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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • Finding parents where child collection does not contain an item with a specific property value

    - by Colin Bowern
    I am trying to get a list of parents where the child collection does not contain an item of a specific type. The LINQ equivalent would be something like: dataset.Where(x => x.Items.FirstOrDefault(y => y.Type.Code == "ABC") == null) The object model is Parent Child (Items) Type Code If Parent is my aggregate root, how would I model this in NHibernate criteria/query? Here's my first attempt: var results = session.CreateCriteria<Parent>() .CreateCriteria("Items") .CreateCriteria("Type") .Add(Restrictions.Not(Restrictions.Eq("Code", "ABC"))) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.DistinctRootEntity) .List<Parent>(); This doesn't seem to return the right entities - it just returns them all.

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  • problem with jquery : minipulating val() property of element

    - by P4ul
    Hi, Please help! I have some form elements in a div on a page: <div id="box"> <div id="template"> <div> <label for="username">Username</label> <input type="text" class="username" name="username[]" value="" / > <label for="hostname">hostname</label> <input type="text" name="hostname[]" value=""> </div> </div> </div> using jquery I would like to take a copy of #template, manipulate the values of the inputs and insert it after #template so the result would look something like: <div id="box"> <div id="template"> <div> <label for="username">Username</label> <input type="text" class="username" name="username[]" value="" / > <label for="hostname">hostname</label> <input type="text" name="hostname[]" value=""> </div> </div> <div> <label for="username">Username</label> <input type="text" class="username" name="username[]" value="paul" / > <label for="hostname">hostname</label> <input type="text" name="hostname[]" value="paul"> </div> </div> I am probably going about this the wrong way but the following test bit of javascript code run in firebug on the page does not seem to change the values of the inputs. var cp = $('#template').clone(); cp.children().children().each( function(i,d){ if( d.localName == 'INPUT' ){ $(d).val('paul'); //.css('background-color', 'red'); } }); $("#box").append(cp.html()); although if I uncomment "//.css('background-color', 'red');" the inputs will turn red.

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  • How do app servers inject into private fields?

    - by cibercitizen1
    I saw this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2021716/inject-into-private-package-or-public-field-or-provide-a-setter about how to manually inject into annotated private fields (The way is adding setters or through a constructor) But, the point is how do an application server (like glassfish, axis2, jboss, ...) is able to inject into a final private field (without adding setters or constructors to the user class)? Quoting the cited question: public SomeClass { @Inject private SomeResource resource; } Do they use a customized JVM (not the standard one) that allows to access private fields? Thanks

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  • Finding a 3rd party QWidget with injected code & QWidget::find(hwnd)

    - by David Menard
    Hey, I have a Qt Dll wich I inject into a third-party Application using windows detours library: if(!DetourCreateProcessWithDll( Path, NULL, NULL, NULL, TRUE, CREATE_DEFAULT_ERROR_MODE | CREATE_SUSPENDED, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi, "C:\\Program Files\\Microsoft Research\\Detours Express 2.1\\bin\\detoured.dll", "C:\\Users\\Dave\\Documents\\Visual Studio 2008\\Projects\\XOR\\Debug\\XOR.dll", NULL)) and then I set a system-wide hook to intercept window creation: HHOOK h_hook = ::SetWindowsHookEx(WH_CBT, (HOOKPROC)CBTProc, Status::getInstance()->getXORInstance(), 0); Where XOR is my programs name, and Status::getInstance() is a Singleton where I keep globals. In my CBTProc callback, I want to intercept all windows that are QWidgets: HWND hwnd= FindWindow(L"QWidget", NULL); which works well, since I get a corresponding HWND (I checked with Spy++) Then, I want to get a pointer to the QWidget, so I can use its functions: QWidget* q = QWidget::find(hwnd); but here's the problem, the returned pointer is always 0. Am I not injecting my code into the process properly? Or am I not using QWidget::find() as I should? Thanks, Dave EDIT:If i change the QWidget::find() function to an exported function of my DLL, after setting the hooks (so I can set and catch a breakpoint), QWidgetPrivate::mapper is NULL.

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  • angular js scope property is undefined

    - by user2071301
    why is $scope.orderBy undefined? Shouldnt it be "test" ? http://jsfiddle.net/XB4QA/4/ var app = angular.module("Foo", []); app.directive("two", function () { return { scope: { orderBy: '@' }, restrict: 'E', transclude: true, controller: function ($scope, $element, $attrs) { console.log($scope.orderBy); // is undefined, why? }, template: '<div></div>', replace: true }; }); <div ng-app="Foo"> <two order-by="test">test</two> </div>

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  • flex: entering itemEditor when no value is assigned to data property in custom itemRenderer

    - by Markus
    Hi there, Im having a strange problem with my custom itemRenderer in the following Methode I assign the values to the cell. The problem is, when the side.element is still empty. In this case the itemEditor will not show up by default... override public function set data(side:Object):void{ super.data = side.element.toString(); choiceLabel.text = side.element.toString(); answer.selected = side.element.@answer; } Thanks for your help! Markus

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  • problem with RenderOuterTable property for .net 4.0 controls

    - by Mario
    According to the new 4.0 framework overview, one should be able to add the attrib RenderOuterTable="false" to a control that supports the attribute and see css friendly code be spit out - in other words no html tables. To test this, I threw a login control into a basic fresh webpage with the following code: <asp:Login ID="Login1" runat="server" RenderOuterTable="false"></asp:Login> The result? Crappy html table output, which supposedly doesn't happen with this attrib set to false. Here is the output: &lt;table cellpadding=&quot;0&quot;&gt; <tr> <td align="center" colspan="2">Log In</td> </tr><tr> <td align="right"><label for="MainContent_Login1_UserName">User Name:</label></td><td><input name="ctl00$MainContent$Login1$UserName" type="text" id="MainContent_Login1_UserName" /><span id="MainContent_Login1_UserNameRequired" title="User Name is required." style="visibility:hidden;">*</span></td>... Hopefully you get the point. Anyone know how to stop these controls from outputting tables? This is super annoying.

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  • Is is possible to programmatically change the resourceProviderFactoryType?

    - by Robert Massa
    I have a custom implementation of IResourceProvider and ResourceProviderFactory. Now the default way of making sure ASP.NET uses these custom types is to use the web.config and specify the factory like so: <globalization resourceProviderFactoryType="Product.Globalization.TranslationResourceProviderFactory" /> This works perfectly, except that in my resource provider I need database access. I want to use my IoC-container(Ninject) to inject the repositories needed to access this data into the CustomResourceProvider. But how am I going to do this? I have no control over the instantiation of the factory, so the factory can't get a reference to my IoC. Is there any way to register a custom provider programmatically, in for example the Global.asax?

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  • @OneToMany property null in Entity after (second) merge

    - by iNPUTmice
    Hi, I'm using JPA (with Hibernate) and Gilead in a GWT project. On the server side I have this method and I'm calling this method twice with the same "campaign". On the second call it throws a null pointer exception in line 4 "campaign.getTextAds()" public List<WrapperTextAd> getTextAds(WrapperCampaign campaign) { campaign = em.merge(campaign); System.out.println("getting textads for "+campaign.getName()); for(WrapperTextAd textad: campaign.getTextAds()) { //do nothing } return new ArrayList<WrapperTextAd>(campaign.getTextAds()); } The code in WrapperCampaign Entity looks like this @OneToMany(mappedBy="campaign") public Set<WrapperTextAd> getTextAds() { return this.textads; }

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  • NHibernate: Mapping IList property

    - by Anry
    I have a table Order, Transaction, Payment. Class Order has the properties: public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual DateTime Created { get; set; } ... I added properties: public virtual IList<Transaction> Transactions { get; set; } public virtual IList<Payment> Payments { get; set; } These properties contain a record of tables [Transaction] and [Payment]. How to keep these lists in the database?

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  • C# Reset a property

    - by Jeff
    I'm writing a Clone function for a non serializeable object.For most objects I don't care if they are shallow copied as I won't be making any changes to them. I start with a MemberwiseClone and this copies all the values and few objects like configuration dictionary over just fine but they are pointers. EAVEntity newClone = (EAVEntity) this.MemberwiseClone(); newClone.EntityStorageID = Guid.NewGuid(); newClone.Controls.Clear(); So how do I reset a pointer so I can make them not point at the same location?

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  • Using Factory to get Injected objects

    - by ryudice
    Is it good practice to have a Factory method to retrieve injected objects or is it OK to just use the factory method from the DI framework? I'm using structure map, should I just use ObjectFactory.GetInstance();, or should I create factory class and inside this class call ObjectFactory.GetInstance();? because if I call ObjectFactory.GetInstance(); in my classes I would be creating coupling to the DI framework? sorry if I'm being ignorant, I'm new to this concepts. Thanks!

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  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

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  • Error creating bean with name 'sessionFactory'

    - by Sunny Mate
    hi i am getting the following exception while running my application and my applicationContext.xml is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd"> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"> </property> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost/SureshDB"></property> <property name="username" value="root"></property> <property name="password" value="root"></property> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource" /> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect"> org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect </prop> </props> </property> <property name="mappingResources"> <list> <value>com/jsfcompref/register/UserTa.hbm.xml</value></list> </property></bean> <bean id="UserTaDAO" class="com.jsfcompref.register.UserTaDAO"> <property name="sessionFactory"> <ref bean="sessionFactory" /> </property> </bean> <bean id="UserTaService" class="com.jsfcompref.register.UserTaServiceImpl"> <property name="userTaDao"> <ref bean="UserTaDAO"/> </property> </bean> </beans> Error creating bean with name 'sessionFactory' defined in class path resource [applicationContext.xml]: Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.objectweb.asm.ClassVisitor.visit(IILjava/lang/String;Ljava/lang/String;[Ljava/lang/String;Ljava/lang/String;)V any suggestion would be heplful

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  • Help getting started with MEF

    - by SteveCl
    Hi, I was reading somewhere that with MEF I can simply drop a dll into a directory and my application (with some MEF magic) will be able to read it and execute the code in it? Hopefully only classes that implement an interface that I define?? Can someone help me to get going, with some links maybe for my problem. I've looked through some of the docs, but nothing seems to be what I'm after and its tricky when I don't know exactly what to search on... Thx S

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  • Passing constructor arguments when using StructureMap

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I'm using StructureMap for my DI. Imagine I have a class that takes 1 argument like: public class ProductProvider : IProductProvider { public ProductProvider(string connectionString) { .... } } I need to specify the "connectionString at run-time when I get an instance of IProductProvider. I have configured StructureMap as follows: ForRequestedType<IProductProvider>.TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<ProductProvider>(). WithCtorArgument("connectionString"); However, I don't want to call EqualTo("something...") method here as I need some facility to dynamically specify this value at run-time. My question is: how can I get an instance of IProductProvider by using ObjectFactory? Currently, I have something like: ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IProductProvider>(); But as you know, this doesn't work... Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Can I inject a SessionBean into a JEE AroundInvoke-Interceptor?

    - by Michael Locher
    I have an EAR with modules: foo-api.jar foo-impl.jar interceptor.jar In foo-api there is: @Local FooService // (interface of a local stateless session bean) In foo-impl there is: @Stateless FooServiceImpl implements FooService //(implementation of the foo service) In interceptor.jar I want public class BazInterceptor { @EJB private FooService foo; @AroundInvoke public Object intercept( final InvocationContext i) throws Exception { // do someting with foo service return i.proceed(); } The question is: Will a Java EE 5 compliant application server (e.g. JBoss 5) inject into the interceptor? If no, what is good strategy for accessing the session bean? To consider: Deployment ordering / race conditions

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  • Fluent-NHibernate - Component property attributes ignored by Convention

    - by BobTodd
    I have a component with a number of properties that have various attributes Normally when these attributes are added to a plain old domain object they are picked up by my custom AttributeConventions. For the Component properties they are not. Is there some extra wiring needed for these? e.g. public class Component { [Length(Max=50)] public virtual string Name {get; set;} } public class MyClass { public virtual Component Component {get; set;} [Length(Max=50)] public virtual string Color {get; set;} } I get a table MyClass with columns Color & ComponentName Color is an nvarchar(50) whilst ComponentName is an nvarchar(255) (the default)

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  • Can someone help me with this StructureMap error i'm getting?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to wire up a simple ASP.NET MVC2 controller class to my own LoggingService. Code compiles fine, but I get the following runtime error :- {"StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily System.Type, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"} what the? mscorlib ???? Here's some sample code of my wiring up .. protected void Application_Start() { MvcHandler.DisableMvcResponseHeader = true; BootstrapStructureMap(); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory( new StructureMapControllerFactory()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } private static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.For<ILoggingService>().Use<Log4NetLoggingService>()); } and finally the controller, simplified for this question ... public class SearchController : Controller { private readonly ILoggingService _log { get; set; } public SearchController(ILoggingService loggingService) : base(loggingService) { // Error checking removed for brevity. _log = loggingService; _log.Tag = "SearchController"; } ... } and the structuremap factory (main method), also way simplified for this question... protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType != null) { try { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (Exception exception) { if (exception is StructureMapException) { Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } } } hmm. I just don't get it. StructureMap version 2.6.1.0 ASP.NET MVC 2. Any ideas?

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  • Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

    - by Gordon Worley
    In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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  • Syntax to change the value of a cached object property

    - by Craig
    In an ASP.NET 3.5 VB web app, I successfully manage to cache an object containing several personal details such as name, address, etc. One of the items is CreditNum which I'd like to change in the cache on the fly. Is there a way to access this directly in the cache or do I have to destroy and rebuild the whole object just to change the value of objMemberDetails.CreditNum? The cache is set using: Public Shared Sub CacheSet(ByVal key As String, ByVal value As Object) Dim userID As String = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name HttpContext.Current.Cache(key & "_" & userID) = value End Sub

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  • How to add system property equivalent to java -D in Ant

    - by Shervin
    Hi. I need to set java -Djava.library.path=/some/path and I want to do it when I am running my ant script, building my jar. I think I have to use <sysproperty key="java.library.path" value="/some/path"/> but it doesnt work. I cannot make the syntax work. The only thing I have Googled and found is sysproperty in conjunction with <java classname> but that doesnt make any sense to me. I am not sure if this is relevant, but I am using ant to create a ear and deploying this ear in JBoss.

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