Search Results

Search found 87926 results on 3518 pages for 'deft code'.

Page 616/3518 | < Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >

  • Large Django application layout

    - by Rob Golding
    I am in a team developing a web-based university portal, which will be based on Django. We are still in the exploratory stages, and I am trying to find the best way to lay the project/development environment out. My initial idea is to develop the system as a Django "app", which contains sub-applications to separate out the different parts of the system. The reason I intended to make these "sub" applications is that they would not have any use outside the parent application whatsoever, so there would be little point in distributing them separately. We envisage that the portal will be installed in multiple locations (at different universities, for example) so the main app can be dropped into a number of Django projects to install it. We therefore have a different repository for each location's project, which is really just a settings.py file defining the installed portal applications, and a urls.py routing the urls to it. I have started to write some initial code, though, and I've come up against a problem. Some of the code that handles user authentication and profiles seems to be without a home. It doesn't conceptually belong in the portal application as it doesn't relate to the portal's functionality. It also, however, can't go in the project repository - as I would then be duplicating the code over each location's repository. If I then discovered a bug in this code, for example, I would have to manually replicate the fix over all of the location's project files. My idea for a fix is to make all the project repos a fork of a "master" location project, so that I can pull any changes from that master. I think this is messy though, and it means that I have one more repository to look after. I'm looking for a better way to achieve this project. Can anyone recommend a solution or a similar example I can take a look at? The problem seems to be that I am developing a Django project rather than just a Django application.

    Read the article

  • WPF creating custom control - creating control like SpinBox extending TextBox

    - by veedoo
    Hi, What is the best way to extend a control? Lets choose for example SpinBox - we want to extend TextBox to SpinBox - just to add two buttons on the right side, which each one on click checks if Text property is a valid number and if it is increases or decreases the value by 1. Suposse that we have a lot of code using TextBox (Text, IsReadOnly properties and bindings etc.) so we want to replace TextBox by SpinBox without touching rest of the code. 1) we can inherit TextBox - so we have exactly the same interface, but how to add the buttons ?? 2) we can inherit from some layout control - eg. DockPanel - we can add buttons, but we lose TextBox interface. 3) after quick read about ControlTemplates I'm not sure, but I believe that we can add buttons and their logic using ControlTemplates 4) like about templates I'm not sure, but I hope we can inherit decorator class to create decorator with the buttons - we lose interface, but can add TextBox as a child I think that the best solutions is to combine 3) and 4) - create a decorator class and use it in a control template for TextBox. I would be grateful for your ideas and simple code how to implement 3 and 4, especially with code (c#), not xaml. Regards

    Read the article

  • How do I convert an NSMutableString to NSString when using Frameworks?

    - by BWHazel
    I have written an Objective-C framework which builds some HTML code with NSMutableString which returns the value as an NSString. I have declared an NSString and NSMutableString in the inteface .h file: NSString *_outputLanguage; // Tests language output NSMutableString *outputBuilder; NSString *output; This is a sample from the framework implementation .m code (I cannot print the actual code as it is proprietary): -(NSString*)doThis:(NSString*)aString num:(int)aNumber { if ([outputBuilder length] != 0) { [outputBuilder setString:@""]; } if ([_outputLanguage isEqualToString:@"html"]) { [outputBuilder appendString:@"Some Text..."]; [outputBuilder appendString:aString]; [outputBuilder appendString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", aNumber]]; } else if ([_outputLanguage isEqualToString:@"xml"]) { [outputBuilder appendString:@"Etc..."]; } else { [outputBuilder appendString:@""]; } output = outputBuilder; return output; } When I wrote a text program, NSLog simply printed out "(null)". The code I wrote there was: TheClass *instance = [[TheClass alloc] init]; NSString *testString = [instance doThis:@"This String" num:20]; NSLog(@"%@", testString); [instance release]; I hope this is enough information!

