Search Results

Search found 19480 results on 780 pages for 'do your own homework'.

Page 612/780 | < Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >

  • How to use Object.GetHashCode() on a type that overrides GetHashCode()

    - by Jimmy
    Hi, I have a class A that implements IEquatable<, using its fields (say, A.b and A.c) for implementing/overriding Equals() and overriding GetHashCode(), and everything works fine, 99% of the time. Class A is part of a hierarchy (class B, C) that all inherit from interface D; they can all be stored together in a dictionary Dictionary, thus it's convenient when they all carry their own default Equals()/GetHashCode(). However, while constructing A I sometime need to do some work to get the values for A.b and A.c; while that's happening, I want to store a reference to the instance that's being built. In that case, I don't want to use the default Equals()/GetHashCode() overrides provided by A. Thus, I was thinking of implementing a ReferenceEqualityComparer, that's meant to force the use of Object's Equals()/GetHashCode(): private class ReferenceEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return System.Object.ReferenceEquals(x, y); } public int GetHashCode(T obj) { // what goes here? I want to do something like System.Object.GetHashCode(obj); } #endregion } The question is, since A overrides Object.GetHashCode(), how can I (outside of A) call Object.GetHashCode() for an instance of A? One way of course would be for A to not implement IEquatable< and always supply an IEqualityComparer< to any dictionary that I create, but I'm hoping for a different answer. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using cellUpdateEvent with YUI DataTable and JSON DataSource

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm working with a UI that has a (YUI2) JSON DataSource that's being used to populate a DataTable. What I would like to do is, when a value in the table gets updated, perform a simple animation on the cell whose value changed. Here are some relevant snippets of code: var columns = [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ]; var dataSource = new YAHOO.util.DataSource('/someUrl'); dataSource.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; dataSource.connXhrMode = 'queueRequests'; dataSource.responseSchema = { resultsList: 'results', fields: [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ] }; var dataTable = new YAHOO.widget.DataTable('container', columns, dataSource); var callback = function() { success: dataTable.onDataReturnReplaceRows, failure: function() { // error handling code }, scope: dataTable }; dataSource.setInterval(1000, null, callback); And here's what I'd like to do with it: dataTable.subscribe('cellUpdateEvent', function(record, column, oldData) { var td = dataTable.getTdEl({record: record, column: column}); YAHOO.util.Dom.setStyle(td, 'backgroundColor', '#ffff00'); var animation = new YAHOO.util.ColorAnim(td, { backgroundColor: { to: '#ffffff'; } }); animation.animate(); }; However, it doesn't seem like using cellUpdateEvent works. Does a cell that's updated as a result of the setInterval callback even fire a cellUpdateEvent? It may be that I don't fully understand what's going on under the hood with DataTable. Perhaps the whole table is being redrawn every time the data is queried, so it doesn't know or care about changes to individual cells?. Is the solution to write my own specific function to replace onDataReturnReplaceRows? Could someone enlighten me on how I might go about accomplishing this? Edit: After digging through datatable-debug.js, it looks like onDataReturnReplaceRows won't fire the cellUpdateEvent. It calls reset() on the RecordSet that's backing the DataTable, which deletes all of the rows; it then re-populates the table with fresh data. I tried changing it to use onDataReturnUpdateRows, but that doesn't seem to work either.

    Read the article

  • Blackberry how to display message in app if device got no internet connection?

    - by Johannes
    Hello I've just started with programming for the Blackberry device. I'm using version 5 of the API. I'm building a very simple application which is just a browserfield. So far it's all working great. I can display my browserfield with the content I need. The problem I'm having now is if the device doesn't have an active internet connection I get the ugly "Error requesting content for" message. I would need to someone display my own message if the device doesn't have an active connection. Something like "You need to have an active internet connection to use this application" with an Exit button which closes the app. I've tried to find this for hours but no luck. Hopefully it's something relatively easy so I can get help here. Here's my code so far: package com.mycompany.webview; import net.rim.device.api.browser.field2.*; import net.rim.device.api.ui.*; import net.rim.device.api.ui.container.*; public class webview extends UiApplication { public static void main(String[] args) { webview app = new webview(); app.enterEventDispatcher(); } public webview() { pushScreen(new webviewScreen()); } } class webviewScreen extends MainScreen { public webviewScreen() { BrowserField myBrowserField = new BrowserField(); add(myBrowserField); myBrowserField.requestContent("http://www.google.com"); } } Would really appreciate some help please. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Raytraced Shadows Problem

    - by Mat
    Hey There! I've got a problem with shadowrays in my raytracer. Please have a look at the following two pictures 3D sMax: My Raytracer: The scene is lit by a very bright light, shining from the back. It's so bright that there is no gradient in the shading, just either white or dark (due to the overexposure). both images were rendered using 3DStudioMax and both use the exact same geometry, just in one case the normals are interpolated across the triangles. Now consider the red dot on the surface. In the case of the unsmoothed version, it lies in a dark area. this means that the light source is not visible from this triangle, since it's facing away from it. In the smoothed version however, it lies in the lit area, because the interpolated normal would suggest, that the light would be visible at that point (although the actual geometry of the triangle is facing away from the lightsource). My problem now is when raytraced shadows come in. if a shadowray is shot into the scene, from the red dot, to test whether the light-source is visible or not (to determine shadowing), the shadowray will return an intersection, independent of whether normals are interpolated or not (because intersections only depend on the geometry). Therefore the pixel would be shaded dark. 3dsamx is handling the case correctly - the rendered image was generated with Raytraced shadows turned on. However, my own Raytracer runs exactly into this problem when i turn on raytraced shadows (in my raytracer, the point is dark in both cases, because raytraced shadows determine the point lying in the shadow), and i don't know how to solve it. I hope someone knows this problem and how to deal with it.. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Google Contacts API - No Redirection

    - by mecablaze
    Hello there, I am currently working on Contact Importer web app (in PHP) so I will be able to grab email address from a user's account on Gmail, Yahoo, etc and use them for my own evil purposes. Just kidding, my web app is very friendly. I thought I would start with Google. I found they have a fantastic little API called Google Contacts API which lets a programmer, like myself, to access a user's contacts. After a couple of hours of struggling and throwing shitty code together, I ran into a few road-blocks. My main question is this: Is there any way that I can have a user provide their username and password for Gmail on my website and have my code retrieve the contacts without that nasty redirection to a Google login page? It's kind of ruins the whole flow of my web app. I've looked into AuthSub, and gotten that to work, but of course the catch is that you have to redirect the user to obtain the access token. It looks like OAuth will have this same catch. The one ray of hope I have is the ClientLogin method of authentication. Again, there is a catch, sometimes Google throws you a CAPTCHA instead of the auth token. Again, the user flow is ruined. I've noticed that our good ol' friends over at Twitter have it working just fine. Does anyone know how they do it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Things one needs to know while writing a game engine

    - by Joe Barr
    I have been dabbling in game development as a hobby for a while now, and I cannot seam to quite get my games to sparkle at least a bit with some graphics. I have decided to write a simple test game engine that only focuses on the representation of graphics - shapes, textures and surfaces. While I have a few very simple game engines designed for my own games under my belt, I want to create a game engine that I can use to display and play with graphics. I'm going to do this in C++. Since this is my first time with a major engine, the engine in not going to focus on 3D graphics, it's going to be a mixture of isometric and 2D graphics. My previous engines have incorporated (been able to draw) or focused on simple flat (almost 2D) non impressive graphic designs and representations of: the player NPCs objects walls and surfaces textures Also, I had some basic AI and sometimes even sound. They also saved and loaded games. They didn't have a map editor or a level editor. Is this going to be a problem in the future? At this time I have to point out that some of my games didn't get finished because I was to lazy to write the few last levels. My question at this point would be: What are some things one should know if one wants write (develope) a better graphical game engine with all it's functions.

    Read the article

  • When writing a game, should you make objects/enemies/etc. have unique ID numbers?

    - by SLC
    I have recently encountered some issues with merely passing references to objects/enemies in a game I am making, and am wondering if I am using the wrong approach. The main issue I have is disposing of enemies and objects, when other enemies or players may still have links to them. For example, if you have a Rabbit, and a Wolf, the Wolf may have selected the Rabbit to be its target. What I am doing, is the wolf has a GameObject Target = null; and when it decides it is hungry, the Target becomes the Rabbit. If the Rabbit then dies, such as another wolf killing it, it cannot be removed from the game properly because this wolf still has a reference to it. In addition, if you are using a decoupled approach, the rabbit could hit by lightning, reducing its health to below zero. When it next updates itself, it realises it has died, and is removed from the game... but there is no way to update everything that is interested in it. If you gave every enemy a unique ID, you could simply use references to that instead, and use a central lookup class that handled it. If the monster died, the lookup class could remove it from its own index, and subsequently anything trying to access it would be informed that it's dead, and then they could act accordingly. Any thoughts on this?

