Search Results

Search found 17501 results on 701 pages for 'stored functions'.

Page 612/701 | < Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >

  • Manipulating data in sql / asp.net / c# - how?

    - by SLC
    Not sure how to word the question... Basically, so far all my SQL stuff has been stored procedures and dumped into a gridview. The odd case where I had to perform an action based on a value (such as highlighting a row green if a certain value was true) were done as the gridview was rendering in one of the overrides. Now however I have to do something far more complicated - pull three sets of data down, run a series of checks on all three and some date related checks and stuff, then populate a gridview with some of the items. In logic terms, I want to run three queries, and store the lists of results (presumably in Lists?) then run some logic, then populate the gridview. Specifically what I don't know how to do is: Best way of pulling the data, and putting it into a List or other datastructure that lets me easily run through it, and retrieve data based on column (myList.age, or more likely, myList["Age"]). One I have compared the data, I assume I create a new list that will be put into the gridview... how do I put the contents of a list INTO a gridview? How would I add other stuff such as buttons or checkboxes at the same time? Any nudge in the right direction would be appreciated! Particularly doing cool stuff with lists and sql (if there is anything cool you can do with them)

    Read the article

  • Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

    - by rlb.usa
    I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

    Read the article

  • Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

    - by Justin Swartsel
    So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • servlet ArrayList and HashMap problem witch result

    - by nonameplum
    Hi, I have that code List<Map<String, Object>> data = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); Map<String, Object> item = new HashMap<String, Object>(); data.clear(); item.clear(); int i = 0; while (i < 5){    item.put("id", i);    i++;    out.println("id: " + item.get("id"));    out.println("--------------------------");    data.add(item); } for(i=0 ; i<5 ; i++){    out.println("print data[" + i + "]" + data.get(i)); } Result of that is: id: 0 -------------------------- id: 1 -------------------------- id: 2 -------------------------- id: 3 -------------------------- id: 4 -------------------------- print data[0]{id=4} print data[1]{id=4} print data[2]{id=4} print data[3]{id=4} print data[4]{id=4} Why only last element is stored?

    Read the article

  • Addiing captions above images in wordpress

    - by jacob
    So I added some code in my css and there are boxes that appear over every image that is attached to a post. I've wanted to number the images and show the image number in the box(1...n). I have this in my functions.php function count_images(){ global $post; $thePostID = $post-ID; $parameters = array( 'post_type' = 'attachment', 'post_parent' = $thePostID, 'post_mime_type' = 'image'); $attachments = get_children($parameters); $content = count($attachments); return $content; } add_filter('the_content','count_images'); function caption_image_callback($matches) { $c = count_images(); for ($i=1; $i <= $c; $i++) { if (is_single()) { return ''.$i.' '; } else { return ''; } } } function caption_image($post_body_content) { $post_body_content = preg_replace_callback("||","caption_image_callback",$post_body_content); return $post_body_content; } if ( current_user_can('edit_plugins') ) { add_filter('the_content', 'caption_image'); } If I run only count_images it will show the correct number of attached images to a post(let's say 15). But for some reason the number that is shown in the boxes over the images is always 1. I've seen this done on several blogs with just php so there has to be a way(even if I have to change my whole code). PS: I had to leave spaces in some places

    Read the article

  • What's up with this reversing bit order function?

    - by MattyW
    I'm rather ashamed to admit that I don't know as much about bits and bit manipulation as I probably should. I tried to fix that this weekend by writing some 'reverse the order of bits' and 'count the ON bits' functions. I took an example from here but when I implemented it as below, I found I had to be looping while < 29. If I loop while < 32 (as in the example) Then when I try to print the integer (using a printBits function i've written) I seem to be missing the first 3 bits. This makes no sense to me, can someone help me out? int reverse(int n) { int r = 0; int i = 0; for(i = 0; i < 29; i++) { r = (r << 1) + (n & 1); n >>=1; } return r; }