    Read the article

  • Embedding IronPython in a WinForms app and interrupting execution

    - by namenlos
    BACKGROUND I've successfully embedded IronPython in my WinForm apps using techniques like the one described here: http://blog.peterlesliemorris.com/archive/2010/05/19/embedding-ironpython-into-a-c-application.aspx In the context of the embedding, my user may any write loops, etc. I'm using the IronPython 2.6 (the IronPython for .NET 2.0 and IronPython for .NET 4.0) MY PROBLEM Sometimes the users will need to interrupt the execution of their code In other words they need something like the ability to hit CTRL-C to halt execution when running Python or IronPython from the cmdline I want to add a button to the winform that when pressed halts the execution, but I'm not sure how to do this. MY PROBLEM The users will need to interrupt the execution of their code In other words they need something like the ability to hit CTRL-C to halt execution when running Python or IronPython from the cmdline MY QUESTION How can I make it to that pressing the a "stop" button will actually halt the execution of the using entered IronPython code? NOTES Note: I don't wont to simply through away that "session" - I still want the user to be able to interact with session and access any results that were available before it was halted. I am assuming I will need to execute this in a separate thread, any guidance or sample code in doing this correctly will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4, combobox databinding problem

    - by synergetic
    In my Silverlight 4 app, CustomerView (UserControl) shows Customer object as it's DataContext. Customer object has IndustryCode string property. I created combobox called cboIndustryCode and bind it to the IndustryCode property the following way: <ComboBox x:Name="cboIndustryCode" SelectedValue="{Binding IndustryCode, Mode=TwoWay}" ... /> In code-behind I populate cboIndustryCode with List of Industry object, which has Code and Name properties: cboIndustryCode.ItemsSource = industries; //which is of List<Industry> type Now, to show everything properly, in XAML I added the following: <ComboBox x:Name="cboIndustryCode" SelectedValue="{Binding IndustryCode, Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectedValuePath="Code" ... /> So, when I get a customer class from my data layer and set the DataContext to this customer instance, the cboIndustryCode properly displays industry name. But, then I edit customer (not necessarily IndustryCode) and save the object (which resets DataContext = new Customer()) and retrieve the customer again from database, and I see that cboIndustryCode no longer working. It just displays nothing, and if I select new value from the list, it does not update underlying customer object's IndustryCode property. The problem goes away, if I put the following code in the place where I set DataContext to a instance of customer, retrieved from database: Binding binding = new Binding("IndustryCode"); binding.Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay; cboIndustryCode.SetBinding(ComboBox.SelectedValueProperty, binding); So, in short, combobox's binding is reset somehow every time I save my data. Can someone tell me the reason?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing.... a data provider ?

    - by TomTom
    Given problem: I like unit tests. I develop connectivity software to external systems that pretty much and often use a C++ library The return of this systems is nonndeterministic. Data is received while running, but making sure it is all correctly interpreted is hard. How can I test this properly? I can run a unit test that does a connect. Sadly, it will then process a life data stream. I can say I run the test for 30 or 60 seconds before disconnecting, but getting code ccoverage is impossible - I simply dont even comeclose to get all code paths EVERY ONCE PER DAY (error code paths are rarely run). I also can not really assert every result. Depending on the time of the day we talk of 20.000 data callbacks per second - all of which are not relly determined good enough to validate each of them for consistency. Mocking? Well, that would leave me testing an empty shell of myself because the code handling the events basically is the to be tested case, and in many cases we talk here of a COMPLEX c level structure - hard to have mocking frameworks that integrate from Csharp to C++ Anyone any idea? I am short on giving up using unit tests for this part of the application.

    Read the article

  • Using a dynamic <script> (a <script> appended to the DOM by JavaScript) to load and initialize Click

    - by Bungle
    I'm creating an HTML/JavaScript widget to be used on third-party sites. This widget is generated by a <script> that our customers will insert on their page. The <script> creates an <iframe> in the customer's domain, and then creates and inserts all of that <iframe>'s content using JavaScript. It's important that this <iframe> contain Clicky's tracking code to monitor clicks on outbound links. Unfortunately, I'm not having any luck getting Clicky to work when I append the requisite <script> elements to the <iframe> using JavaScript. I first tried simply appending the Clicky tracking code to the <iframe> after appending some test outbound links, hoping that Clicky could attach to those automatically as it does on a static page. That didn't seem to work, so my next inclination was to use the "advanced_disable" custom option and use clicky.log() on the links I want to track. Here's a link to a test page that's along those lines: http://onespot.wsj.com/static/clicky_iframe_test.html When clicking a link on that test page, the action is not logged in Clicky, and a JavaScript error appears: clicky is not defined This ("clicky") appears to be defined in http://static.getclicky.com/js, which I confirmed through the Firebug console is indeed loading before I click a test outbound link. Has anyone successfully loaded Clicky in this way? If so, could you provide some sample code, a link to a working implementation, or some feedback on what's wrong with my code? I would also be interested to know if this is even possible. Thanks very much for any help or advice!

