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  • Redirecting one file to another using dub2 and strtok

    - by Sergiy Zakharov
    OK, here goes. I have to write a program, in which I need to use strtok and dup2 to redirect one file to another, but I need to also have the user to actually put the command cat < file1 file2, but not from the shell, but instead by using my program. That's why I need strtok. And the reason my program doesn't work is probably because of that, because I don't really understand how strtok works. I found a similar program on the internet, but they just take the ls command and redirect it to the file. That's it. My program is much more complicated. I mean, it would've been easier just to say in shell cat < file1 file2, but for some reason they want us to do it this way. So, anyways, here is what I have so far (here I just combined what I have found on the internet with what I already had from before. We had to do something similar but then the user would just go ls or ls -l. Very simple stuff. This is much harder, for me, at least.) #include <fcntl.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <string.h> int main() { pid_t pid; char line[256]; char *args[129]; int i; int fd; int status; char *temp; while (1) { printf(">"); if (fgets(line, 256, stdin) == 0) { exit(0); } else { pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { i = 0; temp = strtok("<",line); while (temp != NULL) { args[i++] = temp; temp = strtok(">",line); args[i] = '\0'; } fd = open("hello", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd, STDIN_FILENO); fd = open("world", O_WRONLY|O_CREAT|O_TRUNC, S_IRWXU); dup2(fd, STDOUT_FILENO ); close(fd); execvp(args[0], args); } else { close(fd); wait(&status); } } } } Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • are C functions declared in <c____> headers guaranteed to be in the global namespace as well as std?

    - by Evan Teran
    So this is something that I've always wondered but was never quite sure about. So it is strictly a matter of curiosity, not a real problem. As far as I understand, what you do something like #include <cstdlib> everything (except macros of course) are declared in the std:: namespace. Every implementation that I've ever seen does this by doing something like the following: #include <stdlib.h> namespace std { using ::abort; // etc.... } Which of course has the effect of things being in both the global namespace and std. Is this behavior guaranteed? Or is it possible that an implementation could put these things in std but not in the global namespace? The only way I can think of to do that would be to have your libstdc++ implement every c function itself placing them in std directly instead of just including the existing libc headers (because there is no mechanism to remove something from a namespace). Which is of course a lot of effort with little to no benefit. The essence of my question is, is the following program strictly conforming and guaranteed to work? #include <cstdio> int main() { ::printf("hello world\n"); } EDIT: The closest I've found is this (17.4.1.2p4): Except as noted in clauses 18 through 27, the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C (Clause 7), or ISO/IEC:1990 Programming Languages—C AMENDMENT 1: C Integrity, (Clause 7), as appropriate, as if by inclusion. In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std. which to be honest I could interpret either way. "the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C" tells me that they may be required in the global namespace, but "In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std." says they are in std (but doesn't specify any other scoped they are in).

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

    - by Sam
    i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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  • controlling the class names generated by JAXB for xsd:attributeGroup?

    - by Stephen Winnall
    I am using JAXB to bind XML to Java for an application that I am writing. I have an element called measure which contains two amount elements called amount and maxAmount, with which I want to model a lower and an upper limiting value. amount and maxAmount are otherwise identical and I would like them to be implemented with the same class when unmarshalled into Java. The following is an extract from the XML schema which I feed to JAXB: <xsd:attributeGroup name="AmountAttributes"> <xsd:attribute name="quantity" type="xsd:decimal"/> <xsd:attribute name="numerator" type="xsd:nonNegativeInteger"/> <xsd:attribute name="denominator" type="xsd:positiveInteger"/> </xsd:attributeGroup> <xsd:element name="measure"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="amount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="maxAmount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> JAXB creates from this a more elaborate version of the following: public class Measure { protected Measure.Amount amount; protected Measure.MaxAmount maxAmount; public static class Measure.Amount {} public static class Measure.MaxAmount {} } Measure.Amount and Measure.MaxAmount are identical except for their names, but - of course - as far as Java is concerned they have little to do with each other. Is there a way of making JAXB use the same class for both amount and maxAmount? Just to come completely clean ;-) I should mention that I generate the XML schema from RNC using Trang. If the answer to the question is "change the XML schema", I have the supplementary question "how do I change the RNC to produce that XML schema?". My RNC looks like this: AmountAttributes = QuantityAttribute? & attribute numerator { xsd:nonNegativeInteger }? & attribute denominator { xsd:positiveInteger }? QuantityAttribute = attribute quantity { xsd:decimal } Measure = element measure { element amount { AmountAttributes }?, element maxAmount { AmountAttributes }? }+ I use RNC because I find it simpler to understand, but if the solution to my problem means just using XML Schema, so be it. Steve

