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  • Unable to change the value of the variable

    - by Legend
    I'm using a discrete event simulator called ns-2 that was built using Tcl and C++. I was trying to write some code in TCL: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 2.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global state global ns $ns at-now "set state [expr $state+1]" puts "Changed value of state to $state" } $ns run Here's the output: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 Changed value of state to 0 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 The value of state does not seem to change. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong in using TCL. Anyone has an idea as to what might be going wrong here? EDIT: Thanks for the help. Actually, ns-2 is something over which I do not have much control (unless I recompile the simulator itself). I tried out the suggestions and here's the output: for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at-now "puts \"At [$ns now] changed value of state to $::state\"" } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1 changed value of state to 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 And for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at 1.0 {puts "At 1.0 values of state is: $::state"} } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1.0 values of state is: 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 Doesn't seem to work... Not sure if its a problem with ns2 or my code...

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  • How to explain to users the advantages of dumb primary key?

    - by Hao
    Primary key attractiveness I have a boss(and also users) that wants primary key to be sophisticated/smart/attractive control number(sort of like Social Security number, or credit card number format) I just padded the primary key(in Views) with zeroes to appease their desire to make the control number sophisticated,smart and attractive. But they wanted it as: first 2 digits as client code, then 4 digits as year year, then last 4 digits as transaction number on that client on a given year, then reset the transaction number of client to 1 when next year flows. Each client's transaction starts with 1. e.g. WM20090001, WM20090002, BB2009001, WM20100001, BB20100001 But as I wanted to make things as simple as possible, I forgo embedding their suggested smartness in primary key, I just keep the primary key auto increments regardless of client and year. But to make it not dull-looking(they really are adamant to make the primary key as smart control number), I made the primary key appears to them smart, on view query, I put the client code and four digit year code on front of the eight-zero padded autoincrement key, i.e. WM200900000001. Sort of slug-like information on autoincremented primary key. Keeping primary key autoincrement regardless of any other information, we are able keep other potential side effects problem when they edit a record, for example, if they made a mistake of entering the transaction on WM, then they edit the client code to BB, if we use smart primary key, the primary keys of WM customer will have gaps in their control number. Or worse yet, instead of letting the control numbers have gaps/holes, the user will request that subsequent records of that gap should shift up to that gap and have their subsequent primary keys re-adjust(decremented). How do you deal with these user requests(reasonable or otherwise)? Do you yield to their request? Or just continue using dumb primary key and explain them the repercussions of having a very smart/sophisticated primary key and educate them the significant advantages of having a dumb primary key? P.S. quotable quote(http://articles.techrepublic.com.com/5100-10878_11-1044961.html): "If you hold your tongue the first time users ask what is for them a reasonable request, things will work a lot better in the end."

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  • How can I debug why this click handler never fires?

    - by tixrus
    I am going to be excrutiatingly detailed here. I am using Firefox 3.6.3 on Max OSX with Firebug 1.5.3. I have two versions of a project, one which works and one with a bug. One I downloaded and one I typed by hand. Take a guess which one doesn't work. They should be the same except that mine uses a newer version of jQuery and the files are named differently. jQuery version is not the issue. I made mine use the older jquery and I made the working one use the newer jquery. Either way, mine still broke and the downloaded one still works. I've busted my eyes trying to see how these projects are different. The only thing I don't want to do is copy the working code to the busted code because I need to be able to figure this stuff out when it is my own unique code causing similar issues. There are no errors that I can see in Firebug in my code, in fact, 2/3 of it works just fine. just the second button does nothing. So I wanted to step through. These are always eyeball errors and I really suck at seeing them. I put it on a public server. http://colleenweb.com/jqtests/ex71.html And I want to debug ex71.js If you firebug the working one and set a break point at line 13 in ex71.js the variable json has the expected values when you click on the second button. But If you firebug this one, it never gets there. I've been over the html and all the names of everything seem to match up. I also wonder why the buttons aren't right justified but that's a css thing. Please tell me what I'm missing, and more importantly, what tool/technique I could use to find these types of bugs.

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  • CKEditor plugin to close editor

    - by David Lawson
    The problem with destroying the editor from within a plugin, is that certain code tries to use the editor after the destructive plugin code, when in fact the editor is no longer there, causing errors and instability. I have come up with the following code for a plugin which closes the editor using both async:true and setTimeout: var cancelAddCmd = { modes : { wysiwyg:1, source:1 }, async: true, exec : function( editor ) { if(confirm('Are you sure you want to cancel editing and discard all content?')) setTimeout(function() { editor.destroy(); }, 100); } }; The problem I see is that it uses a dodgy setTimout call that would likely have mixed results depending on the computer's speed of execution - 100ms might not have passed by the time it would be OK to destroy the editor. Is there a proper way to destroy the editor from within a plugin? Even with async: true; and no setTimeout errors are created. Maybe a possible solution would be to stop any existing/any more code related to the editor from running afterwards, if possible? I have tried using events, like on('afterCommandExec', function(){ editor.destroy(); }) and some other events, but that hasn't helped much... doesn't seem like there is an event for when the editor has jumped out of its stack call for handling the button. And there is no way to stop execution by disposing of the CKEditor instance more properly?

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  • c# ListView unable to check a checkbox! Strange problem.

    - by Kurt
    This is a strange problem, I've not added much code as I don't know were to start. I have a listview control in virtual mode, if I filter the listview to show me all people called John, I then see 3 users called John, I then cancel the filter setting all values to null and return all data to the listview, I now have several hundred items in the list but I can only see 30 on screen unless I scroll down the listview. I then use the code below to check a checkbox in each row, all get checked apart from the 3 Johns but if I can see 1 of the 3 Johns in listview without scrolling and then run the code below the visible John is checked. for (int i = 0; i < this._items.Count; i++) { this._items[i].Checked = true; } I have checked the status of the checkbox just before it is checked in the above code and if John is visible then the checkbox believes it is unchecked (false), if it is not visible it belives it is checked (true). So having one visible John on screen the checkbox looks unchecked and running a test proves it is unchecked, for the two Johns I can't see they believe they are checked but if I scroll down so I can see them they aren't. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • simple Stata program

    - by Cyrus S
    I am trying to write a simple program to combine coefficient and standard error estimates from a set of regression fits. I run, say, 5 regressions, and store the coefficient(s) and standard error(s) of interest into vectors (Stata matrix objects, actually). Then, I need to do the following: Find the mean value of the coefficient estimates. Combine the standard error estimates according to the formula suggested for combining results from "multiple imputation". The formula is the square root of the formula for "T" on page 6 of the following document: http://bit.ly/b05WX3 I have written Stata code that does this once, but I want to write this as a function (or "program", in Stata speak) that takes as arguments the vector (or matrix, if possible, to combine multiple estimates at once) of regression coefficient estimates and the vector (or matrix) of corresponding standard error estimates, and then generates 1 and 2 above. Here is the code that I wrote: (breg is a 1x5 vector of the regression coefficient estimates, and sereg is a 1x5 vector of the associated standard error estimates) mat ones = (1,1,1,1,1) mat bregmean = (1/5)*(ones*breg’) scalar bregmean_s = bregmean[1,1] mat seregmean = (1/5)*(ones*sereg’) mat seregbtv = (1/4)*(breg - bregmean#ones)* (breg - bregmean#ones)’ mat varregmi = (1/5)*(sereg*sereg’) + (1+(1/5))* seregbtv scalar varregmi_s = varregmi[1,1] scalar seregmi = sqrt(varregmi_s) disp bregmean_s disp seregmi This gives the right answer for a single instance. Any pointers would be great! UPDATE: I completed the code for combining estimates in a kXm matrix of coefficients/parameters (k is the number of parameters, m the number of imputations). Code can be found here: http://bit.ly/cXJRw1 Thanks to Tristan and Gabi for the pointers.

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  • What was Tim Sweeney thinking? (How does this C++ parser work?)

    - by Frank Krueger
    Tim Sweeney of Epic MegaGames is the lead developer for Unreal and a programming language geek. Many years ago posted the following screen shot to VoodooExtreme: As a C++ programmer and Sweeney fan, I was captivated by this. It shows generic C++ code that implements some kind of scripting language where that language itself seems to be generic in the sense that it can define its own grammar. Mr. Sweeney never explained himself. :-) It's rare to see this level of template programming, but you do see it from time to time when people want to push the compiler to generate great code or because they want to create generic code (for example, Modern C++ Design). Tim seems to be using it to create a grammar in Parser.cpp - you can see what look like prioritized binary operators. If that is the case, then why does Test.ae look like it's also defining a grammar? Obviously this is a puzzle that needs to be solved. Victory goes to the answer with a working version of this code, or the most plausible explanation, or to Tim Sweeney himself if he posts an answer. :-)

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  • MS Ajax FilteredTextBox stopped working

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm using Microsoft's AJAX library via their CDN. Everything was going fine in an old project. I then created a new project and copied and pasted some of the AJAX code hoping that it would work. However, my code isn't working and I've been struggling to figure out why. I'm trying to implement a filtered textbox: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/extended/ExtendedControls.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { Sys.require(Sys.components.filteredTextBox, function() { $("[id$='UserName']").filteredTextBox({ InvalidChars: ".", FilterType: Sys.Extended.UI.FilterTypes.Numbers | Sys.Extended.UI.FilterTypes.UppercaseLetters | Sys.Extended.UI.FilterTypes.LowercaseLetters | Sys.Extended.UI.FilterTypes.Custom, FilterMode: Sys.Extended.UI.FilterModes.ValidChars }); }); }); </script> When I run this, the textbox isn't filtered and I can enter any character. In Chrome, I used the Dev Tools and it found two errors on the page. In my .aspx page, I have: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'Numbers' of undefined (regarding the Sys.Extended.UI.FilterTypes.Numbers in the code above). In filteredtextboxbehavior.debug.js, I have the error: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<an Object> has no method 'registerComponent' Any ideas why I'm getting this error? The code has been working previously so I'm not sure if I had added any extra settings in my old project which the new one doesn't have. Thanks! ps:The textbox can be found as any other actions on it are recognized.

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  • Maven: compile aspectj project containing Java 1.6 source

    - by gmale
    What I want to do is fairly easy. Or so you would think. However, nothing is working properly. Requirement: Using maven, compile Java 1.6 project using AspectJ compiler. Note: Our code cannot compile with javac. That is, it fails compilation if aspects are not woven in (because we have aspects that soften exceptions). Questions (based on failed attempts below): Either 1) How do you get maven to run the aspectj:compile goal directly, without ever running compile:compile? 2) How do you specify a custom compilerId that points to your own ajc compiler? Thanks for any and all suggestions. These are the things I've tried that have let to my problem/questions: Attempt 1 (fail): Specify aspectJ as the compiler for the maven-compiler-plugin: org.apache.maven.plugins maven-compiler-plugin 2.2 1.6 1.6 aspectj org.codehaus.plexus plexus-compiler-aspectj 1.8 This fails with the error: org.codehaus.plexus.compiler.CompilerException: The source version was not recognized: 1.6 No matter what version of the plexus compiler I use (1.8, 1.6, 1.3, etc), this doesn't work. I actually read through the source code and found that this compiler does not like source code above Java 1.5. Attempt 2 (fail): Use the aspectJ-maven-plugin attached to the compile and test-compile goals: org.codehaus.mojo aspectj-maven-plugin 1.3 1.6 1.6 compile test-compile This fails when running either: mvn clean test-compile mvn clean compile because it attempts to execute compile:compile before running aspectj:compile. As noted above, our code doesn't compile with javac--the aspects are required. So mvn would need to skip the compile:compile goal altogether and run only aspectj:compile. Attempt 3 (works but unnacceptable): Use the same configuration above but instead run: mvn clean aspectj:compile This works, in that it builds successfully but it's unacceptable in that we need to be able to run the compile goal and the test-compile goal directly (m2eclipse auto-build depends on those goals). Moreover, running it this way would require that we spell out every goal we want along the way (for instance, we need resources distributed and tests to be run and test resources deployed, etc)

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  • File permissions with FileSystemObject - CScript.exe says one thing, Classic ASP says another...

    - by Dylan Beattie
    I have a classic ASP page - written in JScript - that's using Scripting.FileSystemObject to save files to a network share - and it's not working. ("Permission denied") The ASP page is running under IIS using Windows authentication, with impersonation enabled. If I run the following block of code locally via CScript.exe: var objNet = new ActiveXObject("WScript.Network"); WScript.Echo(objNet.ComputerName); WScript.Echo(objNet.UserName); WScript.Echo(objNet.UserDomain); var fso = new ActiveXObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject"); var path = "\\\\myserver\\my_share\\some_path"; if (fso.FolderExists(path)) { WScript.Echo("Yes"); } else { WScript.Echo("No"); } I get the (expected) output: MY_COMPUTER dylan.beattie MYDOMAIN Yes If I run the same code as part of a .ASP page, substituting Response.Write for WScript.Echo I get this output: MY_COMPUTER dylan.beattie MYDOMAIN No Now - my understanding is that the WScript.Network object will retrieve the current security credentials of the thread that's actually running the code. If this is correct - then why is the same user, on the same domain, getting different results from CScript.exe vs ASP? If my ASP code is running as dylan.beattie, then why can't I see the network share? And if it's not running as dylan.beattie, why does WScript.Network think it is?

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  • VB.net (aspx) mysql connection

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am new to ASP.NET and VB.net code behind. I have a classic ASP page that connects to the mySQL server with the following code: Set oConnection = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set oRecordset = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oConnection.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver}; SERVER=xxx.com; PORT=3306; DATABASE=xxx; USER=xxx; PASSWORD=xxx; OPTION=3;" sqltemp = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'" oRecordset.Open sqltemp, oConnection,3,3 if oRecordset.EOF then ... However, i am unable to find anything to connect to mySQL in ASP.NET (VB.NET). I have only found this peice of code that does not seem to work once it gets to the "Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString)" code: Dim MyConString As String = "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=xxx.com;" & _ "DATABASE=xxx;" & _ "UID=xxx;" & _ "PASSWORD=xxx;" & _ "OPTION=3;" Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString) MyConnection.Open() Dim MyCommand As New OdbcCommand MyCommand.Connection = MyConnection MyCommand.CommandText = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'"" MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() MyConnection.Close() I have these import statements also: <%@ Import Namespace=System %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.IO %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Web %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.ServiceProcess %> <%@ Import Namespace=Microsoft.Data.Odbc %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data.MySqlClient %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Data %> So any help would be great! :o) David

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  • Having problem dynamically invoking unmanaged VB COM dll from c#?

    - by Ramesh Vel
    I have a problem calling unmanaged VB COM dll from c#. This is dynamic invocation using loadLibrary and GetProcAddress. I can successfully loaded the dll using loadLibrary , but the GetProcAddress always return 0. It wasnt log any error msg and nothing. it just returns 0. below the sample code VB COM VERSION 1.0 CLASS BEGIN MultiUse = -1 Persistable = 0 DataBindingBehavior = 0 DataSourceBehavior = 0 MTSTransactionMode = 0 END Attribute VB_Name = "Sample" Attribute VB_GlobalNameSpace = False Attribute VB_Creatable = True Attribute VB_PredeclaredId = False Attribute VB_Exposed = True Option Explicit Private Attribute1 As String Private Sub Class_Initialize() Attribute1 = "test" End Sub Public Sub TestSub() End Sub Public Function testFunction() As String testFunction = "default.html" End Function Public Function SetData(XML As String) As String SetData = Date + Time End Function c# code static class UnManagedInvoker { [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public delegate string MethodToInvoke(string sdata); public static string InvokeUnmanagedDll(string dllPath, string methodName) { IntPtr DIedDll = LoadLibrary(dllPath); IntPtr AddressOfFunction = GetProcAddress(DIedDll, methodName); MethodToInvoke MI = (MethodToInvoke)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(AddressOfFunction, typeof(MethodToInvoke)); string data = MI("ssdasda"); FreeLibrary(DIedDll); return data; } } And the calling code string res = UnManagedInvoker.InvokeUnmanagedDll("xx.dll","SetData"); Can someone help me out.. Update: I can successfully call the methods if the component is registered. using the below code Type Med = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(new Guid("089DD8B0-E12B-439B-B52C-007CA72C93D0")); object MedObj = Activator.CreateInstance(Med); object[] parameter = new object[1]; parameter[0] = "asdasd"; var ss = Med.InvokeMember("SetData", System.Reflection.BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, MedObj, parameter); is there a way if the dll not registered.?

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  • Extending Python and Objective-C

    - by chpwn
    I'm a fan of clean code. I like my languages to be able to express what I'm trying to do, but I like the syntax to mirror that too. For example, I work on a lot of programs in Objective-C for jailbroken iPhones, which patch other code using the method_setImplementation() function of the runtime. Or, in PyObjC, I have to use the syntax UIView.initWithFrame_(), which is also pretty awful and unreadable with the way the method names are structured. In both cases, the language does not support this in syntax. I've found three basic ways that this is done: Insane macros. Take a look at this "CaptainHook", it does what I'm looking for in a usable way, but it isn't quite clean and is a major hack. There's also "Logos", which implements a very nice syntax, but is written in Perl parsing my code with a ton of regular expressions. This scares me. I like the idea of adding a %hook ClassName, but not by using regular expressions to parse C or Objective-C. Finally, there is Cycript. This is an extension to JavaScript which interfaces with the Objective-C runtime and allows you to use Objective-C style code in your JavaScript, and inject that into other processes. This is likely the cleanest as it actually uses a parser for the JavaScript, but I'm not a huge fan of that language in general. Should, and how should, I create an extension to Python and Objective-C to allow me to do this? Is it worth writing a parser for my language to transform the syntax into something nicer, if it is only in a very specialized niche like this? Should I just live with the horrible syntax of the default Objective-C hooking or PyObjC?

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  • android send html mail using intent

    - by Javadid
    hi friends... i have generated an html code(complete with tags) as a String... now i want to send this html code as a html to mail... my code is as below.. Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_SEND); intent.setType("text/html"); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_EMAIL, new String[]{"[email protected]"}); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_SUBJECT, "I would like to buy the following"); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, purchaseOrder()); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(intent, "sending mail")); where the purchaseOrder() is the method which passes me the string having full html code... but though the gmail client opens on my nexus1 but it has the String with all html tags and not the actual html view... i tried the following but got error... The gmail crashed... intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, purchaseOrder()); Can any1 plz help... Thanx

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  • Can YAML have inheritance?

    - by Jason
    This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

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  • ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

    - by Ben
    I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

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  • Multicolumn ListView in WPF - errors

    - by Will
    Hi, I am trying to define a multicolumn listview in xaml (visual studio 2008) and then add items to it in c#. I have seen many posts on this subject, and tried the various methods, but I am getting errors. my xaml code is below, VS does not flag any errors on it. <ListView Height="234.522" Name="chartListView" Width="266.337"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" Width="70"/> <GridViewColumn Header="ID" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> to try and add data to the columns, I created a button and put the code in the button click : private void button3_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { chartListView.Items.Add("item1").SubItems.Add("item2"); } the error that is showing is on Subitems is: 'int' does not contain a definition for 'SubItems' and no extension method 'SubItems' accepting a first argument of type 'int' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) D:\devel\VS\pchart\pchart\pchart\Window1.xaml.cs Also, I tried looking at some other posts on listview controls such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1260812/listview-inserting-items i tried the code there : ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(); item.Text=anInspector.getInspectorName().ToString(); and got almost the same error on item.Text as i did with SubItems. is there something earlier in my code, or project definition that i am missing? Thanks for any help

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  • User Control SiteMap Provider Rendering Error

    - by Serexx
    I have created a Custom Server Control that renders the SiteMap as a pure UL for CSS styling. At run-time it renders properly but in VS2008 Design View VS shows this error: Error Rendering Control - menuMainAn unhandled exception has occurred. The provider 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified for the defaultProvider does not exist in the providers collection. I have 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified in web.config as per here : link text While I am happy that the code runs properly, the Designer error is bothersome if the underlying issue might cause the code to break in some circumstances so I need to understand what is going on... The code explicitly references the sitemap in the Render Method with : int level = 1; string ul = string.Format("<div class='{0}' id='{1}'>{2}</div>", CssClassName, this.ID.ToString(), EnumerateNodesRecursive(SiteMap.RootNode, level)); output.Write(ul); and the recursive method called referrences SiteMap.CurrentNode. Otherwise there are no explicit sitemap references in the code. Does anyone have any ideas why Deisgner is complaining?

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  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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  • incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

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  • Windows-Mobile Directshow: Specifying bitrate/quality of a WMV video capture

    - by Landstander
    Hi- I'm stumped on this, and I'm really hoping someone could point me in the right direction. I'm currently capturing video in Windows Mobile and encoding it using the WMV 9 DMO (CLSID_CWMV9EncMediaObject). That all works well enough, but the output video's bitrate is too high, resulting in a video file that's much too large for my needs. Ultimately, my goal is to mimic the video settings that Microsoft's Camera Capture Dialog outputs in the "messaging" quality mode (64kbps) from my C++ code. Currently, my code's outputting a WMV file with a bitrate of 352kbps. The only example I could find of specifying the capture bitrate with a WMV9 DMO was this. The idea in that code was basically to use a propertybag to write a bitrate to a property of the DMO. Update: In windows mobile, the closest codec property I can find that seems to equate to the bitrate is "g_wszWMVCVBRQuality". Microsoft's documentation of this property is extremely confusing to me: It basically seems to say that a higher number equates to a higher quality, but it gives absolutely no explanation of the specifics for each number. When I attempt to set this property to value like "1" via a propertybag for the WMV9 DMO, I run into a -2147467259 (unknown) error. To summarize: What is the basic strategy to specify the bitrate/quality of a video being captured via directshow (wmv9) on a windows mobile platform? I've heard (or wondered about) the following methods: Use the propertybag to change the encoder DMO's property that corresponds to bitrate/quality (currently failing) Create your own custom transcoder/encoder to specify it. This seems unnecessary since the WMV encoder works well enough- it's just at too high a bitrate. The VIDEOINFOHEADER has a bitrate property, but I suspect that specifying new settings here will do nothing to alter the actual encoding process since I wouldn't think file attributes would come into play until after the encoding. Any suggestions? PS: I would post specific source code, but at this point it may confuse more than it helps since I'm floundering so much on how to do this. At this point, I'm just trying to validate the general strategy. THANKS!

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  • New to Linux Kernel/Driver development...

    - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com
    Recently, i began developing a driver of an embedded device running linux. Until now i have only read about linux internals. Having no prior experience in driver devlopment, i am finding it a tad difficult to land my first step. I have downloaded the kernel source-code (v2.6.32). I have read (skimped) Linux Device Drivers (3e) I read a few related posts here on StackOverflow. I understand that linux has a "monolithic" approach. I have built kernel (included existing driver in menuconfig etc.) I know the basics of kconfig and makefile files so that should not be a problem. Can someone describe the structure (i.e. the inter-links) of the various folders in the kernel-source code. In other words given a source-code file, which other files would it refer to for related code (The "#include"-s provide a partial idea) Could someone please help me in getting a better idea? Any help will be greatly appreciated Thank You.

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  • Simulating Google Appengine's Task Queue with Gearman

    - by sotangochips
    One of the characteristics I love most about Google's Task Queue is its simplicity. More specifically, I love that it takes a URL and some parameters and then posts to that URL when the task queue is ready to execute the task. This structure means that the tasks are always executing the most current version of the code. Conversely, my gearman workers all run code within my django project -- so when I push a new version live, I have to kill off the old worker and run a new one so that it uses the current version of the code. My goal is to have the task queue be independent from the code base so that I can push a new live version without restarting any workers. So, I got to thinking: why not make tasks executable by url just like the google app engine task queue? The process would work like this: User request comes in and triggers a few tasks that shouldn't be blocking. Each task has a unique URL, so I enqueue a gearman task to POST to the specified URL. The gearman server finds a worker, passes the url and post data to a worker The worker simply posts to the url with the data, thus executing the task. Assume the following: Each request from a gearman worker is signed somehow so that we know it's coming from a gearman server and not a malicious request. Tasks are limited to run in less than 10 seconds (There would be no long tasks that could timeout) What are the potential pitfalls of such an approach? Here's one that worries me: The server can potentially get hammered with many requests all at once that are triggered by a previous request. So one user request might entail 10 concurrent http requests. I suppose I could have a single worker with a sleep before every request to rate-limit. Any thoughts?

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  • Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

    - by slugolicious
    It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

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  • Creating a mouse drag done observable with Reactive Extensions

    - by juharr
    I have the following var leftMouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var leftMouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseMove"); var leftMouseDragging = from down in leftMouseDown let startPoint = down.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) from move in mouseMove.TakeUntil(leftMouseUp) let endPoint = move.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) select new { Start = startPoint, End = endPoint }; which when I subscribe to it will give me the start point of the drag and the current end point. Now I need to do something once the drag is done. I was unsuccessful in attempting to do this completely with RX and ended up doing leftMouseDragging.Subscribe(value=> { dragging = true; //Some other code }); leftMouseUp.Subscribe(e=> { if(dragging) { MessageBox.Show("Just finished dragging"); dragging = false; } }); This works fine until I do a right mouse button drag. Then when I click the left mouse button I get the message box. If I only do a left button drag I get the message box, and then clicking the left mouse button doesn't produce the box. I'd like to do this without the external state, but if nothing else I'd at least like for it to work properly. FYI: I tried making dragging volatile and using a lock, but that didn't work. EDIT It turns out my problem was with a right click context menu. Once I got rid of that my above code worked. So, now my problem is how to I get to have the context menu and still have my code work. I assume the Context menu was handling the left mouse click and that somehow caused my code to not work, but I'm still puzzling it out.

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