    Read the article

  • Access denied when trying to read information about SharePoint groups

    - by strongopinions
    I am trying to get the membership of a group in WSS 3.0. I am doing this in an elevated permissions block. Here is the code: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(SPContext.Current.Site.ID)) { using (SPWeb rootWeb = site.RootWeb) { SPGroup gAdmins = rootWeb.SiteGroups["Admins"]; } } }); I get taken to the "access denied" SharePoint screen when I run this code. The group exists. The identity of the application pool for the web application is in the dbo role in the content database. The code works on my development server, but not on another server, which leads me to believe there is something wrong with the permissions or configuration on this server, maybe something in dcomcnfg? Here are some lines from the SharePoint log that seem to be related: PermissionMask check failed. asking for 0x08000000, have 0x00000000 Unknown SPRequest error occurred. More information: 0x80070005 Access Denied for /Pages/UserAdmin.aspx. StackTrace: Microsoft.SharePoint.Utilities.SPUtility:Void HandleAccessDenied(System.Exception), Microsoft.SharePoint.SPGlobal:Void HandleUnauthorizedAccessException(System.UnauthorizedAccessException), .... [UserAdmin.aspx hosts my custom web part containing the code]

    Read the article

  • Facebook Oauth 2.0 Token errors

    - by James
    The user clicks the URL that is generated via the code below. $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?' . http_build_query(array('client_id' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'redirect_uri' => 'http://fb.example.com/facebook', 'scope' => 'publish_stream,email,offline_access,user_location,user_hometown', 'display' => 'page')); Upon granting access to the application, and redirecting to http://fb.example.com/facebook I grab the following URL using cURL. $url = 'http://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?' . http_build_query(array('client_id' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'client_secret' => FACEBOOK_SECRET, 'redirect_uri' => 'http://fb.example.com/facebook', 'code' => $params['code'])); This returns the error below that I receive when grabbing the above URL. { "error": { "type": "OAuthException", "message": "Error validating verification code." } } Any ideas? Really getting stuck on this.

    Read the article

  • TRY CATCH with Linked Server in SQL Server 2005 Not Working

    - by Robert Stanley
    Hello, I am trying to catch sql error raised when I execute a stored procedure on a linked server. Both Servers are running SQL Server 2005. To prove the issue I have created a stored procedure on the linked server called Raise error that executes the following code: RAISERROR('An error', 16, 1); If I execute the stored procedure directly on the linked server using the following code I get a result set with 'An error', '16' as expected (ie the code enters the catch block): BEGIN TRY EXEC [dbo].[RaiseError]; END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000), @ErrSeverity int; SELECT @ErrMsg = ERROR_MESSAGE(), @ErrSeverity = ERROR_SEVERITY(); SELECT @ErrMsg, @ErrSeverity; END CATCH If I run the following code on my local server to execute the stored procedure on the linked server then SSMS gives me the message 'Query completed with errors', .Msg 50000, Level 16, State 1, Procedure RaiseError, Line 13 An error' BEGIN TRY EXEC [Server].[Catalog].[dbo].RaiseError END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @SPErrMsg nvarchar(4000), @SPErrSeverity int; SELECT @SPErrMsg = ERROR_MESSAGE(), @SPErrSeverity = ERROR_SEVERITY(); SELECT @SPErrMsg, @SPErrSeverity; END CATCH My Question is can I catch the error generated when the Linked server stored procedure executes? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Cast then check or check then cast?