    Read the article

  • Getting rid of function's argument

    - by Max
    It is better to explain my intention with code. So right now I have the following code: class A, IInterfaceUsedByB { } class B { void func(A someObject) { func2(someObject, 1); func3(someObject, "string"); func4(someObject, new MyObject()); } func2(A someObject, int val); func3(A someObject, string val); func4(A someObject, C val); } Where func2, func3, func4 do need references to someObject. I want to change this to void func() { with(someObject, () => { func2(1); func3("string"); func4(new MyObject()); } ); } Or even better to void func(someObject) { func2(1); func3("string"); func4(new MyObject()); } So that I don't have to drag this someObject around, but I should still be able to use it inside func2,3,4. I can use any of the three languages (C#, F# or IronPython) for this. UPDATE In the ideal solution class B would be independent of A. func* functions only depend on a small interface of A consisting of 2 methods.

    Read the article

  • Create an index only on certain rows in mysql

    - by dhruvbird
    So, I have this funny requirement of creating an index on a table only on a certain set of rows. This is what my table looks like: USER: userid, friendid, created, blah0, blah1, ..., blahN Now, I'd like to create an index on: (userid, friendid, created) but only on those rows where userid = friendid. The reason being that this index is only going to be used to satisfy queries where the WHERE clause contains "userid = friendid". There will be many rows where this is NOT the case, and I really don't want to waste all that extra space on the index. Another option would be to create a table (query table) which is populated on insert/update of this table and create a trigger to do so, but again I am guessing an index on that table would mean that the data would be stored twice. How does mysql store Primary Keys? I mean is the table ordered on the Primary Key or is it ordered by insert order and the PK is like a normal unique index? I checked up on clustered indexes (http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/innodb-index-types.html), but it seems only InnoDB supports them. I am using MyISAM (I mention this because then I could have created a clustered index on these 3 fields in the query table). I am basically looking for something like this: ALTER TABLE USERS ADD INDEX (userid, friendid, created) WHERE userid=friendid

    Read the article

  • Pthread - setting scheduler parameters

    - by Andna
    I wanted to use read-writer locks from pthread library in a way, that writers have priority over readers. I read in my man pages that If the Thread Execution Scheduling option is supported, and the threads involved in the lock are executing with the scheduling policies SCHED_FIFO or SCHED_RR, the calling thread shall not acquire the lock if a writer holds the lock or if writers of higher or equal priority are blocked on the lock; otherwise, the calling thread shall acquire the lock. so I wrote small function that sets up thread scheduling options. void thread_set_up(int _thread) { struct sched_param *_param=malloc(sizeof (struct sched_param)); int *c=malloc(sizeof(int)); *c=sched_get_priority_min(SCHED_FIFO)+1; _param->__sched_priority=*c; long *a=malloc(sizeof(long)); *a=syscall(SYS_gettid); int *b=malloc(sizeof(int)); *b=SCHED_FIFO; if (pthread_setschedparam(*a,*b,_param) == -1) { //depending on which thread calls this functions, few thing can happen if (_thread == MAIN_THREAD) client_cleanup(); else if (_thread==ACCEPT_THREAD) { pthread_kill(params.main_thread_id,SIGINT); pthread_exit(NULL); } } } sorry for those a,b,c but I tried to malloc everything, still I get SIGSEGV on the call to pthread_setschedparam, I am wondering why?

    Read the article

  • Using overloaded operator== in a generic function

    - by Dimitri C.
    Consider the following code: class CustomClass { public CustomClass(string value) { m_value = value; } public static bool operator==(CustomClass a, CustomClass b) { return a.m_value == b.m_value; } public static bool operator!=(CustomClass a, CustomClass b) { return a.m_value != b.m_value; } public override bool Equals(object o) { return m_value == (o as CustomClass).m_value; } public override int GetHashCode() { return 0; /* not needed */ } string m_value; } class G { public static bool enericFunction1<T>(T a1, T a2) where T : class { return a1.Equals(a2); } public static bool enericFunction2<T>(T a1, T a2) where T : class { return a1==a2; } } Now when I call both generic functions, one succeeds and one fails: var a = new CustomClass("same value"); var b = new CustomClass("same value"); Debug.Assert(G.enericFunction1(a, b)); // Succeeds Debug.Assert(G.enericFunction2(a, b)); // Fails Apparently, G.enericFunction2 executes the default operator== implementation instead of my override. Can anybody explain why this happens?

