$i] = substr($alphanumString,$i,1); } $id = 19041985; $out = ''; for($i=0;$i < strlen($id);$i++) { if(isset($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) && strlen($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) 0) { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]; } else { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,1).""]; $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,($i+1),1).""]; } $i++; } print $out;

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  • Boost's "cstdint" Usage

    - by patt0h
    Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

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