    - by jamesrom
    Which method is regarded as best practice? Cast first? public string Describe(ICola cola) { var coke = cola as CocaCola; if (coke != null) { string result; // some unique coca-cola only code here. return result; } var pepsi = cola as Pepsi; if (pepsi != null) { string result; // some unique pepsi only code here. return result; } } Or should I check first, cast later? public string Describe(ICola cola) { if (cola is CocaCola) { coke = (CocaCola) cola; string result; // some unique coca-cola only code here. return result; } if (cola is Pepsi) { pepsi = (Pepsi) cola; string result; // some unique pepsi only code here. return result; } } Can you see any other way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Read MS Word .doc file with ruby and win32ole

    - by bmalets
    I'm trying ot read .doc file with ruby, I use win32ole library. IT my code: require 'win32ole' class DocParser def initialize @content = '' end def read_file file_path begin word = WIN32OLE.connect( 'Word.Application' ) doc = word.activedocument rescue word = WIN32OLE.new( 'Word.Application' ) doc = word.documents.open( file_path ) end word.visible = false doc.sentences.each{ |x| @content I kick off doc reading with DocParser.new.read_file('path/file.doc') When I run this using rails c - I don't have any problems, it's working fine. But when I run it using rails (e.g. after button click), once in a while (every 3-4 time) this code crashes with error: WIN32OLERuntimeError (failed to create WIN32OLE object from `Word.Application' HRESULT error code:0x800401f0 CoInitialize has not been called.): lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `initialize' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `new' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `rescue in read_file' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:10:in `read_file' lib/search_engine.rb:10:in `block in search' lib/search_engine.rb:43:in `block in each_file_in' lib/search_engine.rb:42:in `each_file_in' lib/search_engine.rb:8:in `search' app/controllers/home_controller.rb:9:in `search' Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_source.erb (0.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_trace.text.erb (2.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_request_and_response.text.erb (2.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/diagnostics.erb (56.0ms) Aditionaly, this code read doc file successfully, but after a few seconds rails crashes: see this gist What is my problem? How can I fix it? Please, help!

    Read the article

  • facebook connect api "Cannot use string offset as an array in" error

    - by Rees
    Please help! I have been grappling with this error for days and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I am using facebook connect and fetching a "contact_email" attribute using their api method users_getInfo. The issue is that when I execute this PHP file, i get this error: "Cannot use string offset as an array in...". This error specifically refers to this line of code: $firstName=$user_details[0]['contact_email']; I'm thinking this is because the user_getInfo method is not returning any results... However, the most ridiculous part about all this is that, I can execute the code below several dozens of times in a row SUCCESSFULLY without the above error, BUT THEN randomly without changing ANY code at all, I will suddenly encounter this error, in which case it will begin to give me an error several dozens of times, and then AGAIN without any code change, start executing successfully again. This odd behavior occurs regardless of the attribute i am fetching.. (contact_email, first_name, last_name, etc.). I am running php 5.2.11. Is there something I'm missing?? Please Help! include_once 'site/fbconnect/config.php'; //has $api_key and $secret defined. include_once 'site/facebook-platform/client/facebook.php'; global $api_key,$secret; $fb=new Facebook($api_key,$secret); $fb-require_login(); $fb_user=$fb-get_loggedin_user(); $user_details=$fb-api_client-users_getInfo($fb_user,array('last_name','first_name','contact_email')); $email=$user_details[0]['contact_email']; $firstName=$user_details[0]['first_name']; $lastName=$user_details[0]['last_name'];

    Read the article

  • How does the recursion here work?

    - by David
    code 1: public static int fibonacci (int n){ if (n == 0 || n == 1) { return 1; } else { return fibonacci (n-1) + fibonacci (n-2); } } how can you use fibonacci if you haven't gotten done explaining what it is yet? I've been able to understand using recursion in other cases like this: code two: class two { public static void two (int n) { if (n>0) { System.out.println (n) ; two (n-1) ; } else { return ; } } public static void main (String[] arg) { two (12) ; } } In the case of code 2 though n will eventualy reach a point at which it doesnt satisfy n0 and the method will stop calling itself recursivly. in the case of code 2 though i don't see how it would be able to get itself from 1 if n=1 was the starting point to 2 and 3 and 5 and so on. Also i don't see how the line `return fibonacci (n-1) + fibonacci (n-2) would work since fibbonacci n-2 has to contain in some sense fibonacci n-1 in order to wrok but it isn't there yet. I know my question is worded poorly but looking at this is making my mind explode. the book i'm looking at says it will work. how does it work? `

