single board - Page 612

JS/CSS include section replacement, Debug vs Release

- by Bayard Randel

I'd be interested to hear how people handle conditional markup, specifically in their masterpages between release and debug builds. The particular scenario this is applicable to is handling concatenated js and css files. I'm currently using the .Net port of YUI compress to produce a single site.css and site.js from a large collection of separate files. One thought that occurred to me was to place the js and css include section in a user control or collection of panels and conditionally display the <link> and <script> markup based on the Debug or Release state of the assembly. Something along the lines of: #if DEBUG pnlDebugIncludes.visible = true #else pnlReleaseIncludes.visible = true #endif The panel is really not very nice semantically - wrapping <script> tags in a <div> is a bit gross; there must be a better approach. I would also think that a block level element like a <div> within <head> would be invalid html. Another idea was this could possibly be handled using web.config section replacements, but I'm not sure how I would go about doing that.

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Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

- by James

I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

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Why doesn't java.util.Set have get(int index)?

- by Marty Pitt

I'm sure there's a good reason, but could someone please explain why the java.util.Set interface lacks get(int Index), or any similar get() method? It seems that sets are great for putting things into, but I can't find an elegant way of retrieving a single item from it. If I know I want the first item, I can use set.iterator().next(), but otherwise it seems I have to cast to an Array to retrieve an item at a specific index? What are the appropriate ways of retrieving data from a set? (other than using an iterator) I'm sure the fact that it's excluded from the API means there's a good reason for not doing this -- could someone please enlighten me? EDIT: Some extremely great answers here, and a few saying "more context". The specific scneario was a dbUnit test, where I could reasonalby assert that the returned set from a query had only 1 item, and I was trying to access that item. However, the question is more valid without the scenario, as it remains more focussed : What's the difference between set & list. Thanks to all for the fantastic answers below.

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Bind to a property of a parent element in wpf

- by msfanboy

Hello all, I want to bind the Height property of the RichTextBox to the Height Property of the GridViews Row. How can I do that? I do not know how to get the Rows Height as I can not access the Row in xaml what I would like to do. <my:RadGridView Height="524" ItemsSource="{Binding Lessons}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" VerticalAlignment="Top" SelectionMode="Single" CanUserSortColumns="False" IsFilteringAllowed="False"> <my:RadGridView.Columns> <my:GridViewDataColumn Name="ContentColumn" Width="0.3*" Header="Content"> <my:GridViewDataColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <RichTextBox Height="{Binding ElementName=MyRowNameToBindTo,Path=Height}"> <FlowDocument> <Paragraph> <Run Text="{Binding Content}"/> </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </RichTextBox> </DataTemplate> </my:GridViewDataColumn.CellTemplate> ...

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Correct way to do timer function in Python

- by bwawok

Hi. I have a GUI application that needs to do something simple in the background (update a wx python progress bar, but that doesn't really matter). I see that there is a threading.timer class.. but there seems to be no way to make it repeat. So if I use the timer, I end up having to make a new thread on every single execution... like : import threading import time def DoTheDew(): print "I did it" t = threading.Timer(1, function=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() if __name__ == '__main__': t = threading.Timer(1, function=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() time.sleep(10) This seems like I am making a bunch of threads that do 1 silly thing and die.. why not write it as : import threading import time def DoTheDew(): while True: print "I did it" time.sleep(1) if __name__ == '__main__': t = threading.Thread(target=DoTheDew) t.daemon = True t.start() time.sleep(10) Am I missing some way to make a timer keep doing something? Either of these options seems silly... I am looking for a timer more like a java.util.Timer that can schedule the thread to happen every second... If there isn't a way in Python, which of my above methods is better and why?

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Pump Messages During Long Operations + C#

- by Newbie

Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? Thanks

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Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

- by NXT

Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

- by James Black

I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

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Best approach for Java/Maven/JPA/Hibernate build with multiple database vendor support?

- by HDave

I have an enterprise application that uses a single database, but the application needs to support mysql, oracle, and sql*server as installation options. To try to remain portable we are using JPA annotations with Hibernate as the implementation. We also have a test-bed instance of each database running for development. The app is building nicely in Maven, and I've played around with the hibernate3-maven-plugin and can auto-generate DDL for a given database dialect. What is the best way to approach this so that individual developers can easily test against all three databases and our Hudson based CI server can build things propertly. More specifically: 1) I thought the hbm2ddl goal in the hibernate3-maven-plugin would just generate a schema file, but apparently it connects to a live database and attempts to create the schema. Is there a way to have this just create the schema file for each database dialect without connecting to a database? 2) If the hibernate3-maven-plug insists on actually creating the database schema, is there a way to have it drop the database and recreate it before creating the schema? 3) I am thinking that each developer (and the hudson build machine) should have their own separate database on each database server. Is this typical? 4) Will developers have to run Maven three times...once for each database vendor? If so, how do I merge the results on the build machine? 5) There is a hbm2doc goal within hibernate3-maven-plugin. It seems overkill to run this three times...I gotta believe it'd be nearly identical for each database.

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XSL - How to match consecutive comma-separated tags

- by PocketLogic

I'm trying to match a series of xml tags that are comma separated, and to then apply an xslt transformation on the whole group of nodes plus text. For example, given the following partial XML: Some text here <xref id="1">1</xref>, <xref id="2">2</xref>, <xref id="3">3</xref>. I would like to end up with: Some text here 1,2,3. A much messier alternate would also be acceptable at this point: Some text here 1,2,3. I have the transformation to go from a single xref to a sup: <xsl:template match="xref""> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:template> But I'm at a loss as to how to match a group of nodes separated by commas. Thanks.

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Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (-1)

- by user309670

Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for concurrent connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR) suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer', or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? Otherwise, use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind or GDB

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Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

- by ServAce85

I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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What does "Value does not fall within expected range" mean in runtime error?

- by manuel

Hi, I'm writing a plugin (dll file) using /clr and trying to implement speech recognition using .NET. But when I run it, I got a runtime error saying "Value does not fall within expected range", what does the message mean? public ref class Dialog : public System::Windows::Forms::Form { public: SpeechRecognitionEngine^ sre; private: System::Void btnSpeak_Click(System::Object^ sender, System::EventArgs^ e) { Initialize(); } protected: void Initialize() { //create the recognition engine sre = gcnew SpeechRecognitionEngine(); //set our recognition engine to use the default audio device sre->SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice(); //create a new GrammarBuilder to specify which commands we want to use GrammarBuilder^ grammarBuilder = gcnew GrammarBuilder(); //append all the choices we want for commands. //we want to be able to move, stop, quit the game, and check for the cake. grammarBuilder->Append(gcnew Choices("play", "stop")); //create the Grammar from th GrammarBuilder Grammar^ customGrammar = gcnew Grammar(grammarBuilder); //unload any grammars from the recognition engine sre->UnloadAllGrammars(); //load our new Grammar sre->LoadGrammar(customGrammar); //add an event handler so we get events whenever the engine recognizes spoken commands sre->SpeechRecognized += gcnew EventHandler<SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^> (this, &Dialog::sre_SpeechRecognized); //set the recognition engine to keep running after recognizing a command. //if we had used RecognizeMode.Single, the engine would quite listening after //the first recognized command. sre->RecognizeAsync(RecognizeMode::Multiple); //this->init(); } void sre_SpeechRecognized(Object^ sender, SpeechRecognizedEventArgs^ e) { //simple check to see what the result of the recognition was if (e->Result->Text == "play") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"play", 0, 0); } if (e->Result->Text == "stop") { MessageBox(plugin.hwndParent, L"stop", 0, 0); } } };

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Career day in kindergarten

- by Péter Török

I was invited to the kindergarten group of my elder daughter to talk and answer the kids' questions about my profession. There are 26 kids of age 4-6 in the group, plus 3 teachers who are fairly scared of anything related to programming and IT themselves, but bold enough to learn new tricks. I would have about 20-30 minutes, without projector or anything. They have an old computer though, which by its look may be a 486, and I am not even sure if it's functioning. My research turned up excellent earlier threads, with lots of good tips: How would you explain your job to a 5-year old? Career Day: how do I make “computer programmer” sound cool to 8 year olds? What things can I teach a group of children about programming in one day? My situation is different from each of the above though: the latter ones are concerned with older children, while the first one is about talking to a single kid (or elder person)—a group of 20 is a whole different challenge. How can I teach the kids and their teachers about programming in a fun way?

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How to make HTML layout whitespace-agnostic?

- by ssg

If you have consecutive inline-blocks white-space becomes significant. It adds some level of space between elements. What's the "correct" way of avoiding whitespace effect to HTML layout if you want those blocks to look stuck to each other? Example: a b This renders differently than: ab because of the space inbetween. I want whitespace-effect to go away without compromising HTML source code layout. I want my HTML templates to stay clean and well-indented. I think these options are ugly: 1) Tweaking text-indent, margin, padding etc. (Because it would be dependent on font-size, default white-space width etc) 2) Putting everything on a single line, next to each other. 3) Zero font-size. That would require overriding font-size in blocks, which would otherwise be inherited. 4) Possible document-wide solutions. I want the solution to stay local for a certain block of HTML. Any ideas, any obvious points which I'm missing?

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Database design - table relationship question

- by iama

I am designing schema for a simple quiz application. It has 2 tables - "Question" and "Answer Choices". Question table has 'question ID', 'question text' and 'answer id' columns. "Answer Choices" table has 'question ID', 'answer ID' and 'answer text' columns. With this simple schema it is obvious that a question can have multiple answer choices & hence the need for the answer choices table. However, a question can have only one correct answer and hence the need for the 'answer ID' in the question table. However, this 'answer ID' column in the question table provides a illusion as though there can be multiple questions for a single answer which is not correct. The other alternative to eliminate this illusion is to have another table just for correct answer that will have just 2 columns namely the question ID and the answer ID with a 1-1 relationship between the two tables. However, I think this is redundant. Any recommendation on how best to design this thereby enforcing the rules that a question can have multiple answer choices but only one correct answer? Many Thanks.

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Lights off effect and jquery placement on wordpress

- by Alexander Santiago

I'm trying to implement a lights on/off on single posts of my wordpress theme. I know that I have to put this code on my css, which I did already: #the_lights{ background-color:#000; height:1px; width:1px; position:absolute; top:0; left:0; display:none; } #standout{ padding:5px; background-color:white; position:relative; z-index:1000; } Now this is the code that I'm having trouble with: function getHeight() { if ($.browser.msie) { var $temp = $("").css("position", "absolute") .css("left", "-10000px") .append($("body").html()); $("body").append($temp); var h = $temp.height(); $temp.remove(); return h; } return $("body").height(); } $(document).ready(function () { $("#the_lights").fadeTo(1, 0); $("#turnoff").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "100%"); $("#the_lights").css("height", getHeight() + "px"); $("#the_lights").css({‘display’: ‘block’ }); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 1); }); $("#soft").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "100%"); $("#the_lights").css("height", getHeight() + "px"); $("#the_lights").css("display", "block"); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 0.8); }); $("#turnon").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "1px"); $("#the_lights").css("height", "1px"); $("#the_lights").css("display", "block"); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 0); }); }); I think it's a jquery. Where do I place it and how do I call it's function? Been stuck on this thing for 6 hours now and any help would be greatly appreciated...

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lightweight/portable VCS for server-hopping DBA?

- by Aaron

I'm looking for a VCS that'll help me keep all of my work scripts in-sync. Requirements: Portable (as in flash drive, not code-level) Run on Windows XP and Server 2003+ No installation dependencies (Cygwin, perl, Python) I use Mercurial on my work machine for version control of the various T-SQL, ksh, perl, and CMD/BAT scripts that I maintain as a MS SQL Server DBA and Unix sysadmin. So far, hg has worked for my AIX boxes- I mount my home directory as I login, and deal with the repo as if it were local. I haven't been able to find a similar solution for the Windows machines I use. Most of them I do not have Local Admin rights; even if I did, I'd rather not install (and maintain) Python + Mercurial on all of them. I can't get to my home directory on them remotely, which leaves a client running on each machine as the only option. Bonus points for an answer that would let me use a single repo for both the Windows and Unix machines. :) I'm running WinXP, with heavy use of Cygwin and a CrunchBang VM.

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Ways to update a dependent table in the same MySQL transaction?

- by codie

I need to update two tables inside a single transaction. The individual queries look something like this: 1. INSERT INTO t1 (col1, col2) VALUES (val1, val2) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE col2 = val2; If the above query causes an insert then I need to run the following statement on the second table: 2. INSERT INTO t2 (col1, col2) VALUES (val1, val2) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE col2 = col2 + val2; otherwise, 3. UPDATE t2 SET col2 = col2 - old_val2 + val2 WHERE col1 = val1; -- old_val2 is the value of t1.col2 before it was updated Right now I run a SELECT on t1 first, to determine whether statement 1 will cause an insert or update on t1. Then I run statement 1 and either of 2 and 3 inside a transaction. What are the ways in which I can do all of these inside one transaction itself? The approach I was thinking of is the following: UPDATE t2, t1 set t2.col2 = t2.col2 - t1.col2 WHERE t1.col1 = t2.col2 and t1.col1 = val1; INSERT INTO t1 (col1, col2) VALUES (val1, val2) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE col2 = val2; INSERT INTO t2, t1 (t2.col1, t2.col2) VALUES (t1.col1, t1.col2) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE t2.col2 = t2.col2 + t1.col2 WHERE t1.col1 = t2.col2 and t1.col1 = val1; Unfortunately, there's no multi-table INSERT... ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE in MySQL 5.0. What else could I do?