    Read the article

  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • How do I remove 3 characters from the end of an NSURL?

    - by saywhatman
    Hey, my first question! I've been able to code up most of this RSS reader without enlisting help (through a lot of searches through stackoverflow!) but I'm stumped here. NSString *urlbase = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:[links3 objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlbase]]; NSCharacterSet *whitespaces = [NSCharacterSet whitespaceCharacterSet]; NSPredicate *noEmptyStrings = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"SELF != ''"]; NSArray *parts = [urlbase componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:whitespaces]; NSArray *filteredArray = [parts filteredArrayUsingPredicate:noEmptyStrings]; urlbase = [filteredArray componentsJoinedByString:@" "]; NSLog(@"%@ %i" , urlbase, 4353); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlbase]]; The links3 array is a NSMutableArray with strings. The first few lines work flawlessly in eliminating the space at the beginning each string from that array, which is stored in 'urlbase' so they look fine when they come out. When we NSLog urlbase, we see: http://www.feedzilla.com/r/D7E6204FEDBFE541314B997AAB5D2DF9CBA2EFEE But, when we use: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlbase]] We see: http://www.feedzilla.com/r/D7E6204FEDBFE541314B997AAB5D2DF9CBA2EFEE%0A How can I fix this? Can I remove those tail elements somehow? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Change cookies when doing jQuery.ajax requests in Chrome Extensions

    - by haskellguy
    I have wrote a plugin for facebook that sends data to testing-fb.local. The request goes through if the user is logged in. Here is the workflow: User logs in from testing-fb.local Cookies are stored When $.ajax() are fired from the Chrome extension Chrome extension listen with chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders Chrome extension checks for cookies from chrome.cookies.get Chrome changes the Set-Cookies header to be sent And the request goes through. I wrote this part of code that shoud be this: function getCookies (callback) { chrome.cookies.get({url:"https://testing-fb.local", name: "connect.sid"}, function(a){ return callback(a) }) } chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders.addListener( function(details) { getCookies(function(a){ // Here something happens }) }, {urls: ["https://testing-fb.local/*"]}, ['blocking']); Here is my manifest.json: { "name": "test-fb", "version": "1.0", "manifest_version": 1, "description": "testing", "permissions": [ "cookies", "webRequest", "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*" ], "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*.facebook.com/*", "https://*.facebook.com/*"], "exclude_matches" : [ "*://*.facebook.com/ajax/*", "*://*.channel.facebook.tld/*", "*://*.facebook.tld/pagelet/generic.php/pagelet/home/morestories.php*", "*://*.facebook.tld/ai.php*" ], "js": ["jquery-1.8.3.min.js", "allthefunctions.js"] } ] } In allthefunction.js I have the $.ajax calls, and in background.js is where I put the code above which however looks not to run.. In summary, I have not clear: What I should write in Here something happens If this strategy is going to work Where should I put this code?

    Read the article

  • PHP Fix Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent...

    - by Storm Kiernan
    Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/blocexco/public_html/homepage.php:73) in /home/blocexco/public_html/classes/mysql/mysql.security.php on line 99 This error is repeated a second time for mysql.security.php on line 100. homepage:73 <div class="login"> <?php require_once 'login.php'; ?> </div> mysql.security.php: 99-100 setcookie('username', "", time() - (60 * 60 * 24 * 365)); setcookie('password', "", time() - (60 * 60 * 24 * 365)); I know this isn't a "BOM" issue as I've read about. There is output before and after my calls to header() and setcookie() functions - this is necessary since the homepage includes a php file which then injects the right login or logout form. I've heard about using ob_start() at the beginning of content, but that's not a very specific instruction...I tried placing it at the beginning of homepage.php (just before the html tag) and that didn't fix anything. I'm new to PHP (a few days in, and new to web-app dev in general). To be honest, it blows my mind that I can't just change which page I am on, via php without bending over backwards...

    Read the article

  • C++ Segmentation Fault when Iterating through a Vector

    - by user1790374
    I have a program that maintains an integer vector. I have three functions that add an integer, remove an integer and check whether an integer is already in the vector. The problem is with the last one. vector<int> children; void CtpTestingApplication::addChild(int child) { for (int i=0; i<children.size(); i++) { //already a child if (children[i]==child) return; } //child not yet recorded children.push_back(child); received.push_back(false); cout<<"added child "<<child; } void CtpTestingApplication::removeChild(int child) { Enter_Method("removeChild"); for (int i=0; i<children.size(); i++) { //already a child, remove it if (children[i]==child) { children.erase(children.begin()+i); received.erase(received.begin()+i); cout<<"removed child "<<child; } } //not recorded, no need to remove } bool CtpTestingApplication::isChild(int child) { Enter_Method("isChild"); vector<int>::iterator ic; bool result = false; for (ic= children.begin(); ic < children.end(); ic++) { cout<<*ic<<" vs "<<child; // if (child==*ic) result = true; } return result; } I always get segmentation fault when I uncomment "if (child==*ic)", even though printouts show that the vector is not empty and contains the expected integers. For example, with the if statements commented, I can see 1 vs 4, 2 vs 4, 4 vs 4, 12 vs 4 I also attempted looping using children[i] and so on, but to no avail. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't my processor have built-in BigInt support?

    - by ol
    As far as I understood it, BigInts are usually implemented in most programming languages as strings containing numbers, where, eg.: when adding two of them, each digit is added one after another like we know it from school, e.g.: 246 816 * * ---- 1062 Where * marks that there was an overflow. I learned it this way at school and all BigInt adding functions I've implemented work similar to the example above. So we all know that our processors can only natively manage ints from 0 to 2^32 / 2^64. That means that most scripting languages in order to be high-level and offer arithmetics with big integers, have to implement/use BigInt libraries that work with integers as strings like above. But of course this means that they'll be far slower than the processor. So what I've asked myself is: Why doesn't my processor have a built-in BigInt function? It would work like any other BigInt library, only (a lot) faster and at a lower level: Processor fetches one digit from the cache/RAM, adds it, and writes the result back again. Seems like a fine idea to me, so why isn't there something like that?

    Read the article

  • Yii 'limit' on related model's scope

    - by pethee
    I have a model called Guesses that has_many Comments. I'm making eager queries to this to then pass on as JSON as response to an API call. The relations are obviously set between the two models and they are correct(one2many <= belongs2) I added a scope to Comments called 'api' like this: public function scopes() { return array( 'api' => array( 'select' => 'id, comment, date', 'limit'=>3, 'order'=>'date DESC', 'together'=>true, ), ); } And I'm running the following one-liner query: $data = Guesses::model()->with('comments:api')->findAll(); The issue here is that when calling the 'api' scope using a with('relation'), the limit property simply doesn't apply. I added the 'together'=true there for another type of scope, plus I hear it might help. It doesn't make a difference. I don't need all the comments of all Guesses. I want the top 3 (or 5). I am also trying to keep the one-liner call intact and simple, manage everything through scopes, relations and parameterized functions so that the API call itself is clean and simple. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • More efficient way to update multiple elements in javascript and/or jquery?