    Read the article

  • Extracting bool from istream in a templated function

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I'm converting my fields class read functions into one template function. I have field classes for int, unsigned int, long, and unsigned long. These all use the same method for extracting a value from an istringstream (only the types change): template <typename Value_Type> Value_Type Extract_Value(const std::string& input_string) { std::istringstream m_string_stream; m_string_stream.str(input_string); m_string_stream.clear(); m_string_stream >> value; return; } The tricky part is with the bool (Boolean) type. There are many textual representations for Boolean: 0, 1, T, F, TRUE, FALSE, and all the case insensitive combinations Here's the questions: What does the C++ standard say are valid data to extract a bool, using the stream extraction operator? Since Boolean can be represented by text, does this involve locales? Is this platform dependent? I would like to simplify my code by not writing my own handler for bool input. I am using MS Visual Studio 2008 (version 9), C++, and Windows XP and Vista.

    Read the article

  • android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

    - by moonlightcheese
    I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? edit (4/30/2010-18:24): Just compiled some code where I got the above stated error. I closed some web browser windows and recompiled the same exact code with no edits and it compiled with no issue. this is definitely a compiler issue related to memory usage. Any help would be great.... because I have no idea where to go from here. Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12 Sorry I had to repost this question because regardless of whether I use the native HttpClient class in the Android SDK or my custom version downloaded from apache, the error still occurs.

    Read the article

  • android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

    - by moonlightcheese
    I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12

    Read the article

  • Using IsolatedStorage on a IIS server

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am a bit confusing about the use of Isolated Storage on an IIS server. I understand the goal of Isolated Storage : provides a safe place to store data with no worry about how and where is this place. Since Isolated Storage has a by-user and by-assembly approach, I'am not to wild about using it on a IIS server where applications have almost their own identity. I haven't really seen the interest of impersonating a web application and almost never seen impersonated web applications myself but this is my point of view. Using Isolated Storage on a server mean : Using Isolated stores in \Documents and Settings\<user>\ Which mean \Documents and Settings\Default User\ when the application pool is owned by Local System or Network Services I guess Which also mean Write rights on this folder for Local System or Network Services Using of impersonation Regarding a web application (logic), these ideas are confusing me... Document and Settings ? Default User ? Enable impersonation just for storage ? No control about storage on server ? Uh ? And then I'am a front of a dilema : use System.IO.Packaging (with Isolated Storage inside) on web applications or find an alternative ? Am I wrong in my approach ? Did I miss something ? Any point of view is appreciated and an explanation about the Isolated Storage with IIS philosophy could be an anwser. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • Crystal reports 11 RDC (COM API) displays printer dialog even when I tell it not to prompt

    - by bdonlan
    I'm using Crystal Reports 11's RDC (COM) API to print. My code looks like this: HRESULT res = m_Report->SelectPrinter(b_driver, b_device, b_port); if (FAILED(res)) return res; // For these calls, the #import wrapper throws on error m_Report->PutPrinterDuplex(dmDuplex); m_Report->PutPaperSize(dmPaperSize); m_Report->PutPaperSource((CRPaperSource)pdlg->GetDevMode()->dmDefaultSource); if (m_Report->GetPaperOrientation() == crDefaultPaperOrientation) m_Report->PutPaperOrientation(crPortrait); VARIANT vfalse; VariantInit(&vfalse); vfalse.vt=VT_BOOL; vfalse.boolVal=0; res = m_Report->PrintOut(vfalse); However, at the end of all this, crystal reports still shows its own printer selection dialog - but only for some reports, it seems. Why does crystal reports show a print dialog even when I pass false for promptUser? And how, then, can I suppress crystal reports' internal printer selection dialog and force it to use my values? Edit: Whoops, CR11, not CR9. Some further information: The reports that work properly (ie, do not show the print dialog) are generated internally using the RDC API; we create a new report object, import subreports into it, then print the result. No problem there. The reports that do not work properly (ie, force the print dialog to open) have been created with a previous version of crystal reports; however, opening and saving the report does not seem to help. Sample reports in the Crystal Reports installation directory show the same problem. I tried reproducing with VBScript; however, the result was that nothing was printed at all (no dialog, no nothing): Set app = CreateObject("CrystalRuntime.Application.11") Set report = app.OpenReport("C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Crystal Reports 11.5\Samples\en\Reports\General Business\Inventory Crosstab.rpt") report.PrintOut(True) rem Testing with a True parameter to force a print dialog - but no printout and nothing appears (no error either though)

