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• Nested URLs and Rewrite rules in Apache2

  - by Radha Krishna. S.

  Hi, I need some help with rewrite rules and nested URLs. I am using TikiWiki for my website and am in the process of setting up SE friendly URLs for my projects. Specifically, I have the following rewrite rule for www.example.com/projects to point to a page that lists out all the projects hosted in example. RewriteRule ^Projects$ articles?type=Project [L] This works fine. Now, I would like to point www.example.com/projects/project1 to point to a specific project. I have this rewrite rule RewriteRule ^(Projects/Project1)$ tiki-read_article.php?articleId=6 This works, but partially. The content is all rendered as text but the theme - images/ css etc all go for a toss - the page is completely in text. I understand that this happens 'cause the relative paths in the theme/ css/ images all refer to Projects as the base folder instead of the root of the website. I don't want to touch the CMS portion - change the theme/ css/ image paths in the files, more for reasons of upgradability. Can someone help me understand and write a rule so that the above nested URL works? Regards, Radha

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• Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

  - by Alastair Pitts

  We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

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• rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

  - by VP

  I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

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• OO Design / Patterns - Fat Model Vs Transaction Script?

  - by ben

  Ok, 'Fat' Model and Transaction Script both solve design problems associated with where to keep business logic. I've done some research and popular thought says having all business logic encapsulated within the model is the way to go (mainly since Transaction Script can become really complex and often results in code duplication). However, how does this work if I want to use the TDG of a second Model in my business logic? Surely Transaction Script presents a neater, less coupled solution than using one Model inside the business logic of another? A practical example... I have two classes: User & Alert. When pushing User instances to the database (eg, creating new user accounts), there is a business rule that requires inserting some default Alerts records too (eg, a default 'welcome to the system' message etc). I see two options here: 1) Add this rule as a User method, and in the process create a dependency between User and Alert (or, at least, Alert's Table Data Gateway). 2) Use a Transaction Script, which avoids the dependency between models. (Also, means the business logic is kept in a 'neutral' class & easily accessible by Alert. That probably isn't too important here, though). User takes responsibility for it's own validation etc, however, but because we're talking about a business rule involving two Models, Transaction Script seems like a better choice to me. Anyone spot flaws with this approach?

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• how to get entire document in scrapy using hxs.select

  - by Chris Smith

  I've been at this for 12hrs and I'm hoping someone can give me a leg up. Here is my code all I want is to get the anchor and url of every link on a page as it crawls along. from scrapy.contrib.spiders import CrawlSpider, Rule from scrapy.contrib.linkextractors.sgml import SgmlLinkExtractor from scrapy.selector import HtmlXPathSelector from scrapy.utils.url import urljoin_rfc from scrapy.utils.response import get_base_url from urlparse import urljoin #from scrapy.item import Item from tutorial.items import DmozItem class HopitaloneSpider(CrawlSpider): name = 'dmoz' allowed_domains = ['domain.co.uk'] start_urls = [ 'http://www.domain.co.uk' ] rules = ( #Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow='>example\.org', )), Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow=('\w+$', )), callback='parse_item', follow=True), ) user_agent = 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; MSIE 9.0; WIndows NT 9.0; en-US))' def parse_item(self, response): #self.log('Hi, this is an item page! %s' % response.url) hxs = HtmlXPathSelector(response) #print response.url sites = hxs.select('//html') #item = DmozItem() items = [] for site in sites: item = DmozItem() item['title'] = site.select('a/text()').extract() item['link'] = site.select('a/@href').extract() items.append(item) return items What I'm doing wrong... my eyes hurt now.

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• Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

  - by willoller

  This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

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• ModRewrite weird redirect behavior on removing WWW

  - by vitto

  Hi, I'm trying to use some rule on my project to remove www from the beginning of the URL but I've some problem. my server structure is: domain.com/beta_folder domain.com/beta_folder/page+type domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/edit domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/etc. domain.com/beta_folder/.htaccess //here is where my htaccess is beta_folder is the site folder, and content+name are content vars, created to retrieve pages from the database. the site works perfect with this rules RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My intention was to remove www, so I've added this rule but it isn't effective RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My problem starts if I digit www in front of my domain name: this works http://domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name if i write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name the rewrite rule redirect me at http://www.domain.compage+type/content+name if i remove the www rules, the problem still active unfortunately, I can't make a public test for my domain basically, if I write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder the rules sends me to http://domain.com/ where I'm wrong?