    - by Seiverence
    Say I have 6 divs with ID "#first", ""#second" ... "#sixth". Say if I wanted to execute functions on each of those divs, I would set up an array that contains each of the names of the divs I want to update as an element in the array of strings. ["first", "second", "third"] that I want to update. If I wanted to apply I function, I set up a for loop that iterates through each element in the array and say if I wanted to change the background color to red: function updateAllDivsInTheList() { for(var i = 0; i < array.size; i++) $("#"+array[i]).changeCssFunction(); } } Whenever I create a new div, i would add it to the array. The issue is, if I have a large number of divs that need to get updated, say if I wanted to update 1000 out of 1200 divs, it may be a pain/performance tank to have to sequentially iterate through every single element in the array. Is there some alternative more efficient way of updating multiple divs without having to sequentially iterate through every element in an array, maybe with some other more efficient data structure besides array? Or is what I am doing the most efficient way to do it? If can provide some example, that would be great.

    Read the article

  • Nullable values in C++

    - by DanDan
    I'm creating a database access layer in native C++, and I'm looking at ways to support NULL values. Here is what I have so far: class CNullValue { public: static CNullValue Null() { static CNullValue nv; return nv; } }; template<class T> class CNullableT { public: CNullableT(CNullValue &v) : m_Value(T()), m_IsNull(true) { } CNullableT(T value) : m_Value(value), m_IsNull(false) { } bool IsNull() { return m_IsNull; } T GetValue() { return m_Value; } private: T m_Value; bool m_IsNull; }; This is how I'll have to define functions: void StoredProc(int i, CNullableT<int> j) { ...connect to database ...if j.IsNull pass null to database etc } And I call it like this: sp.StoredProc(1, 2); or sp.StoredProc(3, CNullValue::Null()); I was just wondering if there was a better way than this. In particular I don't like the singleton-like object of CNullValue with the statics. I'd prefer to just do sp.StoredProc(3, CNullValue); or something similar. How do others solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Best method to cache objects in PHP?

    - by Martin Bean
    Hi, I'm currently developing a large site that handles user registrations. A social networking website for argument's sake. However, I've noticed a lag in page loads and deciphered that it is the creation of objects on pages that's slowing things down. For example, I have a Member object, that when instantiated with an ID passed as a construct parameter, it queries the database for that members' row in the members database table. Not bad, but this is created each time a page is loaded; and called more than once when say, calling an array of that particular members' friends, as a new Member object is created for each friend. So on a single page I can have upwards of seven of the same object, but containing different properties. What I'm wanting to do is to find a way to reduce the database load, and to allow persist objects between page loads. For example, the logged in user's object to be created on login (which I can do) but then stored somewhere for retrieval so I don't have to keep re-creating the object between page loads. What is the best solution for this? I've had a look at Memcache, but with it being a third-party module I can't have the web host install it on this occasion. What are my alternatives, and/or best practices in my case? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • [javascript] Can I overload an object with a function?

    - by user257493
    Lets say I have an object of functions/values. I'm interested in overloading based on calling behavior. For example, this block of code below demonstrates what I wish to do. var main_thing = { initalized: false, something: "Hallo, welt!", something_else: [123,456,789], load: { sub1 : function() { //Some stuff }, sub2 : function() { //Some stuff }, all : function() { this.load.sub1(); this.load.sub2(); } } init: function () { this.initalized=true; this.something="Hello, world!"; this.something_else = [0,0,0]; this.load(); //I want this to call this.load.all() instead. } } The issue to me is that main_thing.load is assigned to an object, and to call main_thing.load.all() would call the function inside of the object (the () operator). What can I do to set up my code so I could use main_thing.load as an access the object, and main_thing.load() to execute some code? Or at least, similar behavior. Basically, this would be similar to a default constructor in other languages where you don't need to call main_thing.constructor(). If this isn't possible, please explain with a bit of detail.

    Read the article

  • Using large transparent pictures as texture atlases

    - by azlisum
    i'm new to android programming and i'm trying to create a relatively big 2D game. I have to use lots of images and objects in my game so I decided to use OpenGL ES. I have several texture atlases, all of them saved as png's because of the transparency. I also know, but i'm not sure why, that I have to use images, which height and width is multiple of two. I test my game on an old HTC Hero running Android 2.3.3. When my picture atlases are 512x512 each, my game has a frame rate of between 50 to 60 fps. When I use 1024x1024 non transparent png, there is no problem - the FPS is again between 50 to 60 fps. But when i decide to use a 1024x1024 transperent PNG's my frame rate drops to 4,5 fps. Could this be a problem related to the age of the device i'm using for testing? These are the OpenGL functions I use each loop to draw batches: gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); //drawing happens here gl.glDisable(GL10.GL_BLEND); Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Parsing string based on initial format

    - by Kayla
    I'm trying to parse a set of lines and extract certain parts of the string based on an initial format (reading a configuration file). A little more explanation: the format can contain up to 4 parts to be formatted. This case, %S will skip the part, %a-%c will extract the part and will be treated as a string, %d as int. What I am trying to do now is to come up with some clever way to parse it. So far I came up with the following prototype. However, my pointer arithmetic still needs some work to skip/extract the parts. Ultimately each part will be stored on an array of structs. Such as: struct st_temp { char *parta; char *partb; char *partc; char *partd; }; ... #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #define DIM(x) (sizeof(x)/sizeof(*(x))) void process (const char *fmt, const char *line) { char c; const char *src = fmt; while ((c = *src++) != '\0') { if (c == 'S'); // skip part else if (c == 'a'); // extract %a else if (c == 'b'); // extract %b else if (c == 'c'); // extract %c else if (c == 'd'); // extract %d (int) else { printf("Unknown format\n"); exit(1); } } } static const char *input[] = { "bar 200.1 / / (zaz) - \"bon 10\"", "foo 100.1 / / (baz) - \"apt 20\"", }; int main (void) { const char *fmt = "%S %a / / (%b) - \"%c %d\""; size_t i; for(i = 0; i < DIM (input); i++) { process (fmt, input[i]); } return (0); }

    Read the article

  • Dynamic function arguments in C++, possible?

    - by Jeshwanth Kumar N K
    I am little new to C++, I have one doubt in variable argument passing. As I mentioned in a sample code below ( This code won't work at all, just for others understanding of my question I framed it like this), I have two functions func with 1 parameter and 2 parameters(parameter overloading). I am calling the func from main, before that I am checking whether I needs to call 2 parameter or 1 parameter. Here is the problem, as I know I can call two fuctions in respective if elseif statements, but I am curious to know whether I can manage with only one function. (In below code I am passing string not int, as I mentioned before this is just for others understanding purpose. #include<iostream.h> #include <string> void func(int, int); void func(int); void main() { int a, b,in; cout << "Enter the 2 for 2 arg, 1 for 1 arg\n"; cin << in; if ( in == 2) { string pass = "a,b"; } elseif ( in == 1) { string pass = "a"; } else { return 0; } func(pass); cout<<"In main\n"<<endl; } void func(int iNum1) { cout<<"In func1 "<<iNum1<<endl; } void func(int iNum1, int iNum2) { cout<<"In func2 "<<iNum1<<" "<<iNum2<<endl; }

    Read the article

  • Replacing repetitively occuring loops with eval in Javascript - good or bad?

    - by Herc
    Hello stackoverflow! I have a certain loop occurring several times in various functions in my code. To illustrate with an example, it's pretty much along the lines of the following: for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i)); $('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]); } Where i is the loop counter of course. For the sake of reducing my code size and avoid repeating the loop declaration, I thought I should replace it with the following: function loop(s) { for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { eval(s); } } [...] loop("function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i));$('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]);"); Or should I? I've heard a lot about eval() slowing code execution and I'd like it to work as fast as a proper loop even in the Nintendo DSi browser, but I'd also like to cut down on code. What would you suggest? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >