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  • AFNetworking PostPath php Parameters are null

    - by Alejandro Escobar
    I am trying to send a username and password from an iOS app using AFNetworking framework to a php script. The iOS app continues to receive status code 401 which I defined to be "not enough parameters". I have tried returning the "username" from the php script to the iOS app and receive . Based on what I've been investigating so far, it seems as though: 1) The php script is not decoding the POST parameters properly 2) The iOS app is not sending the POST parameters properly The following is the iOS function - (IBAction)startLoginProcess:(id)sender { NSString *usernameField = usernameTextField.text; NSString *passwordField = passwordTextField.text; NSDictionary *parameters = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:usernameField, @"username", passwordField, @"password", nil]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~alejandroe1790/edella_admin/"]; AFHTTPClient *httpClient = [[AFHTTPClient alloc] initWithBaseURL:url]; [httpClient defaultValueForHeader:@"Accept"]; [httpClient setParameterEncoding:AFJSONParameterEncoding]; [httpClient postPath:@"login.php" parameters:parameters success:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, id response) { NSLog(@"operation hasAcceptableStatusCode: %d", [operation.response statusCode]); } failure:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, NSError *error) { NSLog(@"Error with request"); NSLog(@"%@",[error localizedDescription]); }]; } The following is the php script function checkLogin() { // Check for required parameters if (isset($_POST["username"]) && isset($_POST["password"])) { //Put parameters into local variables $username = $_POST["username"]; $password = $_POST["password"]; $stmt = $this->db->prepare("SELECT Password FROM Admin WHERE Username=?"); $stmt->bind_param('s', $username); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($resultpassword); while ($stmt->fetch()) { break; } $stmt->close(); // Username or password invalid if ($password == $resultpassword) { sendResponse(100, 'Login successful'); return true; } else { sendResponse(400, 'Invalid Username or Password'); return false; } } sendResponse(401, 'Not enough parameters'); return false; } I feel like I may be missing something. Any assistance would be great.

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  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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  • How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

    - by Glacius
    Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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  • Log4j: Issues about the FallbackErrorHandler

    - by rdogpink
    I am working on a client-server-application and wanted to implement a flexible Loggingframework, so I chose log4j, which doesn´t really evolve anymore, but it is still handy framework. Because the Logging happens along the network, i wanted a solution for the case, that the network drive isn´t available, so the Logger has to change its destination file(s). Now I wanted to use the FallbackErrorHandler (configured with a XML-File) from the Log4j-library and the implementation worked: When my network drive isn´t available, it switches to a local Logfile, so no logging should be lost. But I headded two problems since yesterday and couldn´t figure or find out, how to solve it. No return to initial Logging Configuration: When the network drive is on again and the Logger could write to the old destinations, log4j still logs at the local drive and I can´t figure out, how to notify the original (primary) Logger to start again. I also tried to attach a second Appender to the ErrorHandler, which should mirror the failed primary Logger, that it tries to write on the network destination and when the network is on again, it logs in both files, on the local and on the network drive. But unfortunately it didn´t work out, I only got a failure message that the ErrorHandler-content doesn´t fit. log4j:WARN The content of element type "errorHandler" must match "(param*,root-ref?,logger-ref*,appender-ref?)". This is the responsible code. <appender name="TraceAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.DailyRollingFileAppender"> <!-- The second appender-ref "TestAppender" leads to the error. --> <errorHandler class="org.apache.log4j.varia.FallbackErrorHandler"> <logger-ref ref="com.idoh"/> <appender-ref ref="TraceFallbackAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="TestAppender"/> </errorHandler> <param name="datePattern" value=".yyyy-MM-dd" /> <param name="file" value="logs/Trace.txt" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-6r %d{HH:mm:ss,SSS} [%t] %-5p - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> So, how could I trigger log4j to reset to initial configuration or hold a second appender parallel to the "Local-Logger". My Application should work by itself and shouldn´t have to be restarted often. First Error message is swallowed: I recognized, that the first message, which leads to the switching between the primary logger and the FallbackErrorHandler (for example a logging-request to a readonly-File), is swallowed, so neither the primary logger logs it (because it can´t) nor the backup-Logger knows what it missed. So anybody else ran in this problem and could solve it? Or has any suggestions?

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  • SVG via dynamic XML+XSL

    - by Daniel
    This is a bit of a vague notion which I have been running over in my head, and which I am very curious if there is an elegant method of solving. Perhaps it should be taken as a thought experiment. Imagine you have an XML schema with a corresponding XSL transform, which renders the XML as SVG in the browser. The XSL generates SVG with appropriate Javascript handlers that, ultimately, implement editing-like functionality such that properties of the objects or their locations on the SVG canvas can be edited by the user. For instance, an element can be dragged from one location to another. Now, this isn't particularly difficult - the drag/drop example is simply a matter of changing the (x,y) coordinates of the SVG object, or a resize operation would be a simple matter of changing its width or height. But is there an elegant way to have Javascript work on the DOM of the source XML document instead of the rendered SVG? Why, you ask? Well, imagine you have very complex XSL transforms, where the modification of one property results in complex changes to the SVG. You want to maintain simplicity in your Javascript code, but also a simple way to persist the modified XML back to the server. Some possibilities of how this may function: After modification of the source DOM, simply re-run the XSL transform and replace the original. Downside: brute force, potentially expensive operation. Create id/class naming conventions in the source and target XML/SVG so elements can be related back to each other, and do an XSL transform on only a subset of the new DOM. In other words, modify temporary DOM, apply XSL to it, remove changed elements from SVG, and insert the new one. Downside: May not be possible to apply XSL to temporary in-browser DOMs(?). Also, perhaps a bit convoluted or ugly to maintain. I think that it may be possible to come up with a framework that handles the second scenario, but the challenge would be making it lightweight and not heavily tied to the actual XML schema. Any ideas or other possibilities? Or is there maybe an existing method of doing this which I'm not aware of? UPDATE: To clarify, as I mentioned in a comment below, this aids in separating the draw code from the edit code. For a more concrete example of how this is useful, imagine an element which determines how it is drawn dependent on the value of a property of an adjacent element. It's better to condense that logic directly in the draw code instead of also duplicating it in the edit code.

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  • A standard event messaging system with AJAX?

    - by Gutzofter
    Is there any standards or messaging framework for AJAX? Right now I have a single page that loads content using Ajax. Because I had a complex form for data entry as part of my content, I need to validate certain events that can occur in my form. So after some adjustments driven by my tests: asyncShould("search customer list click", 3, function() { stop(1000); $('#content').show(); var forCustomerList = newCustomerListRequest(); var forShipAndCharge = newShipAndChargeRequest(forCustomerList); forCustomerList.page = '../../vt/' + forCustomerList.page; forShipAndCharge.page = 'helpers/helper.php'; forShipAndCharge.data = { 'action': 'shipAndCharge', 'DB': '11001' }; var originalComplete = forShipAndCharge.complete; forShipAndCharge.complete = function(xhr, status) { originalComplete(xhr, status); ok($('#customer_edit').is(":visible"), 'Shows customer editor'); $('#search').click(); ok($('#customer_list').is(":visible"), 'Shows customer list'); ok($('#customer_edit').is(":hidden"), 'Does not show customer editor'); start(); }; testController.getContent(forShipAndCharge); }); Here is the controller for getting content: getContent: function (request) { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: request.page, dataType: 'json', data: request.data, async: request.async, success: request.success, complete: request.complete }); }, And here is the request event: function newShipAndChargeRequest(serverRequest) { var that = { serverRequest: serverRequest, page: 'nodes/orders/sc.php', data: 'customer_id=-1', complete: errorHandler, success: function(msg) { shipAndChargeHandler(msg); initWhenCustomer(that.serverRequest); }, async: true }; return that; } And here is a success handler: function shipAndChargeHandler(msg) { $('.contentContainer').html(msg.html); if (msg.status == 'flash') { flash(msg.flash); } } And on my server side I end up with a JSON structure that looks like this: $message['status'] = 'success'; $message['data'] = array(); $message['flash'] = ''; $message['html'] = ''; echo json_encode($message); So now loading content consists of two parts: HTML, this is the presentation of the form. DATA, this is any data that needs be loaded for the form FLASH, any validation or server errors STATUS tells client what happened on server. My question is: Is this a valid way to handle event messaging on the client-side or am I going down a path of heartache and pain?

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  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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  • Twitter Bootstrap: How to use containers and rows

    - by StackOverflowNewbie
    Assume the following layout: I'm trying to learn how to use Twitter's Bootstrap. What should the general structure of the framework's markup be? Is it this: <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span12"> // Outside link mark up here </div> </div> </div> <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span1"> // Logo mark up here </div> <div class="span4"> // Main nav mark up here </div> <div class="span3 offset4"> // User nav mark up here </div> </div> </div> <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span3"> // Left sidebar mark up here </div> <div class="span6"> <div class="span6"> // Breadcrumb mark up here </div> <div class="span6"> // Main content mark up here </div> </div> <div class="span3"> // Right sidebar mark up here </div> </div> </div> <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span3 offset9"> // Footer link mark up here </div> </div> </div>

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  • Asp.net - Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using '<pages enableEv

    - by Jangwenyi
    I am getting the following error when I post back a page from the client-side. I have javascript code that modifies an asp:listbox on the client side. How do we fix this? Error details below: Server Error in '/XXX' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation.] System.Web.UI.ClientScriptManager.ValidateEvent(String uniqueId, String argument) +2132728 System.Web.UI.Control.ValidateEvent(String uniqueID, String eventArgument) +108 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListBox.LoadPostData(String postDataKey, NameValueCollection postCollection) +274 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ListBox.System.Web.UI.IPostBackDataHandler.LoadPostData(String postDataKey, NameValueCollection postCollection) +11 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessPostData(NameValueCollection postData, Boolean fBeforeLoad) +353 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1194 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.1433; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.1433

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Where do you put your unit test?

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewers?

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • Sync services not actually syncing

    - by Paul Mrozowski
    I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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  • TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

    - by Tim K
    Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • Generics vs Object performance

    - by Risho
    I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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  • jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

    - by Sebhael
    Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • What web platform is right for me?

    - by egervari
    I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • Learning to implement DIC in MVC

    - by Tom
    I am learning to apply DIC to MVC project. So, I have sketched this DDD-ish DIC-ready-ish layout to my best understanding. I have read many blogs articles wikis for the last few days. However, I am not confident about implementing it correctly. Could you please demonstrate to me how to put them into DIC the proper way? I prefer Ninject or Windsor after all the readings, but anyDIC will do as long as I can get the correct idea how to do it. Web controller... public class AccountBriefingController { //create private IAccountServices accountServices { get; set; } public AccountBriefingController(IAccountServices accsrv) accountServices = accsrv; } //do work public ActionResult AccountBriefing(string userid, int days) { //get days of transaction records for this user BriefingViewModel model = AccountServices.GetBriefing(userid, days); return View(model); } } View model ... public class BriefingViewModel { //from user repository public string UserId { get; set; } public string AccountNumber {get; set;} public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //from account repository public string Credits { get; set; } public List<string> Transactions { get; set; } } Service layer ... public interface IAccountServices { BriefingViewModel GetBriefing(); } public class AccountServices { //create private IUserRepository userRepo {get; set;} private IAccountRepository accRepo {get; set;} public AccountServices(UserRepository ur, AccountRepository ar) { userRepo = ur; accRepo = ar; } //do work public BriefingViewModel GetBriefing(string userid, int days) { var model = new BriefingViewModel(); //<---is that okay to new a model here?? var user = userRepo.GetUser(userid); if(user != null) { model.UserId = userid; model.AccountNumber = user.AccountNumber; model.FirstName = user.FirstName; model.LastName = user.LastName; //account records model.Credits = accRepo.GetUserCredits(userid); model.Transactions = accRepo.GetUserTransactions(userid, days); } return model; } } Domain layer and data models... public interface IUserRepository { UserDataModel GetUser(userid); } public interface IAccountRepository { List<string> GetUserTransactions(userid, days); int GetUserCredits(userid); } // Entity Framework DBContext goes under here Please point out if my implementation is wrong, e.g.I can feel in AccountServices-GetBriefing - new BriefingViewModel() seems wrong to me, but I don't know how to fit the stud into DIC? Thank you very much for your help!

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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