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Finding Palindromes in an Array

- by Jack L.

For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

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(Oracle) How get total number of results when using a pagination query?

- by BestPractices

I am using Oracle 10g and the following paradigm to get a page of 15 results as a time (so that when the user is looking at page 2 of a search result, they see records 16-30). select * from ( select rownum rnum, a.* from (my_query) a where rownum <= 30 ) where rnum > 15; Right now I'm having to run a separate SQL statement to do a "select count" on "my_query" in order to get the total number of results for my_query (so that I can show it to the user and use it to figure out total number of pages, etc). Is there any way to get the total number of results without doing this via a second query, i.e. by getting it from above query? I've tried adding "max(rownum)", but it doesn't seem to work (I get an error [ORA-01747] that seems to indicate it doesnt like me having the keyword rownum in the group by). My rationale for wanting to get this from the original query rather than doing it in a separate SQL statement is that "my_query" is an expensive query so I'd rather not run it twice (once to get the count, and once to get the page of data) if I dont have to; but whatever solution I can come up with to get the number of results from within a single query (and at the same time get the page of data I need) should not add much if any additional overhead, if possible. Please advise. Here is exactly what I'm trying to do for which I receive an ORA-01747 error because I believe it doesnt like me having ROWNUM in the group by. Note, If there is another solution that doesnt use max(ROWNUM), but something else, that is perfectly fine too. This solution was my first thought as to what might work. SELECT * FROM (SELECT r.*, ROWNUM RNUM, max(ROWNUM) FROM (SELECT t0.ABC_SEQ_ID AS c0, t0.FIRST_NAME, t0.LAST_NAME, t1.SCORE FROM ABC t0, XYZ t1 WHERE (t0.XYZ_ID = 751) AND t0.XYZ_ID = t1.XYZ_ID ORDER BY t0.RANK ASC) r WHERE ROWNUM <= 30 GROUP BY r.*, ROWNUM) WHERE RNUM > 15

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Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

- by Ryan Norbauer

I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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Generate and download a text file in javascript

- by Mark B

All my research so far suggests this can't be done, but I'm hoping someone here has some cunning ideas. I have a form on a website which allows users to bulk upload lots of URLs to add to a list on the server. There's quite a lot of server-side processing to do on each URL, so to avoid timeouts and to display progress, I've implemented the upload using jQuery to submit the URLs one at a time using ajax. This is all working nicely. However, part of the processing on each URL is deduplicating it against the complete list. The ajax call returns a status indicating either a successful upload or a rejection due to duplication. As the upload progresses, I tell the user how many URLs have been rejected as duplicates (along with overall progress and ETA). The problem now is how to give the user a complete list of the failed duplicate URLs. I've kept them in an array in my jQuery, and would like the user to be able to click on a link on the form to download a text file containing those URLs. Is this possible just using client-side processing? The server-side processing basically handles a single keyword at a time. I'd rather not have to store the duplicates in a database table with some kind of session key which gets sent with every ajax call, and is then used at the end to generate the text file server-side (and then gets cleaned up some time later). I can see how to do this, but it seems very clunky and a bit 20th century.

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Keeping sync in multiplayer RTS game that uses floating point arithmetic

- by Calmarius

I'm writing a 2D space RTS game in C#. Single player works. Now I want to add some multiplayer functionality. I googled for it and it seems there is only one way to have thousands of units continuously moving without a powerful net connection: send only the commands through the network while running the same simulation at every player. And now there is a problem the entire engine uses doubles everywhere. And floating point calculations are depends heavily on compiler optimalizations and cpu architecture so it is very hard to keep things syncronized. And it is not grid based at all, and have a simple phisics engine to move the space-ships (space ships have impulse and angular-momentum...). So recoding the entire stuff to use fixed point would be quite cumbersome (but probably the only solution). So I have 2 options so far: Say bye to the current code and restart from scratch using integers Make the game LAN only where there is enough bandwidth to have 8 players with thousands of units and sending the positions and orientation etc in (almost) every frame... So I looking for better opinions, (or even tips on migrating the code to fixed-point without messing everything up...)

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What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

- by Peter

From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

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