    Read the article

  • Distinguishing between .NET exception types

    - by Swingline Rage
    For the love of all things holy, how do you distinguish between different "exception flavors" within the predefined .NET exception classes? For example, a piece of code might throw an XmlException under the following conditions: The root element of the document is NULL Invalid chars are in the document The document is too long All of these are thrown as XmlException objects and all of the internal "tell me more about this exception" fields (such as Exception.HResult, Exception.Data, etc.) are usually empty or null. That leaves Exception.Message as the only thing that allows you to distinguish among these exception types, and you can't really depend on it because, you guessed it, the Exception.Message string is glocabilized, and can change when the culture changes. At least that's my read on the documentation. Exception.HResult and Exception.Data are widely ignored across the .NET libraries. They are the red-headed stepchildren of the world's .NET error-handling code. And even assuming they weren't, the HRESULT type is still the worst, downright nastiest error code in the history of error codes. Why we are still looking at HRESULTs in 2010 is beyond me. I mean if you're doing Interop or P/Invoke that's one thing but... HRESULTs have no place in System.Exception. HRESULTs are a wart on the proboscis of System.Exception. But seriously, it means I have to set up a lot of detailed specific error-handling code in order to figure out the same information that should have been passed as part of the exception data. Exceptions are useless if they force you to work like this. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to set binding in xaml to my own variable

    - by Victor
    Hello. I have an object in the code: public class UserLogin { bool _IsUserLogin = false; public bool IsUserLogin { get { return _IsUserLogin; } set { _IsUserLogin = value; } } public UserLogin() { _IsUserLogin = false; } } .... public static UserLogin LoginState; ..... LoginState = new UserLogin(); And I need to set bindings to Button.IsEnabled property. I.e. when user not login yet - some buttons are disabled. How can this been done? I have try in xaml: <Button DataContext="LoginState" IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsUserLogin}"> but, this dos't work and OutputWindow says: System.Windows.Data Error: 39 : BindingExpression path error: 'IsUserLogin' property not found on 'object'. I also have try to set Button.DataContext property to LoginState in the code, but have XamlParseException. I also read this one [http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1829758/wpf-binding-in-xaml-to-an-object-created-in-the-code-behind][1] but still can't set bindings. [1]: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1829758/wpf-binding-in-xaml-to-an-object-created-in-the-code-behind. Please help!

    Read the article

  • How to read Unicode characters from command-line arguments in Python on Windows

    - by Craig McQueen
    I want my Python script to be able to read Unicode command line arguments in Windows. But it appears that sys.argv is a string encoded in some local encoding, rather than Unicode. How can I read the command line in full Unicode? Example code: argv.py import sys first_arg = sys.argv[1] print first_arg print type(first_arg) print first_arg.encode("hex") print open(first_arg) On my PC set up for Japanese code page, I get: C:\temp>argv.py "PC·??????08.09.24.doc" PC·??????08.09.24.doc <type 'str'> 50438145835c83748367905c90bf8f9130382e30392e32342e646f63 <open file 'PC·??????08.09.24.doc', mode 'r' at 0x00917D90> That's Shift-JIS encoded I believe, and it "works" for that filename. But it breaks for filenames with characters that aren't in the Shift-JIS character set—the final "open" call fails: C:\temp>argv.py Jörgen.txt Jorgen.txt <type 'str'> 4a6f7267656e2e747874 Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\temp\argv.py", line 7, in <module> print open(first_arg) IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: 'Jorgen.txt' Note—I'm talking about Python 2.x, not Python 3.0. I've found that Python 3.0 gives sys.argv as proper Unicode. But it's a bit early yet to transition to Python 3.0 (due to lack of 3rd party library support). Update: A few answers have said I should decode according to whatever the sys.argv is encoded in. The problem with that is that it's not full Unicode, so some characters are not representable. Here's the use case that gives me grief: I have enabled drag-and-drop of files onto .py files in Windows Explorer. I have file names with all sorts of characters, including some not in the system default code page. My Python script doesn't get the right Unicode filenames passed to it via sys.argv in all cases, when the characters aren't representable in the current code page encoding. There is certainly some Windows API to read the command line with full Unicode (and Python 3.0 does it). I assume the Python 2.x interpreter is not using it.