    Read the article

  • Java FileLock for Reading and Writing

    - by bobtheowl2
    I have a process that will be called rather frequently from cron to read a file that has certain move related commands in it. My process needs to read and write to this data file - and keep it locked to prevent other processes from touching it during this time. A completely separate process can be executed by a user to (potential) write/append to this same data file. I want these two processes to play nice and only access the file one at a time. The nio FileLock seemed to be what I needed (short of writing my own semaphore type files), but I'm having trouble locking it for reading. I can lock and write just fine, but when attempting to create lock when reading I get a NonWritableChannelException. Is it even possible to lock a file for reading? Seems like a RandomAccessFile is closer to what I need, but I don't see how to implement that. Here is the code that fails: FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); FileLock fl = fin.getChannel().tryLock(); if(fl != null) { System.out.println("Locked File"); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(fin)); System.out.println(in.readLine()); ... The exception is thrown on the FileLock line. java.nio.channels.NonWritableChannelException at sun.nio.ch.FileChannelImpl.tryLock(Unknown Source) at java.nio.channels.FileChannel.tryLock(Unknown Source) at Mover.run(Mover.java:74) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Looking at the JavaDocs, it says Unchecked exception thrown when an attempt is made to write to a channel that was not originally opened for writing. But I don't necessarily need to write to it. When I try creating a FileOutpuStream, etc. for writing purposes it is happy until I try to open a FileInputStream on the same file.

    Read the article

  • How to eliminate Unhandled Exception dialog produced by 3rd party application

    - by Tappen
    I'm working with a 3rd party executable that I can't recompile (vendor is no longer available). It was originally written under .Net 1.1 but seems to work fine under later versions as well. I launch it using Process.Start from my own application (I've tried p/invoke CreateProcess as well with the same results so that's not relevant) Unfortunately this 3rd party app now throws an unhandled exception as it exits. The Microsoft dialog box has a title like "Exception thrown from v2.0 ... Broadcast Window" with the version number relating to the version of .Net it's running under (I can use a .exe.config file to target different .Net versions, doesn't help). The unhandled exception dialog box on exit doesn't cause any real problems, but is troubling to my users who have to click OK to dismiss it every time. Is there any way (a config file option perhaps) to disable this dialog from showing for an app I don't have the source code to? I've considered loading it in a new AppDomain which would give me access to the UnhandledException event but there's no indication I could change the appearence of the dialog. Maybe someone knows what causes the exception and I can fix this some other way?

    Read the article

  • How to switch users in a smooth way in a Point-Of-Sale system?

    - by Sanoj
    I am designing a Point-Of-Sale system for a small shop. The shop just have one Point-Of-Sale but often they are one to three users (sellers) in the shop. Each user have their own user account in the system so they login and logout very often. How should I design the login/logout system in a good way? For the moment the users don't use passwords, because it takes so long time to type the password each time they login. The Platform is Windows Vista but I would like to support Windows 7 too. We use Active Directory on the Network. The system is developed in Java/Swing for the moment, but I'm thinking about to change to C#.NET/WPF. I am thinking about an SmartCard solution, but I don't know if that fits my situation. It would be more secure (which I like) but I don't know if it will be easy to implement and smooth to use, i.e. can I have the POS-system running in the background or started very quickly when the users switch? Are SmartCard solutions very expensive? (My customers are small shops) Is it preferred to use .NET or Java in a SmartCard solution? What other solutions do I have other than passwords/no passwords/smartcards? How should I design the login/logout system in a good way? Is there any good solution using SmartCards for this purpose? I would like suggested solutions both for C#.NET/WPF and Java/Swing platforms. I would like suggested solutions both for Active Directory solutions and solutions that only use one user profile in Windows. How is this problem solved in similar products? I have only seen password-solutions, but they are clumsy.

    Read the article

  • User avatar cropping/resizing with paperclip and jquery in rails

    - by Micke
    Hello fellow stackoverflow users. I am building my first Ruby on Rails app which is going to be my own little community. I have made the User model with several fields and information. But now i am thinking of adding avatar support for the users. And i've been researching and found that my best option would be using Paperclip. But then i've encountered a little dilemma. I want my users to be able to resie/crop their avatar image after they have chosen a image. I have googled alot and since i am using jQuery i found that imgAreaSelect would be best in my opinion. And i think MiniMagick looks best. So to my question. How can i best intergrate Paperclip and imgAreaSelect? I am new to Ruby and Rails so i don't know how i can resize the image. Do you folks know how to intergrate the to or maybe some other options that fits my needs best? I also need to apologize for my bad/misspelled english since i am not english :) Thanking you in advance. Yours sincerely, Micke.

    Read the article

  • Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

    Read the article

  • Displaying Many-To-Many Database relationship in VB.NET 2008 with DataGrid, MS SQL 2008

    - by user337501
    Computer bombed while posting this, couldnt find a duplicate question but if there is one, forgive me. So, I've run into a wall. And rather than use a ladder to avoid it, I'd like go through it. I'm setting up what I can best describe as a many-to-many relationship in a database. To examplify, imagine I have three primary tables: Items, Categories, Sections(nevermind the potential redundancy) Then I have another table, Properties. Items, Categories, and Sections can be associated with many properties. A single property can be associated with one, all, or none of the other tables. The best way I can figure to do this is to have join tables make the relationship. i.e. tblItems----(Foreign Key)----tblItems_To_Properties----(Foreign Key)----tblProperties In this example, tblItems simply has an "ItemID" Primary Key. tblItems_To_Properties has its own Primary Key(tblItems_To_PropertiesID), a Foreign Key to the Item(ItemID) and a Foreign key to the Property(PropertyID). The Properties table simply has its primary key(PropertyID) I hope this example isnt too confusing...if I have to I can find a way to put a diagram up or something. My problem is, I want to display this in a DataGrid using the Master-Detail method(DevExpress GridControl). I use the tblItems as a test, and I can see the Items in the parent view, but in the child view I see(understandably) the join table and that is it. My goal is to make it so the Grid ignores the join table and shows the Properties table as the only child. Any help on this method or insight into another solution would be muuuuuuuch appreciat

    Read the article

  • VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

    - by clawson
    Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Spam proof hit counter in Django

    - by Jim Robert
    I already looked at the most popular Django hit counter solutions and none of them seem to solve the issue of spamming the refresh button. Do I really have to log the IP of every visitor to keep them from artificially boosting page view counts by spamming the refresh button (or writing a quick and dirty script to do it for them)? More information So right now you can inflate your view count with the following few lines of Python code. Which is so little that you don't even really need to write a script, you could just type it into an interactive session: from urllib import urlopen num_of_times_to_hit_page = 100 url_of_the_page = "http://example.com" for x in range(num_of_times_to_hit_page): urlopen(url_of_the_page) Solution I'll probably use To me, it's a pretty rough situation when you need to do a bunch of writes to the database on EVERY page view, but I guess it can't be helped. I'm going to implement IP logging due to several users artificially inflating their view count. It's not that they're bad people or even bad users. See the answer about solving the problem with caching... I'm going to pursue that route first. Will update with results. For what it's worth, it seems Stack Overflow is using cookies (I can't increment my own view count, but it increased when I visited the site in another browser.) I think that the benefit is just too much, and this sort of 'cheating' is just too easy right now. Thanks for the help everyone!

    Read the article

  • Problem with response.redirect sending incorrect HTTPMethod

    - by Andy Macnaughton-Jones
    Hi, I've got a strange problem with a Response.Redirect. I'm using VB.NET with the .NET 2 framework (so VS2005 & SP1). I've got a page that I do a form submit on (that's a proper form method="POST" hard-coded onto the page) and that properly posts me back the page data which is then processed. As part of that processing the system determines if we need to get sent to another URL after processing has been complete. So the request.httpmethod = "POST". So if the "GotoPage" parameter has a URL specified we then do a response.redirect(URL, false). (False as we want page processing to complete in order to write some timing logs etc). The page correctly redirects but instead of the response having a "GET" as the request.httpmethod it has a "POST" instead ! Now, we're using our own custom framework so that we use the HTTPRequest method to determine if a page has been posted back or is being "Getted" so the "IsPagePostBack" property doesn't work (that only works when you're using the normal .NET controls and form submissions). In all other instances our code works happily but what might be causing the Request.httpMethod to not be being set correctly ? I've tried doing a response.clear before the redirect in case headers are being written out before hand but to no avail. Any clues ?! thanks, Andy

    Read the article

  • Need help with Javascript....I think

    - by Mikey
    I'm trying to bypass going through a bunch of menus, to get to the data I want directly. Here are the links I want to go to: http://factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53053072904&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53025981400&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53067011620&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 Notice, if you pull that up right now, you simply see a GIF outline of the map, however there is no map data "behind" it. However, if you go to: factfinder.census.gov/servlet/DTGeoSearchByListServlet?ds_name=DEC_2000_SF1_U&_lang=en&_ts=288392632118 Select Geographic Type: ..... ..... Census Tract Select a State: Washington Select a County: Pierce Select one or more geographic areas: Census Tract 729.04 Hit "Map It" The map will load perfectly. Also, until you close your browser, any of the other links will work perfectly. What I want to do, is be able to bypass these 5 steps, but obviously something is preventing this. Is there a feasible workaround? I have my own domain that I would be able to upload new Javascript or HTML files or whatever is needed.

    Read the article

  • java distributed cache for low latency, high availability

    - by Shahbaz
    I've never used distributed caches/DHTs like memcached, jboss cache, ehcache, etc. I'm wondering which, if any, is appropriate for my use. First, I'm not doing web applications (as most of these project seem to be geared towards web apps). I write servers (Order Management Systems actually) for financial trading firms. The servers themselves are not too complicated. They need to receive information (market data, orders, executions, etc.) rout them to their destination while possibly transforming some of these messages. I am looking at these products to solve the following problems: * Safe repository of the state of the server. I'd rather build the logic of my application as a bunch of transformers (similar to Apache Camel) and store the state in a 'safe' place * This repository should be distributed: in case one of these data stores crashes, one or two more should be up and I should be able to switch to them seamlessly * This repository should be fast. Single digits milliseconds count here, in other words, systems which consume/process this data are automated systems, not humans clicking on links. This system needs to have high-throughput and low latency. By sending my data outside the process, I am necessarily slowing performance, but I am trying to balance absolute raw speed and absolute protection of data. * This repository should be safe. Similar to the point about several on-line backups, this system needs to write data to disk (potentially more than one disk). I'd really like to stop writing my own 'transaction servers.' Am I correct to be looking into projects such as jboss cache, ehcache, etc.? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Hiding a UINavigationController's UIToolbar during viewWillDisappear:

    - by Nathan de Vries
    I've got an iPhone application with a UITableView menu. When a row in the table is selected, the appropriate view controller is pushed onto the application's UINavigationController stack. My issue is that the MenuViewController does not need a toolbar, but the UIViewControllers which are pushed onto the stack do. Each UIViewController that gets pushed calls setToolbarHidden:animated: in viewDidAppear:. To hide the toolbar, I call setToolbarHidden:animated: in viewWillDisappear:. Showing the toolbar works, such that when the pushed view appears the toolbar slides up and the view resizes correctly. However, when the back button is pressed the toolbar slides down but the view does not resize. This means that there's a black strip along the bottom of the view as the other view transitions in. I've tried adding the toolbar's height to the height of the view prior to hiding the toolbar, but this causes the view to be animated during the transition so that there's still a black bar. I realise I can manage my own UIToolbar, but I'd like to use UINavigationControllers built in UIToolbar for convenience. This forum post mentions the same issue, but no workaround is mentioned.

    Read the article

  • Passing object(s) to a Controller Action

    - by Nicholas H
    I'm attempting to use jQuery to do a $.post() to an MVC controller action. Here's the jQuery calls: var _authTicket = { username: 'testingu', password: 'testingp' }; function DoPost() { var inputObj = { authTicket: _authTicket, dateRange: 'ThisWeek' }; $.post('/MyController/MyAction', inputObj, PostResult); } function PostResult(data) { alert(JSON.stringify(data)); } Here's the controller action: <HttpPost()> _ Function MyAction(ByVal authTicket As AuthTicket, ByVal dateRange As String) As ActionResult Dim u = ValidateUser(authTicket) If u Is Nothing Then Throw New Exception("User not valid") ' etc.. End Function The problem is, MyAction's "authTicket" parameter is all empty. The second "dateRange" parameter gets populated just fine. I'm pretty sure that the issue stems from jQuery turning the data into key/value pairs to POST to the action. MVC must not understand the format, at least when it's an object with it's own properties. The name/value pair format that jQuery is converting to is like: authTicket[username] = "testingu" authTicket[password] = "testingp" Which in turn gets made into x-www-form-urlencoded'd data: authTicket%5Busername%5D=testingu &authTicket%5Bpassword%5D=testingp I guess I could always have "username" and "password" properties in my actions, but that seems wrong to me. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >