Search Results

Search found 3379 results on 136 pages for 'datetime'.

Page 62/136 | < Previous Page | 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69  | Next Page >

  • LINQtoSQL Custom Constructor off Partial Class?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, I read this question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/82409/is-there-a-way-to-override-the-empty-constructor-in-a-class-generated-by-linqtosq Typically my constructor would look like: public User(String username, String password, String email, DateTime birthday, Char gender) { this.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); this.DateCreated = this.DateModified = DateTime.Now; this.Username = username; this.Password = password; this.Email = email; this.Birthday = birthday; this.Gender = gender; } However, as read in that question, you want to use partial method OnCreated() instead to assign values and not overwrite the default constructor. Okay so I got this : partial void OnCreated() { this.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); this.DateCreated = this.DateModified = DateTime.Now; this.Username = username; this.Password = password; this.Email = email; this.Birthday = birthday; this.Gender = gender; } However, this gives me two errors: Partial Methods must be declared private. Partial Methods must have empty method bodies. Alright I change it to Private Sub OnCreated() to remove both of those errors. However I am still stuck with...how can I pass it values as I would with a normal custom constructor? Also I am doing this in VB (converted it since I know most know/prefer C#), so would that have an affect on this?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: Clustering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    I have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means I want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But I can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. I could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic I want for a candidate cluster key. So I cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, I use what I already have. What I'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

    Read the article

  • Thinking Sphinx with Rails - Delta indexing seems to work fine for one model but not for the other

    - by hack3r
    I have 2 models User and Discussion. I have defined the indices for the models as below: For the User model: define_index do indexes email indexes first_name indexes last_name, :sortable => true indexes groups(:name), :as => :group_names has "IF(email_confirmed = true and status = 'approved', true, false)", :as => :approved_user, :type => :boolean has "IF(email_confirmed = true and (status = 'approved' or status='blocked'), true, false)", :as => :approved_or_blocked_user, :type => :boolean has points, :type => :integer has created_at, :type => :datetime has user(:id) set_property :delta => true end For the Discussion model: define_index do indexes title indexes description indexes category(:title), :as => :category_title indexes tags(:title), :as => :tag_title has "IF(publish_to_blog = true AND sticky = false, true, false)", :as => :publish_to_main, :type => :boolean has created_at has updated_at, :type => :datetime has recent_activity_at, :type => :datetime has views_count, :type => :integer has featured has publish_to_blog has sticky set_property :delta => true end I have added a delta column to both tables as per the documentation. My problem is that delta indexing works only for the Discussion model and not for the User model. For ex: When I update the 'title' of a discussion, I can see the thinking sphinx is rotating the indices etc. (as is evident from the logs). But when I update the 'first_name' or the 'last_name' of a user, nothing happens. The User model also has a has_many :through association through a model called GroupsUser. I have setup a after_save on the GroupsUser as follows: def set_user_delta_flag user.delta = true user.save end Even this doesn't seem to trigger delta indexing on the User model. A similar setup for the Discussion model works perfectly! Can anyone tell me why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: Clutering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means i want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But i can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. i could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic i want for a candidate cluster key. So i cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, i use what i already have. What i'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

    Read the article

  • sql statement supposed to have 2 distinct rows, but only 1 is returned. for C# windows

    - by jello
    yeah so I have an sql statement that is supposed to return 2 rows. the first with psychological_id = 1, and the second, psychological_id = 2. here is the sql statement select * from psychological where patient_id = 12 and symptom = 'delire'; But with this code, with which I populate an array list with what is supposed to be 2 different rows, two rows exist, but with the same values: the second row. OneSymptomClass oneSymp = new OneSymptomClass(); ArrayList oneSympAll = new ArrayList(); string connStrArrayList = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; string queryStrArrayList = "select * from psychological where patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id + " and symptom = '" + SymptomComboBoxes[tag].SelectedItem + "';"; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStrArrayList)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStrArrayList, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { oneSymp.psychological_id = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["psychological_id"]); oneSymp.patient_history_date_psy = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_psy"]; oneSymp.strength = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["strength"]); oneSymp.psy_start_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_start_date"]; oneSymp.psy_end_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_end_date"]; oneSympAll.Add(oneSymp); } } conn.Close(); } OneSymptomClass testSymp = oneSympAll[0] as OneSymptomClass; MessageBox.Show(testSymp.psychological_id.ToString()); the message box outputs "2", while it's supposed to output "1". anyone got an idea what's going on?

    Read the article

  • Where is default location where tracelistener writes txt logs

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, i want to log some traces in my service. When i set initializeData to a location in the d: partition, i can write with no problems. When i set the initializeData to c:\, it doesn't write at all. Now i was wondering 2 things : 1) Does my service not have the rights to write to c:\ partition? 2) if i don't specify the partition, where does it write to? This is the part of my app.config which works: <add initializeData="d:\txtServiceLog.txt" type="MonitoringServerService.FaultTracer, MonitoringServerService" name="txtListener" traceOutputOptions="DateTime, Timestamp, ProcessId, Callstack"> <filter type="" /> </add> When changing to code below, i doesn't write anymore : <add initializeData="c:\txtServiceLog.txt" type="MonitoringServerService.FaultTracer, MonitoringServerService" name="txtListener" traceOutputOptions="DateTime, Timestamp, ProcessId, Callstack"> <filter type="" /> </add> And where should i look if i do this : <add initializeData="txtServiceLog.txt" type="MonitoringServerService.FaultTracer, MonitoringServerService" name="txtListener" traceOutputOptions="DateTime, Timestamp, ProcessId, Callstack"> <filter type="" /> </add> Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

    Read the article

  • C# vs C - Big performance difference

    - by John
    I'm finding massive performance differences between similar code in C anc C#. The C code is: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <math.h> main() { int i; double root; clock_t start = clock(); for (i = 0 ; i <= 100000000; i++){ root = sqrt(i); } printf("Time elapsed: %f\n", ((double)clock() - start) / CLOCKS_PER_SEC); } And the C# (console app) is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication2 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { DateTime startTime = DateTime.Now; double root; for (int i = 0; i <= 100000000; i++) { root = Math.Sqrt(i); } TimeSpan runTime = DateTime.Now - startTime; Console.WriteLine("Time elapsed: " + Convert.ToString(runTime.TotalMilliseconds/1000)); } } } With the above code, the C# completes in 0.328125 seconds (release version) and the C takes 11.14 seconds to run. The c is being compiled to a windows executable using mingw. I've always been under the assumption that C/C++ were faster or at least comparable to C#.net. What exactly is causing the C to run over 30 times slower? EDIT: It does appear that the C# optimizer was removing the root as it wasn't being used. I changed the root assignment to root += and printed out the total at the end. I've also compiled the C using cl.exe with the /O2 flag set for max speed. The results are now: 3.75 seconds for the C 2.61 seconds for the C# The C is still taking longer, but this is acceptable

    Read the article

  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • How can I order by the result of a recursive SQL query

    - by Tony
    I have the following method I need to ORDER BY: def has_attachments? attachments.size > 0 || (!parent.nil? && parent.has_attachments?) end I have gotten this far: ORDER BY CASE WHEN attachments.size > 0 THEN 1 ELSE (CASE WHEN parent_id IS NULL THEN 0 ELSE (CASE message.parent ...what goes here ) END END END I may be looking at this wrong because I don't have experience with recursive SQL. Essentially I want to ORDER by whether a message or any of its parents has attachments. If it's attachment size is 0, I can stop and return a 1. If the message has an attachment size of 0, I now check to see if it has a parent. If it has no parent then there is no attachment, however if it does have a parent then I essentially have to do the same query case logic for the parent. UPDATE The table looks like this +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | message_type_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_priority_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_status_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_subject_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | from_user_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | parent_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | expires_at | datetime | YES | MUL | NULL | | | subject_other | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | MUL | | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | | | | lock_version | int(11) | NO | | 0 | | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Where the parent_id refers to the parent message, if it exists. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C# Process Binary File, Multi-Thread Processing

    - by washtik
    I have the following code that processes a binary file. I want to split the processing workload by using threads and assigning each line of the binary file to threads in the ThreadPool. Processing time for each line is only small but when dealing with files that might contain hundreds of lines, it makes sense to split the workload. My question is regarding the BinaryReader and thread safety. First of all, is what I am doing below acceptable. I have a feeling it would be better to pass only the binary for each line to the PROCESS_Binary_Return_lineData method. Please note the code below is conceptual. I looking for a but of guidance on this as my knowledge of multi-threading is in its infancy. Perhaps there is a better way to achieve the same result, i.e. split processing of each binary line. var dic = new Dictionary<DateTime, Data>(); var resetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); using (var b = new BinaryReader(File.Open(Constants.dataFile, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read))) { var lByte = b.BaseStream.Length; var toProcess = 0; while (lByte >= DATALENGTH) { b.BaseStream.Position = lByte; lByte = lByte - AB_DATALENGTH; ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(delegate { Interlocked.Increment(ref toProcess); var lineData = PROCESS_Binary_Return_lineData(b); lock(dic) { if (!dic.ContainsKey(lineData.DateTime)) { dic.Add(lineData.DateTime, lineData); } } if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref toProcess) == 0) resetEvent.Set(); }, null); } } resetEvent.WaitOne();

    Read the article

  • Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

    - by clawson
    I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

    Read the article

  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Webforms site using HTTPCookie with 100 year timeout times out after 20 minutes

    - by Rob
    I have a site that is using Forms Auth. The client does not want the site session to expire at all for users. In the login page codebehind, the following code is used: // user passed validation FormsAuthentication.Initialize(); // grab the user's roles out of the database String strRole = AssignRoles(UserName.Text); // creates forms auth ticket with expiration date of 100 years from now and make it persistent FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, UserName.Text, DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddYears(100), true, strRole, FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // create a cookie and throw the ticket in there, set expiration date to 100 years from now HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(fat)) { Expires = DateTime.Now.AddYears(100) }; // add the cookie to the response queue Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl(UserName.Text, false)); The web.config file auth section looks like this: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="APLOnlineCompliance" loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" defaultUrl="~/Course/CourseViewer.aspx" /> </authentication> When I log into the site I do see the cookie correctly being sent to the browser and passed back up: However, when I walk away for 20 minutes or so, come back and try to do anything on the site, the login window reappears. This solution was working for a while on our servers - now it's back. The problem doesn't occur on my local dev box running Cassini in VS2008. Any ideas on how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • How can I set the name of the class xml by constructor?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I want to be able to do something like this: @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); XMLEvents(){ ... events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, professorP)); events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, student)); events.add(new XMLEvent(time, type, course)); ... } } The XMLEvent class to go something like: class XMLEvent { @Root(name="professor") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Professor p){ ... } @Root(name="student") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Student st){ ... } @Root(name="course") XMLEvent(DateTime time, LogType type, Course c){ ... } } For the output to be: <events> <professor> ... </professor> <student> ... </student> <course> ... </course> </events> So depending on the constructor I call to create a new XMLEvent the root name to which is mapped is different. Is this even possible? Of course the past example was just to transmit what I need. Putting the @Root annotation there didn't change anything Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server INSERT ... SELECT Statement won't parse

    - by Jim Barnett
    I am getting the following error message with SQL Server 2005 Msg 120, Level 15, State 1, Procedure usp_AttributeActivitiesForDateRange, Line 18 The select list for the INSERT statement contains fewer items than the insert list. The number of SELECT values must match the number of INSERT columns. I have copy and pasted the select list and insert list into excel and verified there are the same number of items in each list. Both tables an additional primary key field with is not listed in either the insert statement or select list. I am not sure if that is relevant, but suspicious it may be. Here is the source for my stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_AttributeActivitiesForDateRange] ( @dtmFrom DATETIME, @dtmTo DATETIME ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @dtmToWithTime DATETIME SET @dtmToWithTime = DATEADD(hh, 23, DATEADD(mi, 59, DATEADD(s, 59, @dtmTo))); -- Get uncontested DC activities INSERT INTO AttributedDoubleClickActivities ([Time], [User-ID], [IP], [Advertiser-ID], [Buy-ID], [Ad-ID], [Ad-Jumpto], [Creative-ID], [Creative-Version], [Creative-Size-ID], [Site-ID], [Page-ID], [Country-ID], [State Province], [Areacode], [OS-ID], [Domain-ID], [Keyword], [Local-User-ID], [Activity-Type], [Activity-Sub-Type], [Quantity], [Revenue], [Transaction-ID], [Other-Data], Ordinal, [Click-Time], [Event-ID]) SELECT [Time], [User-ID], [IP], [Advertiser-ID], [Buy-ID], [Ad-ID], [Ad-Jumpto], [Creative-ID], [Creative-Version], [Creative-Size-ID], [Site-ID], [Page-ID], [Country-ID], [State Province], [Areacode], [OS-ID], [Domain-ID], [Keyword], [Local-User-ID] [Activity-Type], [Activity-Sub-Type], [Quantity], [Revenue], [Transaction-ID], [Other-Data], REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') AS Ordinal, [Click-Time], [Event-ID] FROM Activity_Reports WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo AND REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') IN (SELECT REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') FROM Activity_Reports WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo EXCEPT SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR, TripID) FROM VisualSciencesActivities WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo); END GO

    Read the article

  • sql statement supposed to have 2 distinct rows, but only 1 is returned

    - by jello
    I have an sql statement that is supposed to return 2 rows. the first with psychological_id = 1, and the second, psychological_id = 2. here is the sql statement select * from psychological where patient_id = 12 and symptom = 'delire'; But with this code, with which I populate an array list with what is supposed to be 2 different rows, two rows exist, but with the same values: the second row. OneSymptomClass oneSymp = new OneSymptomClass(); ArrayList oneSympAll = new ArrayList(); string connStrArrayList = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; string queryStrArrayList = "select * from psychological where patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id + " and symptom = '" + SymptomComboBoxes[tag].SelectedItem + "';"; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStrArrayList)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStrArrayList, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { oneSymp.psychological_id = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["psychological_id"]); oneSymp.patient_history_date_psy = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_psy"]; oneSymp.strength = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["strength"]); oneSymp.psy_start_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_start_date"]; oneSymp.psy_end_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_end_date"]; oneSympAll.Add(oneSymp); } } conn.Close(); } OneSymptomClass testSymp = oneSympAll[0] as OneSymptomClass; MessageBox.Show(testSymp.psychological_id.ToString()); the message box outputs "2", while it's supposed to output "1". anyone got an idea what's going on?

    Read the article

  • How can I log any login operation in case of "Remember Me" option ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I have an asp.net login web form that have ( username textBox - password textBox ) plus Remember Me CheckBox option When user login i do the below code if (provider.ValidateUser(username, password)) { int timeOut = 0x13; DateTime expireDate = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(19.0); if (rememberMeCheckBox.Checked) { timeOut = 0x80520; expireDate = DateTime.Now.AddYears(1); } FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(username, true, timeOut); string cookieValue = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookieValue); cookie.Expires = expireDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); AddForLogin(username); Response.Redirect("..."); } as in code after user is authenticated i log that he login in db by calling method AddForLogin(username); But if user choose remember me in login and then he try to go to site any time this login method isn't executed as it use cookies ... so i have many questions: 1- Is this the best way to log login operation or is there any other better ? 2- In my case how to log login operation in case of remember me chosen by user ?

    Read the article

  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

    Read the article

  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

    Read the article

  • how to use a parameterized function for the Default Binding of a Sql Server column

    - by Walt Gaber
    I have a table that catalogs selected files from multiple sources. I want to record whether a file is a duplicate of a previously cataloged file at the time the new file is cataloged. I have a column in my table (“primary_duplicate”) to record each entry as ‘P’ (primary) or ‘D’ (duplicate). I would like to provide a Default Binding for this column that would check for other occurrences of this file (i.e. name, length, timestamp) at the time the new file is being recorded. I have created a function that performs this check (see “GetPrimaryDuplicate” below). But I don’t know how to bind this function which requires three parameters to the table’s “primary_duplicate” column as its Default Binding. I would like to avoid using a trigger. I currently have a stored procedure used to insert new records that performs this check. But I would like to ensure that the flag is set correctly if an insert is performed outside of this stored procedure. How can I call this function with values from the row that is being inserted? USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog]( [id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [catalog_timestamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, [primary_duplicate] nchar NOT NULL, [name] nvarchar NULL, [length] [bigint] NULL, [timestamp] [datetime] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_id] DEFAULT (newid()) FOR [id] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_catalog_timestamp] DEFAULT (getdate()) FOR [catalog_timestamp] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_primary_duplicate] DEFAULT (N'GetPrimaryDuplicate(name, length, timestamp)') FOR [primary_duplicate] GO USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPrimaryDuplicate] ( @name nvarchar(255), @length bigint, @timestamp datetime ) RETURNS nchar(1) AS BEGIN DECLARE @c int SELECT @c = COUNT(*) FROM FileCatalog WHERE name=@name and length=@length and timestamp=@timestamp and primary_duplicate = 'P' IF @c > 0 RETURN 'D' -- Duplicate RETURN 'P' -- Primary END GO

    Read the article

  • How to play simultaneous multiply audio sources in Silverlight

    - by Shurup
    I want to play simultaneous multiply audio sources in Silverlight. So I've created a prototype in Silverlight 4 that should play a two mp3 files containing the same ticks sound with an intervall 1 second. So these files must be sounded as one sound if they will be played together with any whole second offsets (0 and 1, 0 and 2, 1 and 1 seconds, etc.) I my prototype I use two MediaElement (me and me2) objects. DateTime startTime; private void Play_Clicked(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { me.SetSource(new FileStream(file1), FileMode.Open))); me2.SetSource(new FileStream(file2), FileMode.Open))); var timer = new DispatcherTimer { Interval = TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(1) }; timer.Tick += RefreshData; timer.Start(); } First file should be played at 00:00 sec. and the second in 00:02 second. void RefreshData(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(me.CurrentState != MediaElementState.Playing) { startTime = DateTime.Now; me.Play(); return; } var elapsed = DateTime.Now - startTime; if(me2.CurrentState != MediaElementState.Playing && elapsed >= TimeSpan.FromSeconds(2)) { me2.Play(); ((DispatcherTimer)sender).Stop(); } } The tracks played every time different and not simultaneous as they should (as one sound).

    Read the article

  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

    Read the article

  • How does DATEDIFF calculate week differences in SQL Server 2005?

    - by eksortso
    I would like to calculate the difference in weeks between two dates, where two dates are considered part of the same week if their preceding Sunday is the same. Ideally, I'd like to do this using DATEDIFF, instead of learning an elaborate idiom to calculate the value. But I can't tell how it works when weeks are involved. The following query returns 1 and 2. This might make sense if your calendar week begins with a Sunday, i.e. if you run SET DATEFIRST 7 beforehand or if @@DATEFIRST is 7 by default. SET DATEFIRST 7; -- SET DATEFIRST 1; DECLARE @d1 DATETIME, @d2a DATETIME, @d2b DATETIME ; SELECT @d1 = '2010-04-05', -- Monday @d2a = '2010-04-16', -- Following Friday @d2b = '2010-04-18' -- the Sunday following ; SELECT DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2a) AS weekdiff_a -- returns 1 ,DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2b) AS weekdiff_b -- returns 2 ; So I expected different results if SET DATEFIRST 1 is executed instead of SET DATEFIRST 7. But the return values are the same, regardless! What is going on here? What should I do to get the correct week differences?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69  | Next Page >