    Read the article

  • Deploy to remote server using scp in NANT script

    - by Mini
    I am trying to copy a file to a remote server using scp task in Nant.Contrib . I have used the following code to do that: <target name= "QADeploy"description="gthtyb" > <loadtasks assembly="C:\nantcontrib-0.85\bin\NAnt.Contrib.Tasks.dll" /> <echo message="htyh"/> <scp file="D:\SourceTest\redist.txt" server="\\10.4.30.19" user="xxx:uuuu"> </scp> </target> But I am getting an error: scp failed to start. The system cannot find the file specified. The code is as follows: Then I have downloaded pscp.exe and modified the code as below: <target name= "QADeploy" description="gthtyb" > <loadtasks assembly="C:\nantcontrib-0.85\bin\NAnt.Contrib.Tasks.dll" /> <echo message="htyh"/> <scp file="D:\SourceTest\redist.txt" server="\\10.4.30.19" user="xxx:uuuu" program="C:\pscp\pscp.exe"> </scp> Now I am getting the following error: [scp] ssh_init:host does not exist External Program Failed:C:\pscp\pscp.exe can u please help whats the best way to copy a file to a remote server using Nant. I am using this code to deploy files to a remote server. Thanks

    Read the article

  • FxCop hates my usage of MVVM

    - by Dave
    I've just started to work with FxCop to see how poorly my code does against its full set of rules. I'm starting off with the "Breaking" rules, and the first one I came across was CA2227, which basically says that you should make a collection property's setter readonly, so that you can't accidentally change the collection data. Since I'm using MVVM, I've found it very convenient to use an ObservableCollection with get/set properties because it makes my GUI updates easy and concise in the code-behind. However, I can also see what FxCop is complaining about. Another situation that I just ran into is with WF, where I need to set the parameters when creating the workflow, and I'd hate to have to write a wrapper class around the collection I'm using just to avoid this particular error message. For example, here's a sample runtime error message that I get when I make properties readonly: The activity 'MyWorkflow' has no public writable property named 'MyCollectionOfStuff' What are you opinions on this? I could either ignore this particular error, but that's probably not good because I could conceivably violate this rule elsewhere in the code where MVVM doesn't apply (model only code, for example). I think I could also change it from a property to a class with methods to manipulate the underlying collection, and then raise the necessary notification from the setter method. I'm a little confused... can anyone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • Accurate least-squares fit algorithm needed

    - by ggkmath
    I've experimented with the two ways of implementing a least-squares fit (LSF) algorithm shown here. The first code is simply the textbook approach, as described by Wolfram's page on LSF. The second code re-arranges the equation to minimize machine errors. Both codes produce similar results for my data. I compared these results with Matlab's p=polyfit(x,y,1) function, using correlation coefficients to measure the "goodness" of fit and compare each of the 3 routines. I observed that while all 3 methods produced good results, at least for my data, Matlab's routine had the best fit (the other 2 routines had similar results to each other). Matlab's p=polyfit(x,y,1) function uses a Vandermonde matrix, V (n x 2 matrix) and QR factorization to solve the least-squares problem. In Matlab code, it looks like: V = [x1,1; x2,1; x3,1; ... xn,1] % this line is pseudo-code [Q,R] = qr(V,0); p = R\(Q'*y); % performs same as p = V\y I'm not a mathematician, so I don't understand why it would be more accurate. Although the difference is slight, in my case I need to obtain the slope from the LSF and multiply it by a large number, so any improvement in accuracy shows up in my results. For reasons I can't get into, I cannot use Matlab's routine in my work. So, I'm wondering if anyone has a more accurate equation-based approach recommendation I could use that is an improvement over the above two approaches, in terms of rounding errors/machine accuracy/etc. Any comments appreciated! thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Parsing XML with the PHP XMLReader

    - by coffeecoder
    Hi Guys, I am writing program that reads in some XML from the $_POST variable and then parses using the PHP XMLReader and the data extracted input into a database. I am using the XMLReader as the XML supplied will more than likely be too big to place into memory. However I am having some issues, my XML and basic code as are follows: '<?xml version="1.0"?> <data_root> <data> <info>value</info> </data> <action>value</action> </data_root>' $request = $_REQUEST['xml']; $reader = new XMLReader(); $reader->XML($request); while($reader->read()){ //processing code } $reader->close() My problem is that the code will work perfectly if the XML being passed does not have the <?xml version="1.0"?> line, but if i include it, and it will be included when the application goes into a live production environment, the $reader->read() code for the while loop does not work and the XML is not parsed within the while loop. Has anyone seen similar behaviour before or knows why this could be happening? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Parallel WCF calls to multiple servers

    - by gregmac
    I have a WCF service (the same one) running on multiple servers, and I'd like to call all instances in parallel from a single client. I'm using ChannelFactory and the interface (contract) to call the service. Each service has a local <endpoint> client defined in the .config file. What I'm trying to do is build some kind of generic framework to avoid code duplication. For example a synchronous call in a single thread looks something like this: Dim remoteName As String = "endpointName1" Dim svcProxy As ChannelFactory(Of IMyService) = New ChannelFactory(Of IMyService)(remoteName) Try svcProxy.Open() Dim svc As IMyService = svcProxy.CreateChannel() nodeResult = svc.TestRemote("foo") Finally svcProxy.Close() End Try The part I'm having difficulty with is how to specify and actually invoke the actual remote method (eg "TestRemote") without having to duplicate the above code, and all the thread-related stuff that invokes that, for each method. In the end, I'd like to be able to write code along the lines of (consider this psuedo code): Dim results as Dictionary(Of Node, ExpectedReturnType) results = ParallelInvoke(IMyService.SomeMethod, parameter1, parameter2) where ParallelInvoke() will take the method as an argument, as well as the parameters (paramArray or object() .. whatever) and then go run the request on each remote node, block until they all return an answer or timeout, and then return the results into a Dictionary with the key as the node, and the value as whatever value it returned. I can then (depending on the method) pick out the single value I need, or aggregate all the values from each server together, etc. I'm pretty sure I can do this using reflection and InvokeMember(), but that requires passing the method as a string (which can lead to errors like calling a non-existing method that can't be caught at compile time), so I'd like to see if there is a cleaner way to do this. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to refactor this Javascript anonymous function?

    - by HeavyWave
    We have this anonymous function in our code, which is part of the jQuery's Ajax object parameters and which uses some variables from the function it is called from. this.invoke = function(method, data, callback, error, bare) { $.ajax({ success: function(res) { if (!callback) return; var result = ""; if (res != null && res.length != 0) var result = JSON2.parse(res); if (bare) { callback(result); return; } for (var property in result) { callback(result[property]); break; } } }); } I have omitted the extra code, but you get the idea. The code works perfectly fine, but it leaks 4 Kbs on each call in IE, so I want to refactor it to turn the anonymous function into a named one, like this.onSuccess = function(res) { .. }. The problem is that this function uses variables from this.invoke(..), so I cannot just take it outside of its body. How do I correctly refactor this code, so that it does not use anonymous functions and parent function variables?

    Read the article

  • save xml object so that elements are in sorted order in saved xml file

    - by scot
    Hi , I am saving a xml document object and it is saved in a xml file as shown below . <author name="tom" book="Fun-II"/> <author name="jack" book="Live-I"/> <author name="pete" book="Code-I"/> <author name="jack" book="Live-II"/> <author name="pete" book="Code-II"/> <author name="tom" book="Fun-I"/> instead i want to sort the content in document object so that when i persist the object it is saved by grouping authors then book name as below: <author name="jack" book="Live-I"/> <author name="jack" book="Live-II"/> <author name="pete" book="Code-I"/> <author name="pete" book="Code-II"/> <author name="tom" book="Fun-I"/> <author name="tom" book="Fun-II"/> I use apache xml beans..any ideas on how to achieve this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to change the value of the variable

    - by Legend
    I'm using a discrete event simulator called ns-2 that was built using Tcl and C++. I was trying to write some code in TCL: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 2.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global state global ns $ns at-now "set state [expr $state+1]" puts "Changed value of state to $state" } $ns run Here's the output: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 Changed value of state to 0 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 The value of state does not seem to change. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong in using TCL. Anyone has an idea as to what might be going wrong here? EDIT: Thanks for the help. Actually, ns-2 is something over which I do not have much control (unless I recompile the simulator itself). I tried out the suggestions and here's the output: for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at-now "puts \"At [$ns now] changed value of state to $::state\"" } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1 changed value of state to 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 And for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at 1.0 {puts "At 1.0 values of state is: $::state"} } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1.0 values of state is: 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 Doesn't seem to work... Not sure if its a problem with ns2 or my code...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >