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  • how to drag a 'div' element to the google maps ,that be changed to a 'marker'..use jquery

    - by zjm1126
    this is my code : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//WAPFORUM//DTD XHTML Mobile 1.0//EN" "http://www.wapforum.org/DTD/xhtml-mobile10.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,minimum-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no"> </head> <body onload="initialize()" onunload="GUnload()"> <style type="text/css"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;float:left;"></div> <div id=b style="width: 50px; height: 50px;background:red;float:left;margin-left:300px;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ditu.google.cn/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-7cuV3vqp7w6zUNiN_F4uBRi_j0U6kJrkFvY4-OX2XYmEAa76BSNz0ifabgugotzJgrxyodPDmheRA&sensor=false"type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //********** function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { // function createMarker(point, number) { var marker = new GMarker(point); var message = ["?","?","?","??","??"]; marker.value = number; GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { var myHtml = "<b>#" + number + "</b><br/>" + message[number -1]; map.openInfoWindowHtml(point, myHtml); }); return marker; } // var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(39.9493, 116.3975), 13); // Add 5 markers to the map at random locations var bounds = map.getBounds(); var southWest = bounds.getSouthWest(); var northEast = bounds.getNorthEast(); var lngSpan = northEast.lng() - southWest.lng(); var latSpan = northEast.lat() - southWest.lat(); for (var i = 0; i < 5; i++) { var point = new GLatLng(southWest.lat() + latSpan * Math.random(), southWest.lng() + lngSpan * Math.random()); map.addOverlay(createMarker(point, i + 1)); } } } //************* $("#b").draggable(); </script> </body> </html>

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • QTreeView memory consumption

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm testing QTreeView functionality right now, and i was amazed by one thing. It seems that QTreeView memory consumption depends on items count O_O. This is highly unusual, since model-view containers of such type only keeps track for items being displayed, and rest of items are in the model. I have written a following code with a simple model that holds no data and just reports that it has 10 millions items. With MFC, Windows API or .NET tree / list with such model will take no memory, since it will display only 10-20 visible elements and will request model for more upon scrolling / expanding items. But with Qt, such simple model results in ~300Mb memory consumtion. Increasing number of items will increase memory consumption. Maybe anyone can hint me what i'm doing wrong? :) #include <QtGui/QApplication> #include <QTreeView> #include <QAbstractItemModel> class CModel : public QAbstractItemModel { public: QModelIndex index ( int i_nRow, int i_nCol, const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return createIndex( i_nRow, i_nCol, 0 ); } public: QModelIndex parent ( const QModelIndex& i_oInex ) const { return QModelIndex(); } public: int rowCount ( const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return i_oParent.isValid() ? 0 : 1000 * 1000 * 10; } public: int columnCount ( const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return 1; } public: QVariant data ( const QModelIndex& i_oIndex, int i_nRole = Qt::DisplayRole ) const { return Qt::DisplayRole == i_nRole ? QVariant( "1" ) : QVariant(); } }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication a(argc, argv); QTreeView oWnd; CModel oModel; oWnd.setUniformRowHeights( true ); oWnd.setModel( & oModel ); oWnd.show(); return a.exec(); }

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  • XmlHttpRequest bug?

    - by valdo
    Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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  • In a PHP project, how do you organize and access your helper objects?

    - by Pekka
    How do you organize and manage your helper objects like the database engine, user notification, error handling and so on in a PHP based, object oriented project? Say I have a large PHP CMS. The CMS is organized in various classes. A few examples: the database object user management an API to create/modify/delete items a messaging object to display messages to the end user a context handler that takes you to the right page a navigation bar class that shows buttons a logging object possibly, custom error handling etc. I am dealing with the eternal question, how to best make these objects accessible to each part of the system that needs it. my first apporach, many years ago was to have a $application global that contained initialized instances of these classes. global $application; $application->messageHandler->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); I then changed over to the Singleton pattern and a factory function: $mh =&factory("messageHandler"); $mh->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); but I'm not happy with that either. Unit tests and encapsulation become more and more important to me, and in my understanding the logic behind globals/singletons destroys the basic idea of OOP. Then there is of course the possibility of giving each object a number of pointers to the helper objects it needs, probably the very cleanest, resource-saving and testing-friendly way but I have doubts about the maintainability of this in the long run. Most PHP frameworks I have looked into use either the singleton pattern, or functions that access the initialized objects. Both fine approaches, but as I said I'm happy with neither. I would like to broaden my horizon on what is possible here and what others have done. I am looking for examples, additional ideas and pointers towards resources that discuss this from a long-term, real-world perspective. Also, I'm interested to hear about specialized, niche or plain weird approaches to the issue. Bounty I am following the popular vote in awarding the bounty, the answer which is probably also going to give me the most. Thank you for all your answers!

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  • Android HelloGoogleMaps to OSMdroid (Open Street Maps)

    - by birgit
    I am trying to reproduce a working HelloGoogleMaps app in Open Street Maps - but I have trouble including the itemized overlay in OSMdroid. I have looked at several resources but I cannot figure out how to fix the error on OsmItemizedOverlay - I guess I am constructing OsmItemizedOverlay wrongly or have a mixup with OsmItemizedOverlay and ItemizedOverlay? But everything I tried to change just raised more errors... "Implicit super constructor ItemizedOverlay() is undefined. Must explicitly invoke another constructor" "Cannot make a static reference to the non-static method setMarker(Drawable) from the type OverlayItem" - I hope someone can help me getting the class definition straight? Thanks so much! package com.example.osmdroiddemomap; import java.util.ArrayList; import android.app.AlertDialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.Point; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import org.osmdroid.api.IMapView; import org.osmdroid.views.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.OverlayItem.HotspotPlace; public class OsmItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay<OverlayItem> { Context mContext; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); //ERRORS are raised by the following 3 lines: public OsmItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker, Context context) { OverlayItem.setMarker(defaultMarker); OverlayItem.setMarkerHotspot(HotspotPlace.CENTER); mContext = context; } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem overlay) { mOverlays.add(overlay); populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public int size() { return mOverlays.size(); } protected boolean onTap(int index) { OverlayItem item = mOverlays.get(index); AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(mContext); dialog.setTitle(item.getTitle()); dialog.setMessage(item.getSnippet()); dialog.show(); return true; } @Override public boolean onSnapToItem(int arg0, int arg1, Point arg2, IMapView arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • Converting HTML TAG Object to JSON Object

    - by cooldude
    Hi, I want to convert the html tag objects to json object in the javascript in order to send them to the server from the javascript. As i have to save these objects at the Ruby on Rails server. These HTML objects is the canvas tag object and the graphics objects created using CAKE API. I have used the stringify function but it is not working. Here is my code: var CAKECanvas = new Canvas(document.body, 1000,1000); var canvas=CAKECanvas.canvas; var text=document.createElement('textarea'); text.id="text"; text.rows="100"; text.cols="200"; document.body.appendChild(text); canvas.style.borderStyle="solid"; canvas.style.borderColor="black"; var rect= new Circle(); rect.radius=100; rect.centered=true; rect.cx=Math.random() * 500; rect.cy= Math.random() * 300; rect.stroke= false; rect.fill= "red"; rect.xDir = Math.random() > 0.5?1:-1; rect.yDir = Math.random() > 0.5?1:-1; var obj=new Object; var count = 0,k; for (k in rect) { if (rect.hasOwnProperty(k)) { count++; obj[k]=rect[k]; } } alert(count); rect.addFrameListener(function(t, dt) { this.cx += this.xDir * 50 * dt/1000; this.cy += this.yDir * 50 * dt/1000; if (this.cx > 550) { this.xDir = -1; } if (this.cx < 50) { this.xDir = 1; } if (this.cy > 350) { this.yDir = -1; } if (this.cy < 50) { this.yDir = 1; } } ); CAKECanvas.append(rect); var carAsJSON = JSON.stringify(obj); /////////////////ERROR

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  • invite friends in a dialog in a Facebook application

    - by Shani1351
    I'm trying to create a Facebook application that displays a friend invite dialog within the application using Facebook's Javascript API (FB.ui). To do that I followed this tutorial I have two problems : The action url I've put in the request-form is "http://apps.facebook.com/appname/post_invite.php" but I see that the iframe source after the post is "http://mydomain.com/post_invite.php" and when this iframe tries to do : parent.closeInviteWidget(); I get an error saying : "Permission denied for < http: //mydomain.com (document.domain has not been set) to get property Window.closeInviteWidget from < http:// apps.facebook.com (document.domain=< http:// facebook.com)." The skip button inside the request-form opens the action url in a new window (new browser tab) and not post to itself like the invite button. How can I fix those problems? -------------------- UPDATE : -------------------------------- I've tried to do what ifaour said and changed the code to : function inviteFriends(user_name, category_id, category_name) { url = appBaseUrl + "/index.php?category_id=" + category_id; req = "<fb:req-choice url='" + url + "' label='Authorize My Application' />"; content = user_name + " opened a new category called " + category_name + ". " + req; action = 'post_invite.php'; fbmi_text = '<fb:request-form action="' + action + '" target="_self" method="post" invite="true" type="Invite" content="' + content + '" <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite yor friends" email_invite="false" import_external_friends="false" /> </fb:request-form>'; FB.ui({ method:'fbml.dialog', width:'750px', fbml:fbmi_text }); } When I use FireBug and look at the invite form it looks like this: <form id="req_form_4d20682f73ddb6e71722794" content="I've opened a new category called dsfsd. <fb:req-choice url='http://apps.facebook.com/appname/index.php?category_id=60' label='Authorize My Application' /> type="Invite" invite="true" method="post" target="_self" action="http://apps.facebook.com/appname/post_invite.php"> ... </form> But I still get the same error : Permission denied for <http://mydomain.com> (document.domain has not been set) to get property Window.closeInviteWidget from <http://apps.facebook.com> (document.domain=<http://facebook.com>)...

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  • Fluent Nhibernate - how do i specify table schemas when auto generating tables in SQL CE 4

    - by daffers
    I am using SQL CE as a database for running local and CI integration tests (normally our site runs on normal SQL server). We are using Fluent Nhibernate for our mapping and having it create our schema from our Mapclasses. There are only two classes with a one to many relationship between them. In our real database we use a non dbo schema. The code would not work with this real database at first until i added schema names to the Table() methods. However doing this broke the unit tests with the error... System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException : There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 1,Token line offset = 26,Token in error = User ] These are the classes and associatad MapClasses (simplified of course) public class AffiliateApplicationRecord { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } public virtual UserRecord KeyContact { get; private set; } public AffiliateApplicationRecord() { DateReceived = DateTime.Now; } public virtual void AddKeyContact(UserRecord keyContactUser) { keyContactUser.Affilates.Add(this); KeyContact = keyContactUser; } } public class AffiliateApplicationRecordMap : ClassMap<AffiliateApplicationRecord> { public AffiliateApplicationRecordMap() { Schema("myschema"); Table("Partner"); Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.CompanyName, "Name"); References(x => x.KeyContact) .Cascade.All() .LazyLoad(Laziness.False) .Column("UserID"); } } public class UserRecord { public UserRecord() { Affilates = new List<AffiliateApplicationRecord>(); } public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Forename { get; set; } public virtual IList<AffiliateApplicationRecord> Affilates { get; set; } } public class UserRecordMap : ClassMap<UserRecord> { public UserRecordMap() { Schema("myschema"); Table("[User]");//Square brackets required as user is a reserved word Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Forename); HasMany(x => x.Affilates); } } And here is the fluent configuraton i am using .... public static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard .Dialect<MsSqlCe40Dialect>() .ConnectionString(ConnectionString) .DefaultSchema("myschema")) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(typeof(AffiliateApplicationRecord).Assembly)) .ExposeConfiguration(config => new SchemaExport(config).Create(false, true)) .ExposeConfiguration(x => x.SetProperty("connection.release_mode", "on_close")) //This is included to deal with a SQLCE issue http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2361730/assertionfailure-null-identifier-fluentnh-sqlserverce .BuildSessionFactory(); } The documentation on this aspect of fluent is pretty weak so any help would be appreciated

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  • ASP.Net/C# File Upload Progress Display

    - by Ioxp
    I am having a hard time figuring out how to do a "Please wait while file is uploading" message when the user submits the following form. So far the application works to specification with regards to checking files and uploading to the server. You will see some java script below, this is there to allow me to fake out the style of the file up load buttons so that it matches the rest of the site. I have tried to use the ASP.Net Ajax controls to do this however the updateprogress panel would not show up. In further reading it was explained that this has something to do with the Asynchronous transfer that the file upload control uses when you issue a PostedFile.SaveAs("filename") command. I also found a site that refereed to using an iframe to do the job. I'm not really sure if that's the best way to go about doing this or not so I'm asking you the professionals of stackoverflow for help to try and resolve this issue. I will be more than happy to post any spinets you need from my code to help me expedite a solution for this. <table border="0"> <tr> <td>File 1:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f1" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td>File 2:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f2" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" style="text-align:right;"><asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton1" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Images/Buttons/Upload_Files.gif" OnClick="Submit_Form" /></td> </tr> </table> <asp:Label ID="lblError" runat="server" Text=""></asp:Label> <script type="text/javascript"> var fakeFileUpload = document.createElement('div'); fakeFileUpload.className = 'fakefile'; var fakeInput = document.createElement('input'); fakeInput.style.width = '200px'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(fakeInput); var image = document.createElement('img'); image.src='../Images/Buttons/Browse.gif'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(image); var x = document.getElementsByTagName('input'); for (var i=0;i<x.length;i++) { if (x[i].type != 'file') continue; if (x[i].parentNode.className != 'fileinputs') continue; x[i].className = 'file hidden'; var clone = fakeFileUpload.cloneNode(true); x[i].parentNode.appendChild(clone); x[i].relatedElement = clone.getElementsByTagName('input')[0]; x[i].onchange = x[i].onmouseout = function () { this.relatedElement.value = this.value; } } </script>

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  • jQuery: modify hidden form field value before submit

    - by Jason Miesionczek
    I have the following code in a partial view (using Spark): <span id="selectCount">0</span> video(s) selected. <for each="var video in Model"> <div style="padding: 3px; margin:2px" class="video_choice" id="${video.YouTubeID}"> <span id="video_name">${video.Name}</span><br/> <for each="var thumb in video.Thumbnails"> <img src="${thumb}" /> </for> </div> </for> # using(Html.BeginForm("YouTubeVideos","Profile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "youTubeForm" })) # { <input type="hidden" id="video_names" name="video_names" /> <input type="submit" value="add selected"/> # } <ScriptBlock> $(".video_choice").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass('selected'); var count = $(".selected").length; $("#selectCount").html(count); }); var options = { target: '#videos', beforeSubmit: function(arr, form, opts) { var names = []; $(".selected").each(function() { names[names.length] = $(this).attr('id'); }); var namestring = names.join(","); $("#video_names").attr('value',namestring); //alert(namestring); //arr["video_names"] = namestring; //alert($.param(arr)); //alert($("#video_names").attr('value')); return true; } }; $("#youTubeForm").ajaxForm(options); </ScriptBlock> Essentially i display a series of divs that contain information pulled from the YouTube API. I use jQuery to allow the the user to select which videos they would like to add to their profile. When i submit the form i would like to populate the hidden field with a comma separated list of video ids. Everything works except that when i try to set the value of the field, in the controller on post, the field comes back empty. I am using the jQuery ajax form plugin. What am i doing wrong that is not allowing the value i set in the field to be sent to the server?

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  • openDatabase Hello World - 2

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    This is a continuation from a previous stackoverflow question. I've renamed some variables so that I can tell what are keywords and what are names that I can control. Q: Why is the deleteRow function not working? <html> <head> <title>html5 openDatabase Hello World</title> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1"); google.setOnLoadCallback(OnLoadCallback); function OnLoadCallback() { var dbo; dbo = openDatabase('HelloWorld'); dbo.transaction( function(T1) { T1.executeSql( 'CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS myTable ' + ' (myTableID INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, ' + ' Field1 TEXT NOT NULL );' ); } ); dbo.transaction(function(T2) { T2.executeSql('SELECT * FROM myTable',[], function (T6, result) { for (var i=0; i < result.rows.length; i++) { var row = result.rows.item(i); $('#savedData').append('<li id="'+row.myTableID+'">' + row.Field1 + '</li>'); } }, errorHandler); }); $('form').submit(function() { var xxx = $('#xxx').val(); dbo.transaction( function(T3) { T3.executeSql( 'INSERT INTO myTable (Field1) VALUES (?);', [xxx], function(){ $('#savedData').append('<li id="ThisisWhereIneedHELP">' + xxx + '</li>'); $('#xxx').val(''); }, errorHandler ); } ); return false; }); $('#savedData > li').live('click', function (){ deleteRow(this.id); $(this).remove(); }); } function deleteRow(myTableID) { alert('trying to delete'); dbo.transaction(function(T4) { T4.executeSql('DELETE FROM myTable WHERE myTableID = ?', [myTableID], function(){ alert('Deleted!'); }, errorHandler); }); } function errorHandler(T5, error) { alert('Oops. Error was '+error.message+' (Code '+error.code+')'); // T5.executeSql('INSERT INTO errors (code, message) VALUES (?, ?);', // [error.code, error.message]); return false; } </script> </head> <body> <form method="post"> <input name="xxx" id="xxx" /> <p> <input type="submit" name="OK" /> </p> <ul id="savedData"> </ul> </form> </body> </html>

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  • "C variable type sizes are machine dependent." Is it really true? signed & unsigned numbers ;

    - by claws
    Hello, I've been told that C types are machine dependent. Today I wanted to verify it. void legacyTypes() { /* character types */ char k_char = 'a'; //Signedness --> signed & unsigned signed char k_char_s = 'a'; unsigned char k_char_u = 'a'; /* integer types */ int k_int = 1; /* Same as "signed int" */ //Signedness --> signed & unsigned signed int k_int_s = -2; unsigned int k_int_u = 3; //Size --> short, _____, long, long long short int k_s_int = 4; long int k_l_int = 5; long long int k_ll_int = 6; /* real number types */ float k_float = 7; double k_double = 8; } I compiled it on a 32-Bit machine using minGW C compiler _legacyTypes: pushl %ebp movl %esp, %ebp subl $48, %esp movb $97, -1(%ebp) # char movb $97, -2(%ebp) # signed char movb $97, -3(%ebp) # unsigned char movl $1, -8(%ebp) # int movl $-2, -12(%ebp)# signed int movl $3, -16(%ebp) # unsigned int movw $4, -18(%ebp) # short int movl $5, -24(%ebp) # long int movl $6, -32(%ebp) # long long int movl $0, -28(%ebp) movl $0x40e00000, %eax movl %eax, -36(%ebp) fldl LC2 fstpl -48(%ebp) leave ret I compiled the same code on 64-Bit processor (Intel Core 2 Duo) on GCC (linux) legacyTypes: .LFB2: .cfi_startproc pushq %rbp .cfi_def_cfa_offset 16 movq %rsp, %rbp .cfi_offset 6, -16 .cfi_def_cfa_register 6 movb $97, -1(%rbp) # char movb $97, -2(%rbp) # signed char movb $97, -3(%rbp) # unsigned char movl $1, -12(%rbp) # int movl $-2, -16(%rbp)# signed int movl $3, -20(%rbp) # unsigned int movw $4, -6(%rbp) # short int movq $5, -32(%rbp) # long int movq $6, -40(%rbp) # long long int movl $0x40e00000, %eax movl %eax, -24(%rbp) movabsq $4620693217682128896, %rax movq %rax, -48(%rbp) leave ret Observations char, signed char, unsigned char, int, unsigned int, signed int, short int, unsigned short int, signed short int all occupy same no. of bytes on both 32-Bit & 64-Bit Processor. The only change is in long int & long long int both of these occupy 32-bit on 32-bit machine & 64-bit on 64-bit machine. And also the pointers, which take 32-bit on 32-bit CPU & 64-bit on 64-bit CPU. Questions: I cannot say, what the books say is wrong. But I'm missing something here. What exactly does "Variable types are machine dependent mean?" As you can see, There is no difference between instructions for unsigned & signed numbers. Then how come the range of numbers that can be addressed using both is different? I was reading http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2511246/how-to-maintain-fixed-size-of-c-variable-types-over-different-machines I didn't get the purpose of the question or their answers. What maintaining fixed size? They all are the same. I didn't understand how those answers are going to ensure the same size.

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • algorithm q: Fuzzy matching of structured data

    - by user86432
    I have a fairly small corpus of structured records sitting in a database. Given a tiny fraction of the information contained in a single record, submitted via a web form (so structured in the same way as the table schema), (let us call it the test record) I need to quickly draw up a list of the records that are the most likely matches for the test record, as well as provide a confidence estimate of how closely the search terms match a record. The primary purpose of this search is to discover whether someone is attempting to input a record that is duplicate to one in the corpus. There is a reasonable chance that the test record will be a dupe, and a reasonable chance the test record will not be a dupe. The records are about 12000 bytes wide and the total count of records is about 150,000. There are 110 columns in the table schema and 95% of searches will be on the top 5% most commonly searched columns. The data is stuff like names, addresses, telephone numbers, and other industry specific numbers. In both the corpus and the test record it is entered by hand and is semistructured within an individual field. You might at first blush say "weight the columns by hand and match word tokens within them", but it's not so easy. I thought so too: if I get a telephone number I thought that would indicate a perfect match. The problem is that there isn't a single field in the form whose token frequency does not vary by orders of magnitude. A telephone number might appear 100 times in the corpus or 1 time in the corpus. The same goes for any other field. This makes weighting at the field level impractical. I need a more fine-grained approach to get decent matching. My initial plan was to create a hash of hashes, top level being the fieldname. Then I would select all of the information from the corpus for a given field, attempt to clean up the data contained in it, and tokenize the sanitized data, hashing the tokens at the second level, with the tokens as keys and frequency as value. I would use the frequency count as a weight: the higher the frequency of a token in the reference corpus, the less weight I attach to that token if it is found in the test record. My first question is for the statisticians in the room: how would I use the frequency as a weight? Is there a precise mathematical relationship between n, the number of records, f(t), the frequency with which a token t appeared in the corpus, the probability o that a record is an original and not a duplicate, and the probability p that the test record is really a record x given the test and x contain the same t in the same field? How about the relationship for multiple token matches across multiple fields? Since I sincerely doubt that there is, is there anything that gets me close but is better than a completely arbitrary hack full of magic factors? Barring that, has anyone got a way to do this? I'm especially keen on other suggestions that do not involve maintaining another table in the database, such as a token frequency lookup table :). This is my first post on StackOverflow, thanks in advance for any replies you may see fit to give.

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  • Implementing a scalable and high-performing web app

    - by Christopher McCann
    I have asked a few questions on here before about various things relating to this but this is more of a consolidation question as I would like to check I have got the gist of everything. I am in the middle of developing a social media web app and although I have a lot of experience coding in Java and in PHP I am trying things a bit different this time. I have modularised each component of the application. So for example one component of the application allows users to private message each other and I have split this off into its own private messaging service. I have also created a user data service the purpose of which is to return data about the user for example their name, address, age etc etc from the database. Their is also another service, the friends service, which will work off the neo4j database to create a social graph. My reason for doing all this is to allow me up to update seperate modules when I need to - so while they mostly all run off MySQL right now I could move one to Cassandra later if I thought it approriate. The actual code of the web app is really just used for the final construction. The modules behind it dont really follow any strict REST or SOAP protocol. Basically each method on our API is turned into a PHP procedural script. This then may make calls to other back-end code which tends to be OO. The web app makes CURL requests to these pages and POSTs data to them or GETs data from them. These pages then return JSON where data is required. I'm still a little mixed up about how I actually identify which user is logged in at that moment. Do I just use sessions for that? Like if we called the get-messages.php script which equates to the getMessages() method for that user - returning all the private messages for that user - how would the back-end code know which user it is as posting the users ID to the script would not be secure. Anyone could do that and get all the messages. So I thought I would use sessions for it. Am I correct on this? Can anyone spot any other problems with what I am doing here? Thanks

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  • TDD - beginner problems and stumbling blocks

    - by Noufal Ibrahim
    While I've written unit tests for most of the code I've done, I only recently got my hands on a copy of TDD by example by Kent Beck. I have always regretted certain design decisions I made since they prevented the application from being 'testable'. I read through the book and while some of it looks alien, I felt that I could manage it and decided to try it out on my current project which is basically a client/server system where the two pieces communicate via. USB. One on the gadget and the other on the host. The application is in Python. I started off and very soon got entangled in a mess of rewrites and tiny tests which I later figured didn't really test anything. I threw away most of them and and now have a working application for which the tests have all coagulated into just 2. Based on my experiences, I have a few questions which I'd like to ask. I gained some information from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1146218/new-to-tdd-are-there-sample-applications-with-tests-to-show-how-to-do-tdd but have some specific questions which I'd like answers to/discussion on. Kent Beck uses a list which he adds to and strikes out from to guide the development process. How do you make such a list? I initially had a few items like "server should start up", "server should abort if channel is not available" etc. but they got mixed and finally now, it's just something like "client should be able to connect to server" (which subsumed server startup etc.). How do you handle rewrites? I initially selected a half duplex system based on named pipes so that I could develop the application logic on my own machine and then later add the USB communication part. It them moved to become a socket based thing and then moved from using raw sockets to using the Python SocketServer module. Each time things changed, I found that I had to rewrite considerable parts of the tests which was annoying. I'd figured that the tests would be a somewhat invariable guide during my development. They just felt like more code to handle. I needed a client and a server to communicate through the channel to test either side. I could mock one of the sides to test the other but then the whole channel wouldn't be tested and I worry that I'd miss that. This detracted from the whole red/green/refactor rhythm. Is this just lack of experience or am I doing something wrong? The "Fake it till you make it" left me with a lot of messy code that I later spent a lot of time to refactor and clean up. Is this the way things work? At the end of the session, I now have my client and server running with around 3 or 4 unit tests. It took me around a week to do it. I think I could have done it in a day if I were using the unit tests after code way. I fail to see the gain. I'm looking for comments and advice from people who have implemented large non trivial projects completely (or almost completely) using this methodology. It makes sense to me to follow the way after I have something already running and want to add a new feature but doing it from scratch seems to tiresome and not worth the effort. P.S. : Please let me know if this should be community wiki and I'll mark it like that. Update 0 : All the answers were equally helpful. I picked the one I did because it resonated with my experiences the most. Update 1: Practice Practice Practice!

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  • JNI cached jclass global reference variables being garbage collected?

    - by bubbadoughball
    I'm working in the JNI Invocation API, calling into Java from C. I have some upfront initialization to cache 30+ Java classes into global references. The results of FindClass are passed into NewGlobalRef to acquire a global reference to the class. I'm caching these class variables to reuse them later. I have 30+ global references to classes (and 30+ global methodIDs for the class constructors). In the following sample, I've removed exception handling as well as JNI invocation for the purpose of shortening the code snippet. My working code has exception checks after every JNI call and I'm running with -Xcheck:jni. Here's the snippet: jclass aClass; jclass bClass; jmethodID aCtor; jmethodID bCtor; void getGlobalRef(const char* clazz, jclass* globalClass) { jclass local = (*jenv)->FindClass(jenv,clazz); if (local) { *globalClass = (jclass) (*jenv)->NewGlobalRef(jenv,local); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,local); } } methodID getMethodID(jclass clazz, const char* method, const char* sig) { return (*jenv)->GetMethodID(jenv,clazz,method,sig); } void initializeJNI() { getGlobalRef("MyProj/Testclass1", &aclass); getGlobalRef("MyProj/Testclass2", &bclass); . . aCtor = getMethodID(aclass,"<init>","()V"); bCtor = getMethodID(bclass,"<init>","(I)V"); } The initializeJNI() function sets the global references for jclasses and method IDs for constructors as well as some jfieldID's and some initialization of C data structures. After initialization, when I call into a JNI function using some of the cached jclasses and ctor jmethodIDs, I get a bad global or local reference calling reported from the -Xcheck:jni. In gdb, I break at the last line of initializeJNI(), and print all jclasses and jmethodIDs and the ones causing problems look to have been turned into garbage or garbage-collected (i.e. 0x00 or 0x06). Is it possible for global references to be gc'ed? Any suggestions?

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  • Destroying a record via RJS TemplateError (Called ID for nil...)

    - by bgadoci
    I am trying to destroy a record in my table via RJS and having some trouble. I have successfully implemented this before so can't quite understand what is not working here. Here is the setup: I am trying to allow a user of my app to select an answer from another user as the 'winning' answer to their question. Much like StackOverflow does. I am calling this selected answer 'winner'. class Winner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question validates_uniqueness_of :user_id, :scope => [:question_id] end I'll spare you the reverse has_many associations but I believe they are correct (I am using has_many with the validation as I might want to allow for multiple later). Also, think of site like an answer to the question. My link calling the destroy action of the WinnersController is located in the /views/winners/_winner.html.erb and has the following code: <% div_for winner do %> Selected <br/> <%=link_to_remote "Destroy", :url => winner, :method => :delete %> <% end %> This partial is being called by another partial `/views/sites/_site.html.erb and is located in this code block: <% if site.winners.blank? %> <% remote_form_for [site, Winner.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :question_id, :value => @question.id %> <%= f.hidden_field :winner, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "Select This Answer" %> Make sure you unselect any previously selected answers. <% end %> <% else %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> <%= render :partial => site.winners%> </div> <% end %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> </div> And the /views/sites/_site.html.erb partial is being called in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. My WinnersController#destroy action is the following: def destroy @winner = Winner.find(params[:id]) @winner.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to Question.find(params[:post_id]) } format.js end end And my /views/winners/destroy.js.rjs code is the following: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade I am getting the following error and not really sure where I am going wrong: Processing WinnersController#destroy (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-30 16:05:48) [DELETE] Parameters: {"authenticity_token"=>"nn1Wwr2PZiS2jLgCZQDLidkntwbGzayEoHWwR087AfE=", "id"=>"24", "_"=>""} Rendering winners/destroy ActionView::TemplateError (Called id for nil, which would mistakenly be 4 -- if you really wanted the id of nil, use object_id) on line #1 of app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs: 1: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' Rendered rescues/_trace (137.1ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.3ms) Rendering rescues/layout (internal_server_error)

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  • Help with refactoring PHP code

    - by Richard Knop
    I had some troubles implementing Lawler's algorithm but thanks to SO and a bounty of 200 reputation I finally managed to write a working implementation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2466928/lawlers-algorithm-implementation-assistance I feel like I'm using too many variables and loops there though so I am trying to refactor the code. It should be simpler and shorter yet remain readable. Does it make sense to make a class for this? Any advice or even help with refactoring this piece of code is welcomed: <?php /* * @name Lawler's algorithm PHP implementation * @desc This algorithm calculates an optimal schedule of jobs to be * processed on a single machine (in reversed order) while taking * into consideration any precedence constraints. * @author Richard Knop * */ $jobs = array(1 => array('processingTime' => 2, 'dueDate' => 3), 2 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 15), 3 => array('processingTime' => 4, 'dueDate' => 9), 4 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 16), 5 => array('processingTime' => 5, 'dueDate' => 12), 6 => array('processingTime' => 7, 'dueDate' => 20), 7 => array('processingTime' => 5, 'dueDate' => 27), 8 => array('processingTime' => 6, 'dueDate' => 40), 9 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 10)); // precedence constrainst, i.e job 2 must be completed before job 5 etc $successors = array(2=>5, 7=>9); $n = count($jobs); $optimalSchedule = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { // jobs not required to precede any other job $arr = array(); foreach ($jobs as $k => $v) { if (false === array_key_exists($k, $successors)) { $arr[] = $k; } } // calculate total processing time $totalProcessingTime = 0; foreach ($jobs as $k => $v) { if (true === array_key_exists($k, $arr)) { $totalProcessingTime += $v['processingTime']; } } // find the job that will go to the end of the optimal schedule array $min = null; $x = 0; $lastKey = null; foreach($arr as $k) { $x = $totalProcessingTime - $jobs[$k]['dueDate']; if (null === $min || $x < $min) { $min = $x; $lastKey = $k; } } // add the job to the optimal schedule array $optimalSchedule[$lastKey] = $jobs[$lastKey]; // remove job from the jobs array unset($jobs[$lastKey]); // remove precedence constraint from the successors array if needed if (true === in_array($lastKey, $successors)) { foreach ($successors as $k => $v) { if ($lastKey === $v) { unset($successors[$k]); } } } } // reverse the optimal schedule array and preserve keys $optimalSchedule = array_reverse($optimalSchedule, true); // add tardiness to the array $i = 0; foreach ($optimalSchedule as $k => $v) { $optimalSchedule[$k]['tardiness'] = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($optimalSchedule as $k2 => $v2) { if ($j <= $i) { $optimalSchedule[$k]['tardiness'] += $v2['processingTime']; } $j++; } $i++; } echo '<pre>'; print_r($optimalSchedule); echo '</pre>';

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  • jQuery UI dialog + WebKit + HTML response with script

    - by Anthony Koval'
    Once again I am faced with a great problem! :) So, here is the stuff: on the client side, I have a link. By clicking on it, jQuery makes a request to the server, gets response as HTML content, then popups UI dialog with that content. Here is the code of the request-function: function preview(){ $.ajax({ url: "/api/builder/", type: "post", //dataType: "html", data: {"script_tpl": $("#widget_code").text(), "widgets": $.toJSON(mwidgets), "widx": "0"}, success: function(data){ //console.log(data) $("#previewArea").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 600, modal: true, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog('destroy'); } } }); //console.log(data.toString()); $('#previewArea').attr("innerHTML", data.toString()); $("#previewArea").dialog("open"); }, error: function(){ console.log("shit happens"); } }) } The response (data) is: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <script type="text/javascript">var smakly_widget_sid = 0 ,widgets = [{"cols": "2","rows": "2","div_id": "smakly_widget","wid": "0","smakly_style": "small_image",}, ] </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/media/js/smak/smakme.js"></script> </head> <body> preview <div id="smakly_widget" style="width:560px;height:550px"> </div> </body> </html> As you see, there is a script to load: smakme.js, somehow it doesn't execute in WebKit-based browsers (I tried in Safari and Chrome), but in Firefox, Internet Explorer and Opera it works as expected! Here is that script: String.prototype.format = function(){ var pattern = /\{\d+\}/g; var args = arguments; return this.replace(pattern, function(capture){ return args[capture.match(/\d+/)]; }); } var turl = "/widget" var widgetCtrl = new(function(){ this.render_widget = function (w, content){ $("#" + w.div_id).append(content); } this.build_widgets = function(){ for (var widx in widgets){ var w = widgets[widx], iurl = '{0}?sid={1}&wid={2}&w={3}&h={4}&referer=http://ya.ru&thrash={5}'.format( turl, smakly_widget_sid, w.wid, w.cols, w.rows, Math.floor(Math.random()*1000).toString()), content = $('<iframe src="{0}" width="100%" height="100%"></iframe>'.format(iurl)); this.render_widget(w, content); } } }) $(document).ready(function(){ widgetCtrl.build_widgets(); }) Is that some security issue, or anything else?

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  • How to draw a filled envelop like a cone on OpenGL (using GLUT)?

    - by ashishsony
    Hi, I am relatively new to OpenGL programming...currently involved in a project that uses freeglut for opengl rendering... I need to draw an envelop looking like a cone (2D) that has to be filled with some color and some transparency applied. Is the freeglut toolkit equipped with such an inbuilt functionality to draw filled geometries(or some trick)?? or is there some other api that has an inbuilt support for filled up geometries.. Thanks. Best Regards. Edit1: just to clarify the 2D cone thing... the envelop is the graphical interpretation of the coverage area of an aircraft during interception(of an enemy aircraft)...that resembles a sector of a circle..i should have mentioned sector instead.. and glutSolidCone doesnot help me as i want to draw a filled sector of a circle...which i have already done...what remains to do is to fill it with some color... how to fill geometries with color in opengl?? Thanks. Edit2: Ok thanks for replying...all the answers posted to this questions can work for my problem in a way.. But i would definitely would want to know a way how to fill a geometry with some color. Say if i want to draw an envelop which is a parabola...in that case there would be no default glut function to actually draw a filled parabola(or is there any??).. So to generalise this question...how to draw a custom geometry in some solid color?? Thanks. Edit3: The answer that mstrobl posted works for GL_TRIANGLES but for such a code: glBegin(GL_LINE_STRIP); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 0.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(200.0, 0.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(200.0, 200.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 200.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 0.0, 0.0); glEnd(); which draws a square...only a wired square is drawn...i need to fill it with blue color. anyway to do it? if i put some drawing commands for a closed curve..like a pie..and i need to fill it with a color is there a way to make it possible... i dont know how its possible for GL_TRIANGLES... but how to do it for any closed curve?? Thanks.

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  • Replace conditional with polymorphism refactoring or similar?

    - by Anders Svensson
    Hi, I have tried to ask a variant of this question before. I got some helpful answers, but still nothing that felt quite right to me. It seems to me this shouldn't really be that hard a nut to crack, but I'm not able to find an elegant simple solution. (Here's my previous post, but please try to look at the problem stated here as procedural code first so as not to be influenced by the earlier explanation which seemed to lead to very complicated solutions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2772858/design-pattern-for-cost-calculator-app ) Basically, the problem is to create a calculator for hours needed for projects that can contain a number of services. In this case "writing" and "analysis". The hours are calculated differently for the different services: writing is calculated by multiplying a "per product" hour rate with the number of products, and the more products are included in the project, the lower the hour rate is, but the total number of hours is accumulated progressively (i.e. for a medium-sized project you take both the small range pricing and then add the medium range pricing up to the number of actual products). Whereas for analysis it's much simpler, it is just a bulk rate for each size range. How would you be able to refactor this into an elegant and preferably simple object-oriented version (please note that I would never write it like this in a purely procedural manner, this is just to show the problem in another way succinctly). I have been thinking in terms of factory, strategy and decorator patterns, but can't get any to work well. (I read Head First Design Patterns a while back, and both the decorator and factory patterns described have some similarities to this problem, but I have trouble seeing them as good solutions as stated there. The decorator example seems very complicated for just adding condiments, but maybe it could work better here, I don't know. And the factory pattern example with the pizza factory...well it just seems to create such a ridiculous explosion of classes, at least in their example. I have found good use for factory patterns before, but I can't see how I could use it here without getting a really complicated set of classes) The main goal would be to only have to change in one place (loose coupling etc) if I were to add a new parameter (say another size, like XSMALL, and/or another service, like "Administration"). Here's the procedural code example: public class Conditional { private int _numberOfManuals; private string _serviceType; private const int SMALL = 2; private const int MEDIUM = 8; public int GetHours() { if (_numberOfManuals <= SMALL) { if (_serviceType == "writing") return 30 * _numberOfManuals; if (_serviceType == "analysis") return 10; } else if (_numberOfManuals <= MEDIUM) { if (_serviceType == "writing") return (SMALL * 30) + (20 * _numberOfManuals - SMALL); if (_serviceType == "analysis") return 20; } else //i.e. LARGE { if (_serviceType == "writing") return (SMALL * 30) + (20 * (MEDIUM - SMALL)) + (10 * _numberOfManuals - MEDIUM); if (_serviceType == "analysis") return 30; } return 0; //Just a default fallback for this contrived example } } All replies are appreciated! I hope someone has a really elegant solution to this problem that I actually thought from the beginning would be really simple... Regards, Anders

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  • How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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