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  • PyQt threads and signals - how to properly retrieve values

    - by Cawas
    Using Python 2.5 and PyQt, I couldn't find any question this specific in Python, so sorry if I'm repeating the other Qt referenced questions below, but I couldn't easily understand that C code. I've got two classes, a GUI and a thread, and I'm trying to get return values from the thread. I've used the link in here as base to write my code, which is working just fine. To sum it up and illustrate the question in code here (I don't think this code will run on itself): class MainWindow (QtGui.QWidget): # this is just a reference and not really relevant to the question def __init__ (self, parent = None): QtGui.QWidget.__init__(self, parent) self.thread = Worker() # this does not begin a thread - look at "Worker.run" for mor details self.connect(self.thread, QtCore.SIGNAL('finished()'), self.unfreezeUi) self.connect(self.thread, QtCore.SIGNAL('terminated()'), self.unfreezeUi) self.connect(self.buttonDaemon, QtCore.SIGNAL('clicked()'), self.pressDaemon) # the problem begins below: I'm not using signals, or queue, or whatever, while I believe I should def pressDaemon (self): self.buttonDaemon.setEnabled(False) if self.thread.isDaemonRunning(): self.thread.setDaemonStopSignal(True) self.buttonDaemon.setText('Daemon - converts every %s sec'% args['daemonInterval']) else: self.buttonConvert.setEnabled(False) self.thread.startDaemon() self.buttonDaemon.setText('Stop Daemon') self.buttonDaemon.setEnabled(True) # this whole class is just another reference class Worker (QtCore.QThread): daemonIsRunning = False daemonStopSignal = False daemonCurrentDelay = 0 def isDaemonRunning (self): return self.daemonIsRunning def setDaemonStopSignal (self, bool): self.daemonStopSignal = bool def __init__ (self, parent = None): QtCore.QThread.__init__(self, parent) self.exiting = False self.thread_to_run = None # which def will be running def __del__ (self): self.exiting = True self.thread_to_run = None self.wait() def run (self): if self.thread_to_run != None: self.thread_to_run(mode='continue') def startDaemon (self, mode = 'run'): if mode == 'run': self.thread_to_run = self.startDaemon # I'd love to be able to just pass this as an argument on start() below return self.start() # this will begin the thread # this is where the thread actually begins self.daemonIsRunning = True self.daemonStopSignal = False sleepStep = 0.1 # don't know how to interrupt while sleeping - so the less sleepStep, the faster StopSignal will work # begins the daemon in an "infinite" loop while self.daemonStopSignal == False and not self.exiting: # here, do any kind of daemon service delay = 0 while self.daemonStopSignal == False and not self.exiting and delay < args['daemonInterval']: time.sleep(sleepStep) # delay is actually set by while, but this holds for N second delay += sleepStep # daemon stopped, reseting everything self.daemonIsRunning = False self.emit(QtCore.SIGNAL('terminated')) Tho it's quite big, I hope this is pretty clear. The main point is on def pressDaemon. Specifically all 3 self.thread calls. The last one, self.thread.startDaemon() is just fine, and exactly as the example. I doubt that represents any issue. The problem is being able to set the Daemon Stop Signal and retrieve the value if it's running. I'm not sure that it's possible to set a stop signal on QtCore.QtThread, because I've tried doing the same way and it didn't work. But I'm pretty sure it's not possible to retrieve a return result from the emit. So, there it is. I'm using direct calls to the thread class, and I'm almost positive that's not a good design and will probably fail when running under stress. I read about that queue, but I'm not sure it's the proper solution here, or if I should be using Qt at all, since this is Python. And just maybe there's nothing wrong with the way I'm doing.

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  • Changing a form's action attribute in IE?

    - by Jonatan Littke
    Hey. I'm trying to set a hash value in a form's action, to keep it when the form is submitted. Firefox allows me to update the hash and redirects accordingly, but IE doesn't. I initially thought this was related to IE not allowing hash values in the action attribute at all, but it seems I can't dynamically set the action at all in IE - with a hash or not? Is that right? I'm using the following jQuery: $("#options-form").attr('action', '#' + hash); To update: <form id="options-form" action="" method="get"> (On a sidenote, this wasn't needed in Firefox, because FF appears to preserve the current hash if it was only the GET params that changed.)

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  • Creating a Cross-Process EventWaitHandle

    - by Navaneeth
    I have two windows application, one is a windows service which create EventWaitHandle and wait for it. Second application is a windows gui which open it by calling EventWaitHandle.OpenExisting() and try to Set the event. But I am getting an exception in OpenExisting. The Exception is "Access to the path is denied". windows Service code EventWaitHandle wh = new EventWaitHandle(false, EventResetMode.AutoReset, "MyEventName"); wh.WaitOne(); Windows GUI code try { EventWaitHandle wh = EventWaitHandle.OpenExisting("MyEventName"); wh.Set(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } I tried the same code with two sample console application, it was working fine.

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  • When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

    - by Mustafakidd
    Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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  • How Gridview co-operates with ObjectDataSource?

    - by sanjuro
    Hi, how Gridview co-operates with ObjectDataSource internally? When you set DataSourceID of GridView, assigned ObjectDataSource take care of such things as paging and sorting, but i don't have full control above databinding itself, on the other side when i set datasource of gridview in code-behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { testGridView.DataSource = testObjectDataSource.Select(); testGridView.DataBind(); } } Now i have full control, but i have lost the advantage of comfort sorting and paging. And that co-operation between ObjectDataSource and Gridview became mystery for me. So can anybody explain me in details how ObjectDataSource and Gridview co-operates under the hood? I want to understand it in order to write my own smart code or own gridview that will mimic this co-operation. Many thanks for answers.

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  • netsh http add urlacl problem

    - by BadCat914
    I'm trying to set up some ports from a WIX installer. For WinXP we use httpcfg in a custom action and this works fine. For Win7, we're trying: netsh http add urlacl url=http://127.0.0.1/8346/ user="NT AUTHORITY\Authenticated Users" sddl="D:(A;;GX;;;AU)" The WIX installer correctly executes this statement and sets up the ports - FOR THE ADMINISTRATOR who runs the .msi. Users with lesser priviliges cannot access these ports. I need to set it up for all users on the machine, but I've tried about everything I can think of with no luck. Something I find odd is that the Admin user can see the assigned ports using netstat -a, but they do not appear at all using netsh http show urlacl...is that an indicator of something wrong?

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  • How do I serialize an object to xml but not have it be the root element of the xml document

    - by mezoid
    I have the following object: public class MyClass { public int Id { get; set;} public string Name { get; set; } } I'm wanting to serialize this to the following xml string: <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> Unfortunately, when I use the XMLSerializer I get a string which looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MyClass xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> I'm not wanting MyClass to be the root element the document, rather I'm eventually wanting to add the string with other similar serialized objects which will be within a larger xml document. i.e. Eventually I'll have a xml string which looks like this: <Classes> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> </Classes>" My first thought was to create a class as follows: public class Classes { public List<MyClass> MyClasses { get; set; } } ...but that just addes an additional node called MyClasses to wrap the list of MyClass.... My gut feeling is that I'm approaching this the wrong way and that my lack of experience with creating xml files isn't helping to point me to some part of the .NET framework or some other library that simplifies this.

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  • Calling "Base-Getter" in Overriding Getter of Property

    - by scherand
    I have a base class "Parent" like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Parent { private int parentVirtualInt = -1; public virtual int VirtualProperty { get { return parentVirtualInt; } set { if(parentVirtualInt != value) { parentVirtualInt = value; } } } } } and a child class like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Child : Parent { public override int VirtualProperty { get { if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) { throw new ApplicationException("Dummy Ex"); } return base.VirtualProperty; } set { if(base.VirtualProperty != value) { base.VirtualProperty = value; } } } } } Note that the getter in Child is calling the getter of Parent (or at least this is what I intend). I now use the "Child" class by instantiating it, assigning a value (let's say 4) to its VirtualProperty and then reading the property again. Child c = new Child(); c.VirtualProperty = 4; Console.Out.WriteLine("Child.VirtualProperty: " + c.VirtualProperty); When I run this, I obviously get an ApplicationException saying "Dummy Ex". But if I set a breakpoint on the line if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) in Child and check the value of base.VirtualProperty (by hovering the mouse over it) before the exception can be thrown (I assume(d)), I already get the Exception. From this I convey that the statement base.VirtualProperty in the "Child-Getter calls itself"; kind of. What I would like to achieve is the same behavior I get when I change the definition of parentVirutalInt (in Parent) to protected and use base.parentVirtualInt in the Getter of Child instead of base.VirtualProperty. And I don't yet see why this is not working. Can anybody shed some light on this? I feel that overridden properties behave differently than overridden methods? By the way: I am doing something very similar with subclassing a class I do not have any control over (this is the main reason why my "workaround" is not an option). Kind regards