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• Common "truisms" needing correction the most

  - by Charles Bretana

  In addition to "I never met a man I didn't like", Will Rogers had another great little ditty I've always remembered. It went: "It's not what you don't know that'll hurt you, it's what you do know that ain't so." We all know or subscribe to many IT "truisms" that mostly have a strong basis in fact, in something in our professional careers, something we learned from others, lessons learned the hard way by ourselves, or by others who came before us. Unfortuntely, as these truisms spread throughout the community, the details—why they came about and the caveats that affect when they apply—tend to not spread along with them. We all have a tendency to look for, and latch on to, small "rules" or principles that we can use to avoid doing a complete exhaustive analysis for every decision. But even though they are correct much of the time, when we sometimes misapply them, we pay a penalty that could be avoided by understooding the details behind them. For example, when user-defined functions were first introduced in SQL Server it became "common knowledge" within a year or so that they had extremely bad performance (because it required a re-compilation for each use) and should be avoided. This "trusim" still increases many database developers' aversion to using UDFs, even though Microsoft's introduction of InLine UDFs, which do not suffer from this issue at all, mitigates this issue substantially. In recent years I have run into numerous DBAs who still believe you should "never" use UDFs, because of this. What other common not-so-"trusims" do you know, which many developers believe, that are not quite as universally true as is commonly understood, and which the developer community would benefit from being better educated about? Please include why it was "true" to start off with, and under what circumstances it's not true. Limit responses to issues that are technical, where the "common" application of a "rule or principle" is in fact correct most of the time, or was correct back when it was first elucidated, but—in the edge cases, or because of not understanding the principle thoroughly, because technology has changed since it first spread, or applying the rule today without understanding the details behind the rule—can easily backfire or cause the opposite of the intended effect.

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• JSF redirect doesn't work

  - by user319331

  I have a problem with redirecting a page in my JSF application. My navigation rule look like this : <navigation-rule> <from-view-id>/index.xhtml</from-view-id> <navigation-case> <from-action>#{registerBean.registerUser}</from-action> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/confirmation.xhtml</to-view-id> <redirect/> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> In my case the redirect tag doesn't work, the URL remains unchanged, and when I refresh the page the registerUser action is executed again. I just have no idea what I'm doing wrong; I'm not very experienced with JSF. Can anyone please tell why the redirect tag doesn't work? Thanks. (I'm using JSF 2.0 and NetBeans IDE)

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• declarative_authorization permissions on roles

  - by William

  Hey all, I'm trying to add authorization to a rather large app that already exists, but I have to obfuscate the details a bit. Here's the background: In our app we have a number or roles that are hierarchical, roughly like this: BasicUser -> SuperUser -> Admin -> SuperAdmin For authorization each User model instance has an attribute 'role' which corresponds to the above. We have a RESTful controller "Users" that is namespaced under Backoffice. So in short it's Backoffice::UsersController. class Backoffice::UsersController < ApplicationController filter_access_to :all #... RESTful actions + some others end So here's the problem: We want users to be able to give permissions for users to edit users but ONLY if they have a 'smaller' role than they currently have. I've created the following in authorization_rules.rb authorization do role :basic_user do has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :index end role :super_user do includes :basic_user has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :edit do if_attribute :role => is_in { %w(basic_user) } end end role :admin do includes :super_user end role :super_admin do includes :admin end end And unfortunately that's as far as I got, the rule doesn't seem to get applied. If I comment the rule out, nobody can edit If I leave the rule in you can edit everybody I've also tried a couple of variations on the if_attribute: if_attribute :role => is { 'basic_user' } if_attribute :role => 'basic_user' and they get the same effect. Does anybody have any suggestions?

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• Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

  - by ajkochanowicz

  Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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• How to achieve to following C++ output formatting?

  - by Yan Cheng CHEOK

  I wish to print out double as the following rules : 1) No scietific notation 2) Maximum decimal point is 3 3) No trailing 0. For example : 0.01 formated to "0.01" 2.123411 formatted to "2.123" 2.11 formatted to "2.11" 2.1 formatted to "2.1" 0 formatted to "0" By using .precision(3) and std::fixed, I can only achieve rule 1) and rule 2), but not rule 3) 0.01 formated to "0.010" 2.123411 formatted to "2.123" 2.11 formatted to "2.110" 2.1 formatted to "2.100" 0 formatted to "0" Code example is as bellow : #include <iostream> int main() { std::cout.precision(3); std::cout << std::fixed << 0.01 << std::endl; std::cout << std::fixed << 2.123411 << std::endl; std::cout << std::fixed << 2.11 << std::endl; std::cout << std::fixed << 2.1 << std::endl; std::cout << std::fixed << 0 << std::endl; getchar(); } any idea?

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• How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

  - by Angela

  I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

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• GetLocalValueEnumerator() Not Returning All Properties

  - by a_hardin

  I am trying to perform validation in my WPF application using the solution in Detecting WPF Validation Errors. public static bool IsValid(DependencyObject parent) { // Validate all the bindings on the parent bool valid = true; LocalValueEnumerator localValues = parent.GetLocalValueEnumerator(); while (localValues.MoveNext()) { LocalValueEntry entry = localValues.Current; if (BindingOperations.IsDataBound(parent, entry.Property)) { Binding binding = BindingOperations.GetBinding(parent, entry.Property); foreach (ValidationRule rule in binding.ValidationRules) { ValidationResult result = rule.Validate(parent.GetValue(entry.Property), null); if (!result.IsValid) { BindingExpression expression = BindingOperations.GetBindingExpression(parent, entry.Property); System.Windows.Controls.Validation.MarkInvalid(expression, new ValidationError(rule, expression, result.ErrorContent, null)); valid = false; } } } } // Validate all the bindings on the children for (int i = 0; i != VisualTreeHelper.GetChildrenCount(parent); ++i) { DependencyObject child = VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(parent, i); if (!IsValid(child)) { valid = false; } } return valid; } The problem I am running into is that when I step through the code for a TextBox, I'm not getting the Text property. The only properties I get are "PageHeight", "Instance", and "UndoManagerInstance". Therefore, I can not Validate the rules for the binding on the TextBox. Does anyone have any idea why I wouldn't be getting the correct properties? Is there another way to force validaton on controls in WPF? I haven't been able to find anyone else who has had this problem. Update: The TextBoxes I am trying to validate are within a DataTemplate. I found that if I copy one of the TextBoxes and place it directly in the Window, I am able to get the data. Using Woodstock, I saw that the data source for the TextBoxes in the template is "ParentTemplate", but it's "Local" for the TextBox outside of the template. So, the question now is, how can I get the DependencyProperties for controls inside a DataTemplate?

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• SCCM 2012 - some remote clients unable to download some applications, 401.2 error

  - by growse

  I've got a small SCCM 2012 deployment with about 35 clients attached. Most of these clients are in the same network as the single SCCM host, but three are about 1000 miles away. Oddly, these three clients have stopped being able to download some application packages over BITS. Publishing a new package works for all the other clients, but for these three it never seems to download. If I go to the software centre, it just hangs at "0% downloaded". On the client, the DataTransfer.log says (repeatedly): CDTSJob::HandleErrors: DTS Job '{2DCBBB4C-6D84-479A-9218-885B72C834B9}' BITS Job '{E78147DD-4A26-4942-B4FD-6EC3EB77EECD}' under user 'S-1-5-18' OldErrorCount 442 NewErrorCount 443 ErrorCode 0x80072EE2 DataTransferService 30/07/2012 09:27:41 2964 (0x0B94) CDTSJob::HandleErrors: DTS Job ID='{2DCBBB4C-6D84-479A-9218-885B72C834B9}' URL='http://sccm-host:80/SMS_DP_SMSPKG$/Content_3e7f6982-6346-4f27-ae00-ad5dcb391455.1' ProtType=1 DataTransferService 30/07/2012 09:27:41 2964 (0x0B94) Cas.log says (repeatedly): Location update from CTM for content Content_3e7f6982-6346-4f27-ae00-ad5dcb391455.1 and request {AD041FCB-03D2-4FE6-A6FA-38A6B80FB2A1} ContentAccess 30/07/2012 08:33:39 5048 (0x13B8) Download location found 0 - http://lonsbrndsccm02.mcs.int.thomsonreuters.com/SMS_DP_SMSPKG$/Content_3e7f6982-6346-4f27-ae00-ad5dcb391455.1 ContentAccess 30/07/2012 08:33:39 5048 (0x13B8) Download request only, ignoring location update ContentAccess 30/07/2012 08:33:39 5048 (0x13B8) On the server, I've enabled failed request log tracing. The raw IIS log says the following: 2012-07-30 08:28:42 10.13.111.35 GET /SMS_DP_SMSPKG$/Content_3e7f6982-6346-4f27-ae00-ad5dcb391455.1/sccm /NSCP-0.4.0.172-x64.msi 80 - 10.2.27.19 Microsoft+BITS/7.5 401 2 5 293 Which is a 401.2 error, meaning access denied. The failed request log is large, but the punchline is that it chucks out a Unauthorized: Access is denied due to invalid credentials. message. All clients are members of the same domain and appear to be (otherwise) working great. I've re-installed the SCCM client, deleted and re-added the computer to SCCM. Some other packages seem to work fine, the daily anti-malware delta gets downloaded and patched without issue. Why are these packages failing?

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• Virtualization and best hardware sharing scenario for me

  - by azera

  Hello, Following this thread on super user, I now want to start installing all my vm on the hardware. As a remainder, i have a (powerful enough) server on which i want to install 3 OS: there is a debian (general dev testbed purposes), an ipcop (network control/firewall) and a freenas (local network file sharing). I'm wondering which scenario would be the best for me and if I will be able to share the hardware to do what i want; either a - install an hypervisor like the free vmware esx and all three vms in it, or b - install debian, and the other two running inside it with virtual box My need being that: the ipcop should handle all network traffic to the internet, meaning all traffic from my main computer but also all traffic from the other two vm the freenas shares should be accessible from the other two vm and my main computer too i don't really care about the debian access, i only need to access it from my main computer, not the other vms Will I need to install additionnal network cards for each vm or can they all share the same one happily ? (right now I have two, one linking the server to my router [which only ipcop is gonna use] and one linking it to my switch [which i would like all three to use]) As for harddrives, I was going to use 1 harddrive cut in 3 partitions to install all three OSes, then add to that the freenas drives, will it be correct ? Thanks a lot for anyone who can help me, this is kind of a vast area and I'm not sure which way to go at all

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• Rebuild Apple RAID set

  - by Clinton Blackmore

  We have a Mac Pro tower with an Apple RAID card in it using third party drives. When one drive failed, we replaced it and the RAID 5 set was nearly done rebuilding when the computer was rebooted. It did not come back up. We are now booting up off of a different internal volume, and have three (third-party) drives of identical spec (including revision and firmware) in the box. One of the drives is a global spare; the other two are recognized as belong to a RAID set but are in "Roaming" mode. The intention is to recreate the three-drive RAID set using the data on the two drives that are good. When we tell the system to create a RAID 5 using the three drives, it tells us that it'll create a RAID set but everything will be lost. There are no obvious options to rebuild a RAID using the two good drives and incorporating the third drive in Apple's RAID Utility, and we've looked through the options for the raidutil command. Fortunately, all important data is backed up, and we can rebuild from scratch, but, is there any way to make the RAIDset work again?

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• Deploying Windows Service through group policy fails with Event ID 102

  - by Sören Kuklau

  I'm trying to deploy a custom Windows Service (written in C#; installed through a VS setup project) using a group policy. To help debug this, I also have two additional MSIs in the same policy. All three packages are deployed as a machine policy, not a user one. On one machine (runs Windows Server 2008; no UAC), all three deploy fine. The service is set to Automatic, as expected. On two machines (run Windows 7; UAC), the two other MSIs deploy fine, but my service fails to install. The event log gives an event ID of 102, which appears to be a permissions problem: The install of application "Package Name" from policy "Policy Name" failed. The error was The installation source for this product is not available. Verify that the source exists and that you can access it. However, all three packages come from the same share linked through UNC, so this is unlikely. My guess is that UAC is the problem; that the service requires additional permissions. Do I need to alter the MSI somehow?

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• Two screens hooked to one laptop

  - by mplacona

  Hi, I'm thinking of getting rid of my desktop, and using my (much better) laptop instead. I'm only wondering if I would be able to hook the two screens I have with it, so I'd end up with three screens. I've seen people doing it to desktops, but am not sure the same could be accomplished with a laptop. My laptop is a sony vaio, and it's got both a VGA output, and an HDMI output. It'd be great is I could simply hook two screens to it, and have three independent screens (not mirrored). on my desktop, I have pretty much the same thing, but with an extra DVI port. I connect the DVI to one screen, and the VGA to an older one. Trying to connect anything to the HDMI simply mirrors whatever is on the DVI (I've tried it a long time ago) So I was wondering if with the laptop I'd be able to do it, and end up with three independent screens. I don't know if there's anything else I could be using instead (i.e. any extra hardware), so recommendations are more than welcome. Thanks in advance, Marcos

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• Two screens hooked to one laptop

  - by mplacona

  Hi, I'm thinking of getting rid of my desktop, and using my (much better) laptop instead. I'm only wondering if I would be able to hook the two screens I have with it, so I'd end up with three screens. I've seen people doing it to desktops, but am not sure the same could be accomplished with a laptop. My laptop is a sony vaio, and it's got both a VGA output, and an HDMI output. It'd be great is I could simply hook two screens to it, and have three independent screens (not mirrored). on my desktop, I have pretty much the same thing, but with an extra DVI port. I connect the DVI to one screen, and the VGA to an older one. Trying to connect anything to the HDMI simply mirrors whatever is on the DVI (I've tried it a long time ago) So I was wondering if with the laptop I'd be able to do it, and end up with three independent screens. I don't know if there's anything else I could be using instead (i.e. any extra hardware), so recommendations are more than welcome. Thanks in advance, Marcos

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• KVM Hosting: How to efficiently replicate guests

  - by javano

  I have three KVM servers each with 1 guest VM, running directly on it's local storage, (so they are essentially getting a dedicated box worth of computing power each). In the event of a host failure I would like the guests replicated to at least one of the other hosts so I can spin it up there, until the failing host is fixed. I am curious about KVM cloning. I can clone a VM live or when it's suspended/shutdown. Obivously suspended VMs will naturally be quicker to clone but these three VMs comprise three parts of a single solution, so I don't want to ever have any one of them shutdown. How can I efficiently clone these VMs between servers? I have had a couple of ideas, but are these insane or, is there a better method I have missed for my scenario? Set up a DRDB partition between box 1 and 2 where VM 1 runs from, and so is replicated between box1 and box 2, repeat between box 2 & 3, and box 3 & 1 (This could be insane, I have never used DRDB only read about it) Just use standard KVM CLI clone options to perform live clones (I'm dubious about this because I don't know how long it will take and what the performance impact will be during) Run a copy of each VM on at least one other host, and have the guest on one host export it's data to the matching guest on another host where it can import that data, scripting this on the guest) Some of other way? Ideas welcome! Side Note These servers have 4x15k SAS drives in a RAID 10 so they aren't rocketing fast, and as I mentioned, each VM runs from the host's local storage, no NAS or SAN etc. So that is why I am asking this question about guest replication. Also, this isn't about disaster recovery. Guests will be exporting their data to a NAS over a VPN, so I am looking at how I can have them quickly spun up in a host failure situation.

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• Is there a limit to how many sites can be hosted on a single IP address when using HTTP Host Headers on Windows 2008?

  - by Kev

  For reasons that are lost in the mists of time, our older Windows (2000, 2003) servers have been configured with a "Administrative" IP address and three further "Hosting" IP addresses. There are also additional IP's for sites with SSL certificates. The "Administrative" IP address is where all our internal provisioning, monitoring and other such apps are bound to. We lock this down and don't permit access to it from the outside world (other than over our VPN). The three "Hosting" IP addresses are used for IIS website hosting (in conjunction with host headers). Historically, new site IP address allocations have been rotated through these three IP addresses. I'm not really sure why. I'm building a new batch of servers and I'm considering just having a single hosting IP address. Our servers can host up to 1200 sites on a single machine. Is there a technical limit to the number of IIS sites that can bind to a single IP address? Our Linux platform seems to do just fine with just a single shared IP + host headers. I initially thought this might be an SEO thing, but given that IPv4 address space conservation is paramount I hardly think Google or other search engines could reasonably penalise site rankings just because hundreds of sites hang off the same IP.

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• Can a non-redundant RAID5 cause any serious problems (compared to RAID0)?

  - by leemes

  I used to have a three-disc RAID5 (mdadm) in my computer for personal media storage (music, videos, photos, programs, games, ...). It had three discs with 750 GB each, resulting in an array capacity of 1.5 TB. One day (one year ago), I needed one of those discs to install another operating system. I thought, I don't need the redundancy anymore since I backup the most important stuff (personal photos e.g.) on an external disc anyway. So I decided to remove one of the three discs without converting the RAID to RAID0 or even two separate discs, because I had no temporary storage (since one cannot simply convert the RAID5 to RAID0 AFAIK). So now, for about one year, I have a non-redundant RAID5 with 2 of 3 discs running. Sometimes, one of the discs has a defective contact at the power cable or something similar causing the drive to stop working temporarily (I don't know exactly what it is). Since it still works when rebooting the computer and in most cases by calling some mdadm commands, it wasn't that problematic. Note that the data is not very critical, since I still have a backup of the most important stuff. But in the last few weeks, one of the drives fails very frequently (every few hours), so it gets really annoying to manage this. My questions are: Is there any disadvantage (apart from the annoying management) of a non-redundant RAID5 (with one drive less than typical) over a RAID0? If I understand it correctly, both have no redundancy and the same capacity. On a temporary drive failure, I can restart the array in both cases, assuming that the drive itself still works after the failure. Can it happen that the drive contents alter on a drive failure, making the array inconsistent? If so, can I tell mdadm to check the array for failures (without a file system level checking tool)? Since the drive most probably only has a defective contact causing it to fail for a second only, can I tell mdadm to automatically restart the array, so I will not even notice the failure if no application wanted to access the file system during the failure?

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• Understanding ulimit -u

  - by tripleee

  I'd like to understand what's going on here. linvx$ ( ulimit -u 123; /bin/echo nst ) nst linvx$ ( ulimit -u 122; /bin/echo nst ) -bash: fork: Resource temporarily unavailable Terminated linvx$ ( ulimit -u 123; /bin/echo one; /bin/echo two; /bin/echo three ) one two three linvx$ ( ulimit -u 123; /bin/echo one & /bin/echo two & /bin/echo three ) -bash: fork: Resource temporarily unavailable Terminated one I speculate that the first 122 processes are consumed by Bash itself, and that the remaining ulimit governs how many concurrent processes I am allowed to have. The documentation is not very clear on this. Am I missing something? More importantly, for a real-world deployment, how can I know what sort of ulimit is realistic? It's a long-running daemon which spawns worker threads on demand, and reaps them when the load decreases. I've had it spin the server to its death a few times. The most important limit is probably memory, which I have now limited to 200M per process, but I'd like to figure out how I can enforce a limit on the number of children (the program does allow me to configure a maximum, but how do I know there are no bugs in that part of the code?)

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• troubleshooting postifx -> exchange connection issues

  - by Systemspoet

  I have three linux-based mail routers that run postfix and relay mail to our on-premise exchange server as well as to outlook.com, splitting the mail based on ldap atttributes. What I've observed sporadically since upgrading this spring from Exchange 2007 to 2010 is that all three of the mail relays will, for about 20 minutes, fail to connect to exchange. Postfix logs it as "lost connection with exchange.contosso.edu" ; this problem almost always occurs to all three mail relays at the same time, and lasts for slightly under 20 minutes. If I can catch it while it's occuring, and I manually do "telnet exchange.contosso.edu 25" from one mail relay and force a message through (helo, mail from, rcpt to, data, etc), then it clears that relay up. The exchange "server" is actually two machines with the HT role on them, load balanced via windows NLB. I've worked pretty hard to figure out what's happening from the postfix side and I can't see any evidence of any misbehavior. My question is, how do I attack the problem from the exchange side? Is there a connection log, or a debug setting, or something I can do to log all of the inbound connections and tell me what's causing exchange to drop them?

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