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  • Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

    - by Greggo
    I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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  • OpenGL Coordinate system confusion

    - by user146780
    Maybe I set up GLUT wrong. Basically I want verticies to be reletive to their size in pixels. Ex:right now if I create a hexagon, it hakes up the whole screen even though the units are 6. #include <iostream> #include <stdlib.h> //Needed for "exit" function #include <cmath> //Include OpenGL header files, so that we can use OpenGL #ifdef __APPLE__ #include <OpenGL/OpenGL.h> #include <GLUT/glut.h> #else #include <GL/glut.h> #endif using namespace std; //Called when a key is pressed void handleKeypress(unsigned char key, //The key that was pressed int x, int y) { //The current mouse coordinates switch (key) { case 27: //Escape key exit(0); //Exit the program } } //Initializes 3D rendering void initRendering() { //Makes 3D drawing work when something is in front of something else glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); } //Called when the window is resized void handleResize(int w, int h) { //Tell OpenGL how to convert from coordinates to pixel values glViewport(0, 0, w, h); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); //Switch to setting the camera perspective //Set the camera perspective glLoadIdentity(); //Reset the camera gluPerspective(45.0, //The camera angle (double)w / (double)h, //The width-to-height ratio 1.0, //The near z clipping coordinate 200.0); //The far z clipping coordinate } //Draws the 3D scene void drawScene() { //Clear information from last draw glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); //Reset the drawing perspective glPolygonMode(GL_FRONT_AND_BACK, GL_FILL); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); //Begin quadrilateral coordinates //Trapezoid glColor3f(255,0,0); for(int i = 0; i < 6; ++i) { glVertex2d(sin(i/6.0*2* 3.1415), cos(i/6.0*2* 3.1415)); } glEnd(); //End quadrilateral coordinates glutSwapBuffers(); //Send the 3D scene to the screen } int main(int argc, char** argv) { //Initialize GLUT glutInit(&argc, argv); glutInitDisplayMode(GLUT_DOUBLE | GLUT_RGBA | GLUT_DEPTH); glutInitWindowSize(400, 400); //Set the window size //Create the window glutCreateWindow("Basic Shapes - videotutorialsrock.com"); initRendering(); //Initialize rendering //Set handler functions for drawing, keypresses, and window resizes glutDisplayFunc(drawScene); glutKeyboardFunc(handleKeypress); glutReshapeFunc(handleResize); glutMainLoop(); //Start the main loop. glutMainLoop doesn't return. return 0; //This line is never reached } How can I make it so that a polygon of 0,0 10,0 10,10 0,10 defines a polygon starting at the top left of the screen and is a width and height of 10 pixels? Thanks

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • WFP Textblock in Listbox not clipping properly

    - by Tobias Funke
    Her's what I want: A listbox whose items consist of a stackpanel with two textblocks. The textblocks need to support wrapping, the listbox should not expand, and there should be no horizontal scrollbar. Here's the code I have so far. Copy and paste it into XamlPad and you'll see what I'm talking about. <ListBox Height="300" Width="300" x:Name="tvShows"> <ListBox.Items> <ListBoxItem> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Width="{Binding ElementName=tvShows, Path=ActualWidth}" TextWrapping="Wrap">Lost is an American live-action television series. It follows the lives of plane crash survivors on a mysterious tropical island.</TextBlock> <TextBlock Width="{Binding ElementName=tvShows, Path=ActualWidth}" TextWrapping="Wrap">Lost is an American live-action television series. It follows the lives of plane crash survivors on a mysterious tropical island.</TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Width="{Binding ElementName=tvShows, Path=ActualWidth}" TextWrapping="Wrap">Lost is an American live-action television series. It follows the lives of plane crash survivors on a mysterious tropical island.</TextBlock> <TextBlock Width="{Binding ElementName=tvShows, Path=ActualWidth}" TextWrapping="Wrap">Lost is an American live-action television series. It follows the lives of plane crash survivors on a mysterious tropical island.</TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ListBoxItem> </ListBox.Items> </ListBox> This seems to be doing the job of keeping the textblocks from growing, but there's one problem. The textblocks seem to be slightly larger than the listbox, causing the horizontal scrollbar to appear. This is strange because their widths are bound to the lisbox's ActualWidth. Also, if you add a few more items to the listbox (just cut and paste in XamlPad) causing the vertical scrollbar to appear, the width of the textblocks do not resize to the vertical scrollbar. How do I keep the textblocks inside the listbox, with or without the vertical scrollbar?

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Intent filter for browsing XML (specifically rss) in android

    - by Leif Andersen
    I have an activity that I want to run every time the user goes to an xml (specifically rss) page in the browser (at least assuming the user get's it from the list of apps that can support it). I currently already have the current intent filter: <activity android:name=".activities.EpisodesListActivity" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar"> <intent-filter> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <data android:scheme="http"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> Now as you can guess, this is an evil intent, as it wants to open whenever a page is requested via http. However, when I ad the line: <data android:mimeType="application/rss+xml"></data> to make it: <activity android:name=".activities.EpisodesListActivity" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar"> <intent-filter> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <data android:scheme="http"></data> <data android:mimeType="application/rss+xml"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> The application no longer claims to be able to run rss files. Also, if I change the line to: <data android:mimeType="application/xml"></data> It also won't work (for generic xml file even). So what intent filter do I need to make in order to claim that the activity supports rss. (Also, bonus points if you can tell me how I know what URL it was the user opened. So far, I've always sent that information from one activity to the other using extras). Thank you for your help

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • Make text in a <div> wrap around a child element.

    - by John
    In Word you can place an image on a page and have the text flow nicely around it. I was wondering how far one can get towards this using CSS, noting that is has to work in IE6. I already have something sort of close using float, but the floated child-element still 'blocks' text above it. So it partially wraps. Is it possible to put a child div at some arbitrary position in the parent, and have text flow around it freely? The actual use-case here is to put illustrations inside the main content , where each illustration is implemented inside a child . I repeat, it has to work on IE6. And I don't want to get too involved in browser-specific hacks... floating the child at least works on IE6 with no tweaking. Currently I have like this: <div> <div class="illustration"> <img src="image1.png" /> <p>Illustration caption</p> </div> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur sadipscing elitr, sed diam nonumy eirmod tempor invidunt ut labore et dolore magna aliquyam erat, sed diam voluptua. Atvero eos et accusam et justo duo dolores et ea rebum. Stet clita kasd gubergren, no sea takimata sanctus est Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet. </p> </div> div.illustration { float:right; border-top: 1px solid #505050; border-left: 1px solid #505050; border-right: 1px solid #505050; border-bottom: 1px solid #505050; margin-right:30px; margin-top:100px; text-align:center; padding:2px; background: #96C3FF; } div.illustration p { margin:0; font-size:small; font-style:italic; padding:0; }

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  • CRUD Question with Codeigniter

    - by Brad
    I have a database with blog entries in it. The desired output I am trying to acheive is 3 entrys displayed using the css3 multi paragraph and then another 3(or more) formatted with the codeigniter Character_limiter. So I need 3 displays formatted one way and 3+ formatted another way on the same page. So far this is what I have, but i do not know how to format the sql to achieve what I want. I can call all posts in descending order like I want, but dont know how to separate the code to achieve my output Controller: $this->db->order_by('id', 'DESC'); $this->db->limit('2'); $query = $this->db->get('posts'); if($query->result()) $data = array(); { $data['blog'] = $query->result(); } $data['title'] = 'LemonRose'; $data['content'] = 'home/home_content'; $this->load->view('template1', $data); View: <?php if (isset($blog)): foreach ($blog as $row): ?> <span class="title"><?php echo $row->title; ?> </span> <?php echo $row->date; ?> <div class="split"><?php echo $row->post =$this->typography->auto_typography($row->post); ?></div> <?php echo 'Post #',$row->id; ?> <p> Trackback URL: <? echo base_url()."trackbacks/track/$row->id";?></p> <hr /> <?php endforeach; endif; ?> The split class is multiple columns. I tried 2 different querys but dont know how to separate all the post displays. Also one query always overides the second and produces all split or all character limited paragraphs. Im lost here lol. Thanks

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • UIVIewController not released when view is dismissed

    - by Nelson Ko
    I have a main view, mainWindow, which presents a couple of buttons. Both buttons create a new UIViewController (mapViewController), but one will start a game and the other will resume it. Both buttons are linked via StoryBoard to the same View. They are segued to modal views as I'm not using the NavigationController. So in a typical game, if a person starts a game, but then goes back to the main menu, he triggers: [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil ]; to return to the main menu. I would assume the view controller is released at this point. The user resumes the game with the second button by opening another instance of mapViewController. What is happening, tho, is some touch events will trigger methods on the original instance (and write status updates to them - therefore invisible to the current view). When I put a breakpoint in the mapViewController code, I can see the instance will be one or the other (one of which should be released). I have tried putting a delegate to the mainWindow clearing the view: [self.delegate clearMapView]; where in the mainWindow - (void) clearMapView{ gameWindow = nil; } I have also tried self.view=nil; in the mapViewController. The mapViewController code contains MVC code, where the model is static. I wonder if this may prevent ARC from releasing the view. The model.m contains: static CanShieldModel *sharedInstance; + (CanShieldModel *) sharedModel { @synchronized(self) { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [[CanShieldModel alloc] init]; return sharedInstance; } return sharedInstance; } Another post which may have a lead, but so far not successful, is UIViewController not being released when popped I have in ViewDidLoad: // checks to see if app goes inactive - saves. [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resignActive) name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; with the corresponding in ViewDidUnload: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; Does anyone have any suggestions? EDIT: - (void) prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender{ NSString *identifier = segue.identifier; if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Start Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=-1; gameWindow.delegate = self; } else if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Resume Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=0; gameWindow.delegate = self;

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  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

    - by Sebhael
    Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

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  • ScrollTo and toggle div

    - by user1466260
    I'm a big fan ov 8020.com and my goal is to create a porfolio with the same functionality like the one they have. Here is my markup This section should be hidden <section id="work-container"> <div id="work-list-51" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> <div id="work-list-52" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> <div id="work-list-53" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> </section> This section will hold the thumbnails. When you click a thumbnail you will scroll to the top and the div will slidetoggle. <ul id="work-list"> <li id="work-list-51"><a data-page="51" href="#work-list-51"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> <li id="work-list-52"><a data-page="52" href="#work-list-52"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> <li id="work-list-53"><a data-page="53" href="#work-list-53"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> </ul> I have come this far: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#work-list a").click(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); $('html, body').animate ( {scrollTop: $('#top').offset().top}, 800 ); }); $('#work-list a').click(function(e) { $('#work-container > div').hide(); $(this.hash).slideToggle(1600); }); }); It scrolls to top and the div becomes visible but it does not work correctly :)

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