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  • MSSQL DATEDIFF accuracy

    - by jomi
    Hello, I have to store some intervals in mssql db. I'm aware that the datetime's accuracy is approx. 3.3ms (can only end 0, 3 and 7). But when I calculate intervals between datetimes I see that the result can only end with 0, 3 and 6. So the more intervals I sum up the more precision I loose. Is it possible to get an accurate DATEDIFF in milliseconds ? declare @StartDate datetime declare @EndDate datetime set @StartDate='2010-04-01 12:00:00.000' set @EndDate='2010-04-01 12:00:00.007' SELECT DATEDIFF(millisecond, @StartDate, @EndDate),@EndDate-@StartDate, @StartDate, @EndDate I would like to see 7 ad not 6. (And it should be as fast as possible) Thanks,

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  • NullPointerException with CallableStatement.getResultSet()

    - by Raj
    Hello, I have a stored proc in SQL Server 2005, which looks like the following (simplified) CREATE PROCEDURE FOO @PARAMS AS BEGIN -- STEP 1: POPULATE tmp_table DECLARE @tmp_table TABLE (...) INSERT INTO @tmp_table SELECT * FROM BAR -- STEP 2: USE @tmp_table FOR FINAL SELECT SELECT abc, pqr FROM BAZ JOIN @tmp_table ON some_criteria END When I run this proc from SQL Server Management Studio, things work fine. However, when I call the same proc from a Java program, using something like: cs = connection.prepareCall("exec proc ?,"); cs.setParam(...); rs = cs.getResultSet(); // BOOM - Null! while(rs.next()) {...} // NPE! I fail to understand why the first result set returned is NULL. Can someone explain this to me? As a workaround, if I check cs.getMoreResults() and if true, try another getResultSet() - THIS time it returns the proper result set. Any pointers please? (I'm using JTDS drivers, if it matters) Thanks, Raj

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  • ImageView scale type not working in list activity

    - by Justin
    I have used ImageView's before and understand the different scale types that can be set... However I am having an incredibly difficult time trying to get an ImageView to scale properly in the row of a ListActivity or an ExpandableListActivity. I have tried setting the android:scaleType property to every single value but the image never scales down. I have set the min and max sizes as well and they don't seem to have any effect. I have done both of these things in both the XMl and in code to no avail... Does anyone have any ideas or perhaps a workaround? Thanks in advance!

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  • Scrolling png with text & alpha on top of a static UIImageView

    - by heymon
    I have a view controller that has a view structure as follows: FilesOwner FirstResponder View ImageView (.jpg) ScrollView ImageView (.png) The text in the innermost imageview has white text and clear (alpha) all around. I want to scroll the innermost imageview, and see the background image (the .jpg) behind it. Its not working. Its acting like the scrollview background obscures the underneath .jpg. I say this because if I change the background color of the scrollview, that's what I see i.e. if I set it black, I see black behind my .png, if I set it white, I see white. If I change the alpha of the scrollview that doesn't seem to work either. The one other thing I tried was unchecking drawing: Opaque, but that doesn't get it either.

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  • Scroll bar does not appear in UITableView

    - by user335398
    Hi there, When I create UITableView with UITableViewController, all the right - scroll bar is present on UITableView. But I'd like to place some more controls apart from table on the area, so I have to use UIViewController instead. I create UITableView *tableView as controller's member, and set controller as its delegate conforming to UITableViewDelegate and UITableViewDataSource protocols. All the OK now, except of scroll bars do not appear at all. tableView.showsVerticalScrollIndicator is set to YES. Where might be a problem? Much thanks! WBR, Timur

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  • How to change which item is “outlined” in a ListBox without changing the selection?

    - by Timwi
    How do you change which item is “outlined” in a ListBox? See the following screenshot for clarification: Background: I want to have a standard multi-select listbox that works normally. Unfortunately, the Windows Forms ListBox (with SelectionMode.MultiExtended) is not fully functional. The missing functionality is that it doesn’t let you select a disjoint set of items by using Ctrl+Arrow keys and Ctrl+Space. (Try it in Windows Explorer to see how it’s supposed to work.) I am trying to subclass ListBox and add this missing functionality. To this end, I intend to respond to Ctrl+Arrow keys in the OnKeyDown protected method, but in order to do so, I need to be able to move the outline without changing the set of selected items. How do I do that?

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  • .NET asmx web services: serialize object property as string property to support versioning

    - by mcliedtk
    I am in the process of upgrading our web services to support versioning. We will be publishing our versioned web services like so: http://localhost/project/services/1.0/service.asmx http://localhost/project/services/1.1/service.asmx One requirement of this versioning is that I am not allowed to break the original wsdl (the 1.0 wsdl). The challenge lies in how to shepherd the newly versioned classes through the logic that lies behind the web services (this logic includes a number of command and adapter classes). Note that upgrading to WCF is not an option at the moment. To illustrate this, let's consider an example with Blogs and Posts. Prior to the introduction of versions, we were passing concrete objects around instead of interfaces. So an AddPostToBlog command would take in a Post object instead of an IPost. // Old AddPostToBlog constructor. public AddPostToBlog(Blog blog, Post post) { // constructor body } With the introduction of versioning, I would like to maintain the original Post while adding a PostOnePointOne. Both Post and PostOnePointOne will implement the IPost interface (they are not extending an abstract class because that inheritance breaks the wsdl, though I suppose there may be a way around that via some fancy xml serialization tricks). // New AddPostToBlog constructor. public AddPostToBlog(Blog blog, IPost post) { // constructor body } This brings us to my question regarding serialization. The original Post class has an enum property named Type. For various cross-platform compatibility issues, we are changing our enums in our web services to strings. So I would like to do the following: // New IPost interface. public interface IPost { object Type { get; set; } } // Original Post object. public Post { // The purpose of this attribute would be to maintain how // the enum currently is serialized even though now the // type is an object instead of an enum (internally the // object actually is an enum here, but it is exposed as // an object to implement the interface). [XmlMagic(SerializeAsEnum)] object Type { get; set; } } // New version of Post object public PostOnePointOne { // The purpose of this attribute would be to force // serialization as a string even though it is an object. [XmlMagic(SerializeAsString)] object Type { get; set; } } The XmlMagic refers to an XmlAttribute or some other part of the System.Xml namespace that would allow me to control the type of the object property being serialized (depending on which version of the object I am serializaing). Does anyone know how to accomplish this?

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  • Passing Custom event arguments to timer_TICK event

    - by Nimesh
    I have class //Create GroupFieldArgs as an EventArgs public class GroupFieldArgs : EventArgs { private string groupName = string.Empty; private int aggregateValue = 0; //Get the fieldName public string GroupName { set { groupName = value; } get { return groupName; } } //Get the aggregate value public int AggregateValue { set { aggregateValue = value; } get { return aggregateValue; } } } I have another class that creates a event handler public class Groupby { public event EventHandler eh; } Finally I have Timer on my form that has Timer_TICK event. I want to pass GroupFieldArgs in Timer_TICK event. What is the best way to do it?

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  • WCF to WCF communication 401, HttpClient

    - by youwhut
    I have a WCF REST service that needs to communicate with another WCF REST service. There are three websites: Default Web Site Website1 Website2 If I set up both services in Default Web Site and connect to the other (using HttpClient) using the URI http://localhost/service then everything is okay. The desired set-up is to move these two services to separate websites and rather than using the URI http://localhost/service, accessing the service via http://website1.domain.com/service still using HttpClient. I received the exception: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Unauthorized (401) is not one of the following: OK (200), Created (201), Accepted (202), NonAuthoritativeInformation (203), NoContent (204), ResetContent (205), PartialContent (206) I can see this is a 401, but what is going on here? Thanks

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  • Php code not executing - dies out when trying to create an object of class - no error displayed

    - by Ali
    I'm having some problems with this piece of code. I've included a class declaration and trying to create an object of that class but my code dies out. It doesn't seem to be an include issue as all the files are being included even the files called for inclusion within the class file itself. However the object is not created - I tried to put an echo statement in the __construct function but nothing it just doesn't run infact doesn't create the object and the code won't continue from there - plus no error is reported or displayed and I have error reporting set to E_ALL and display errors set to true WHats happening here :(

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  • Deriving arrays in mathematics

    - by Gio Borje
    So I found some similarities between arrays and set notation while learning about sets and sequences in precalc e.g. set notation: {a | cond } = { a1, a2, a3, a4, ..., an} given that n is the domain (or index) of the array, a subset of Natural numbers (or unsigned integer). Most programming languages would provide similar methods to arrays that are applied to sets e.g. upperbounds & lowerbounds; possibly suprema and infima too. Where did arrays come from?

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  • Why does Java read its default settings from the system

    - by Bozho
    Java is reading the locale, timezone and encoding information (and perhaps more) from the system it is installed on. This often brings bad surprises (brought me one just yesterday). Say your development and production servers are set to have TimeZone GMT+2. Then you deploy on a production server set to GMT. a 2-hour shift may not be easy to observe immediately. And although you can pass a TimeZone to your calendars, APIs might be instantiating calendars (or dates) using the default timezone. Now, I know one should be careful with these settings, but are easy to miss, hence make programs more error-prone. So, why doesn't Java have its own defaults - UTF-8, GMT, en_US (yes, I'm on non-en_US locale, but having it as default is fine). Applications could read the system settings via some API, if needed. Thus programs would be more predictable. So, what is the reason behind this decision?

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  • WPF Textbox "normal" text input

    - by Ash Rowe
    G'day, I'm not sure if this is a problem relevant to only me or if anyone else has this issue also. None the less, I'll try and describe what is going on here. I have a few textbox's, default style, etc. I set an explicit maxwidth and maxheight to prevent resize when the text exceeds the default width of the textbox. The issue is that the text wraps to the next line, but I only want single line. So I set maxlines to 1 and textwrapping to NoWrap. That's fine. Now the carat and typed text disappears under the edges of the textbox when the width is exceeded and the only way I can get the carat and newly typed text back into view is by pressing the left and right arrows. Coming from MFC and using textboxes all the time with HTML, I would have thought the default behaviour would be to have the textbox content scroll with the carat or am I missing something here? Thank you, Ash

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  • IIS Strategies for Accessing Secured Network Resources

    - by Emtucifor
    Problem: A user connects to a service on a machine, such as an IIS web site or a SQL Server database. The site or the database need to gain access to network resources such as file shares (the most common) or a database on a different server. Permission is denied. This is because the user the service is running as doesn't have network permissions in the first place, or if it does, it doesn't have rights to access the remote resource. I keep running into this problem over and over again and am tired of not having a really solid way of handling it. Here are some workarounds I'm aware of: Run IIS as a custom-created domain user who is granted high permissions If permissions are granted one file share at a time, then every time I want to read from a new share, I would have to ask a network admin to add it for me. Eventually, with many web sites reading from many shares, it is going to get really complicated. If permissions are just opened up wide for the user to access any file shares in our domain, then this seems like an unnecessary security surface area to present. This also applies to all the sites running on IIS, rather than just the selected site or virtual directory that needs the access, a further surface area problem. Still use the IUSR account but give it network permissions and set up the same user name on the remote resource (not a domain user, a local user) This also has its problems. For example, there's a file share I am using that I have full rights to for sharing, but I can't log in to the machine. So I have to find the right admin and ask him to do it for me. Any time something has to change, it's another request to an admin. Allow IIS users to connect as anonymous, but set the account used for anonymous access to a high-privilege one This is even worse than giving the IIS IUSR full privileges, because it means my web site can't use any kind of security in the first place. Connect using Kerberos, then delegate This sounds good in principle but has all sorts of problems. First of all, if you're using virtual web sites where the domain name you connect to the site with is not the base machine name (as we do frequently), then you have to set up a Service Principal Name on the webserver using Microsoft's SetSPN utility. It's complicated and apparently prone to errors. Also, you have to ask your network/domain admin to change security policy for the web server so it is "trusted for delegation." If you don't get everything perfectly right, suddenly your intended Kerberos authentication is NTLM instead, and you can only impersonate rather than delegate, and thus no reaching out over the network as the user. Also, this method can be problematic because sometimes you need the web site or database to have permissions that the connecting user doesn't have. Create a service or COM+ application that fetches the resource for the web site Services and COM+ packages are run with their own set of credentials. Running as a high-privilege user is okay since they can do their own security and deny requests that are not legitimate, putting control in the hands of the application developer instead of the network admin. Problems: I am using a COM+ package that does exactly this on Windows Server 2000 to deliver highly sensitive images to a secured web application. I tried moving the web site to Windows Server 2003 and was suddenly denied permission to instantiate the COM+ object, very likely registry permissions. I trolled around quite a bit and did not solve the problem, partly because I was reluctant to give the IUSR account full registry permissions. That seems like the same bad practice as just running IIS as a high-privilege user. Note: This is actually really simple. In a programming language of your choice, you create a class with a function that returns an instance of the object you want (an ADODB.Connection, for example), and build a dll, which you register as a COM+ object. In your web server-side code, you create an instance of the class and use the function, and since it is running under a different security context, calls to network resources work. Map drive letters to shares This could theoretically work, but in my mind it's not really a good long-term strategy. Even though mappings can be created with specific credentials, and this can be done by others than a network admin, this also is going to mean that there are either way too many shared drives (small granularity) or too much permission is granted to entire file servers (large granularity). Also, I haven't figured out how to map a drive so that the IUSR gets the drives. Mapping a drive is for the current user, I don't know the IUSR account password to log in as it and create the mappings. Move the resources local to the web server/database There are times when I've done this, especially with Access databases. Does the database have to live out on the file share? Sometimes, it was just easiest to move the database to the web server or to the SQL database server (so the linked server to it would work). But I don't think this is a great all-around solution, either. And it won't work when the resource is a service rather than a file. Move the service to the final web server/database I suppose I could run a web server on my SQL Server database, so the web site can connect to it using impersonation and make me happy. But do we really want random extra web servers on our database servers just so this is possible? No. Virtual directories in IIS I know that virtual directories can help make remote resources look as though they are local, and this supports using custom credentials for each virtual directory. I haven't been able to come up with, yet, how this would solve the problem for system calls. Users could reach file shares directly, but this won't help, say, classic ASP code access resources. I could use a URL instead of a file path to read remote data files in a web page, but this isn't going to help me make a connection to an Access database, a SQL server database, or any other resource that uses a connection library rather than being able to just read all the bytes and work with them. I wish there was some kind of "service tunnel" that I could create. Think about how a VPN makes remote resources look like they are local. With a richer aliasing mechanism, perhaps code-based, why couldn't even database connections occur under a defined security context? Why not a special Windows component that lets you specify, per user, what resources are available and what alternate credentials are used for the connection? File shares, databases, web sites, you name it. I guess I'm almost talking about a specialized local proxy server. Anyway, so there's my list. I may update it if I think of more. Does anyone have any ideas for me? My current problem today is, yet again, I need a web site to connect to an Access database on a file share. Here we go again...

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  • WPF Validation & IDataErrorInfo

    - by Jefim
    A note - the classes I have are EntityObject classes! I have the following class: public class Foo { public Bar Bar { get; set; } } public class Bar : IDataErrorInfo { public string Name { get; set; } #region IDataErrorInfo Members string IDataErrorInfo.Error { get { return null; } } string IDataErrorInfo.this[string columnName] { get { if (columnName == "Name") { return "Hello error!"; } Console.WriteLine("Validate: " + columnName); return null; } } #endregion } XAML goes as follows: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding Foo.Bar}"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name, ValidatesOnDataErrors=true}"/> </StackPanel> I put a breakpoint and a Console.Writeline on the validation there - I get no breaks. The validation is not executed. Can anybody just press me against the place where my error lies?

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  • Command-line options for HH and opening CHM Windows Help Files

    - by Jeromy Anglim
    I'd like to be able to write Inquisit scripts in Vim. In the standard Inquisit application for writing scripts, I can press F1 and it brings up help on the topic related to the word under the cursor. I'd like to set up the same functionality through Vim. The help file for Inquisit is stored in a Windows .CHM file. I figured there must be a set of command-line options for doing a keyword search in a chm file, but I haven't been able to find a complete list of the command-line options, presumably for HH.exe. I did find this page with a few pointers, but it does not have a full listing of command-line options. I also found this discussion on AutoHotKey discussion board. It mentions keyhh. I also just found a vimscript designed to do exactly what I want Questions: Is there a complete list of command-line options for HH.exe? Is there a better way of going about what I am trying to do?

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  • NSMutableDictionary of NSMutableSets... sorting this out

    - by Mike
    I have a NSMutableDictionary of NSMutableSets. Each set entry is a string, something like this: NSMutableSet *mySet = [NSMutableSet setWithObjects: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", time1], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", time2], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", time3], nil]; // time 1,2,3, are NSTimeInterval variables then I store each set on the dictionary using this: NSString *rightNowString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", rightNow]; [myDict setValue:mySet forKey:rightNow]; // rightNow is NSTimeInterval as rightNow key can occur out of order, I end with a NSDictionary that is not ordered by rightNow. How can I sort this NSDictionary by its keys considering that they are numbers stored as strings on the dictionary...? I don't care for ordering the sets, just the dictionary. thanks for any help.

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