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  • Odd problem with IE8 and z-index CSS property

    - by DK39
    I not been able to put one DIV over his parent DIV in Internet Explorer. With Firefox is working as suposed to. The odd part is that if I open the html file directly in IE, everything works fine. But if I upload to the server and open from there, the div is hidden underneath his parent. I've tried several z-index combinations and none works. Here's the code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <title>Test</title> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text-html; charset=utf-8" /> <style type="text/css"> .col { float:left; width:310px; margin-right:13px; } .art { position:relative; border-bottom: 1px solid #d0d0d0; font: normal normal bold 11px Arial,Verdana,Helvetica; color:#A0A0A0; width:310px; height:50px; top:0px; left: 0px; margin-right:10px; background-color:#F0F0F0; } .art a { padding:3px; display:block; width:304px; height:100%; color:#707070; } .art a:visited { color:#A0A0A0; } .art a:hover { background-color:#E0E0E0; } .box { z-index:1000; background-color:#A0A0A0; color:#404040; font: normal normal bold 11px Arial,Verdana,Helvetica; display:none; position:absolute; top:30px; left:10px; text-align:left; border:3px solid #707070; margin:5px 0px 5px 5px; font-size:10px; color:White; width:100%; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function sh(obj) { var el = document.getElementById(obj); if ( el.style.display != 'block' ) { el.style.display = 'block'; } else { el.style.display = 'none'; } } </script> </head> <body> <div class="col"> <div class="art"> <a href="" target="_blank" onmouseover="javascript:sh('i0')" onmouseout="javascript:sh('i0')">Title 1</a> <div id="i0" class="box"> <div class="text"> Les "chemises rouges" manifestent depuis la mi-mars pour faire tomber le gouvernement et occupent depuis trois semaines un quartier touristique et commerçant autour duquel ils ont érigé des barricades. </div> </div> </div> <div class="art"> <a href="" target="_blank" onmouseover="javascript:sh('i1')" onmouseout="javascript:sh('i1')">Title2</a> <div id="i1" class="box"> <div class="text"> Une association ardéchoise accueillant des séminaires de "bien-être" et de "développement personnel" a refusé d'accueillir un stage de danse en invoquant l'homosexualité des participants, ont indiqué aujourd'hui les organisateurs. </div> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html> What's is going on here?

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  • Accessing a JavaScript object property names with a "-" in it

    - by Anil kumar
    I have a requirement to read JSON data in my application. Problem is that the JSON data that I am getting from the service includes "-" and when I am trying to read it, I am getting "Uncaught ReferenceError: person is not defined ". e.g. I have below JSON object- var JSONObject ={ "name-person":"John Johnson", "street":"Oslo West 16", "age":33, "phone":"555 1234567"}; when I am writing below console log statement I am getting "Uncaught ReferenceError: person is not defined " error console.log(JSONObject.name-person); Can someone please help me how to read such data which includes "-" in it? I do not have control on the service and the DB so to modify source data is not in my hand.

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  • jQuery-ajax call: async property is not working?

    - by user269386
    Hi, given to certain circumstances, I'm forced to keep page settings (Javascript-values) in the session and it has to be done right before leaving the page (I can't use cookies, since "pageSettings" can become quite large and localStorage is not an option yet ;) ). So this is how I tried it. However it seems that when I call the page directly again, the call of "http://blabla.com/bla" happens asynchronous, even though the async-attribute is set (I don't receive the settings of the previous call, but of the one before): $jQ(document).ready(function () { $jQ(window).unload(Main.__setSessionValues); }); var Main = { pageSettings: {}, __setSessionValues: function __setSessionValues() { $jQ.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "http://blabla.com/bla", data: { pageSettings: Object.toJSON(Main.pageSettings) } }); } }; Does anyone know what the problem might be? thanks in advance

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • How do the major C# DI/IoC frameworks compare?

    - by Slomojo
    At the risk of stepping into holy war territory, What are the strengths and weaknesses of these popular DI/IoC frameworks, and could one easily be considered the best? ..: Ninject Unity Castle.Windsor Autofac StructureMap Are there any other DI/IoC Frameworks for C# that I haven't listed here? In context of my use case, I'm building a client WPF app, and a WCF/SQL services infrastructure, ease of use (especially in terms of clear and concise syntax), consistent documentation, good community support and performance are all important factors in my choice. Update: The resources and duplicate questions cited appear to be out of date, can someone with knowledge of all these frameworks come forward and provide some real insight? I realise that most opinion on this subject is likely to be biased, but I am hoping that someone has taken the time to study all these frameworks and have at least a generally objective comparison. I am quite willing to make my own investigations if this hasn't been done before, but I assumed this was something at least a few people had done already. Second Update: If you do have experience with more than one DI/IoC container, please rank and summarise the pros and cons of those, thank you. This isn't an exercise in discovering all the obscure little containers that people have made, I'm looking for comparisons between the popular (and active) frameworks.

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  • Attached property and style missing on re adding the user control

    - by RodD
    Hey people I've got an issue with a WPF project I'm working on, I have an items control which I add to and remove from certain user controls, these contols styles and attached properties are there on first view but when I remove and add them again the user control apears on screen but is detached from the items control attached properties and styles. Is this behaviour common and if so what is the best way to handle it? Thanks in advance

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  • DataGridView fails SelectedCells property

    - by ghiboz
    Hi! in my project I have 3 DataGridView and I need to retrieve the SelectedCells of the grid in 2 grids this works fine, but in one ( and the code is exactly the same of the other 2) the grid.SelectedCells.Count is 1 but If I go in the inspector to view which cell is selected, the result is 0,0... thanks

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  • Inject a EJB into a JSF converter with JEE6

    - by Michael Bavin
    Hi, I have a stateless EJB that acceses my database. I need this bean in a JSF 2 converter to retreive an entity object from the String value parameter. I'm using JEE6 with Glassfish V3 @EJB annotation does not work and gets a NPE, because it's in the faces context and it has not access to the ejb context. My question is: Is it still possible to Inject this bean (With a @Resource or other annotation, a JNDI lookup,...), or do i need a workaround? Thank you Solution Do a JNDI lookup like this: try { ic = new InitialContext(); myejb= (MyEJB) ic .lookup("java:global/xxxx/MyEJB"); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); }

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  • Unable to bind with any property of UserControl

    - by Agha Khan
    I looked your answer where I was also using this.DataContext=this. I am unable to convince myself why I have to remove it? But I did In my UserControl control I have 6 int properties (RedCount, GreenCount …) I am using .NET 3.5 and basically I wanted to use StringFormat with Binding. In my xaml file I have 6 Labels with I would like to bind, and I did what exactly you told in last reply. For some strange reasons it didn’t work. I don't know why it does not work. I placed break point in converter where I never hit it. This imples Binding failed.

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  • Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

    - by walkor
    Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

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  • Google App Engine getting verbose_name of a property from an instance

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    Given a model likeso: from google.appengine.ext import db class X(db.Model): p = db.StringProperty(verbose_name="Like p, but more modern.") How does one access verbose_name from x=X() (an instance of X)? One might expect that x.p.verbose_name would work, or alternatively x.properties()['p'].verbose_name, but neither seems to work. Thanks! EDIT: x.name.verbose_name = x.p.verbose_name

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  • How to inject php code from database into php script ?

    - by luxquarta
    I want to store php code inside my database and then use it into my script. class A { public function getName() { return "lux"; } } // instantiates a new A $a = new A(); Inside my database there is data like "hello {$a->getName()}, how are you ?" In my php code I load the data into a variable $string $string = load_data_from_db(); echo $string; // echoes hello {$a->getName()}, how are you ? So now $string contains "hello {$a-getName()}, how are you ?" {$a-getName()} still being un-interpretated Question: I can't find how to write the rest of the code so that {$a-getName()} gets interpretated "into hello lux, how are you". Can someone help ? $new_string = ?????? echo $new_string; //echoes hello lux, how are you ? Is there a solution with eval() ? (please no debate about evil eval ;)) Or any other solution ?

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  • how to escape a string before insert or update in Ruby

    - by ywenbo
    Hi guy, In ruby ActiveRecord doesn't provide dynamic binding for update and insert sqls, of course i can use raw sql, but that need maintain connection, so i want to know if there is simpler way to escape update or insert sql before executing like code below: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.insert(sql) i think i can write code by gsub, but i know if there has been a ready method to do it. thank you very much, and Merry Christmas for you all.

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  • What's the difference between DI and factory patterns?

    - by Anthony Short
    I have a class which depends on 3 classes, all 3 of which have other classes they rely on. Currently, I'm using a container class to build up all the required classes, inject them into one another and return the application. The simplified version of the container looks something like this: class Builder { private $_options; public function __construct($options) { $this->_options = $options; } public function build() { $cache = $this->getCache(); $response = $this->getResponse(); $engine = $this->getEngine(); return new Application($cache,$response,$engine); } public function getResponse() { $encoder = $this->getResponseEncoder(); $cache = $this->getResponseCache(); return new Response($encoder,$cache); } // Methods for building each object } I'm not sure if this would be classified as FactoryMethod or a DI Container. They both seem to solve the same problem in the same way - They build objects and inject dependencies. This container has some more complicated building methods, like loading observers and attaching them to observable objects. Should factories be doing all the building (loading extensions etc) and the DI container should use these factories to inject dependencies? That way the sub-packages, like Cache, Response etc, can each have their own specialised factories.

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  • @OneToyMany property null in Entity after (second) merge

    - by iNPUTmice
    Hi, I'm using JPA (with Hibernate) and Gilead in a GWT project. On the server side I have this method and I'm calling this method twice with the same "campaign". On the second call it throws a null pointer exception in line 4 "campaign.getTextAds()" public List<WrapperTextAd> getTextAds(WrapperCampaign campaign) { campaign = em.merge(campaign); System.out.println("getting textads for "+campaign.getName()); for(WrapperTextAd textad: campaign.getTextAds()) { //do nothing } return new ArrayList<WrapperTextAd>(campaign.getTextAds()); } The code in WrapperCampaign Entity looks like this @OneToMany(mappedBy="campaign") public Set<WrapperTextAd> getTextAds() { return this.textads; }

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  • Castle windsor registration

    - by nivlam
    interface IUserService class LocalUserService : IUserService class RemoteUserService : IUserService interface IUserRepository class UserRepository : IUserRepository If I have the following interfaces and classes, where the IUserService classes have a dependency on IUserRepository. I can register these components by doing something like: container.AddComponent("LocalUserService", typeof(IUserService), typeof(LocalUserService)); container.AddComponent("RemoteUserService", typeof(IUserService), typeof(RemoteUserService)); container.AddComponent("UserRepository", typeof(IUserRepository), typeof(UserRepository)); ... and get the service I want by calling: IUserService userService = container.Resolve<IUserService>("RemoteUserService"); However, if I have the following interfaces and classes: interface IUserService class UserService : IUserService interface IUserRepository class WebUserRepository : IUserRepository class LocalUserRepository : IUserRepository class DBUserRepository : IUserRepository How do I register these components so that the IUserService component can "choose" which repository to inject at runtime? My idea is to allow the user to choose which repository to query from by providing 3 radio buttons (or whatever) and ask the container to resolve a new IUserService each time.

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  • What is the best way to include Javascript?

    - by Paul Tarjan
    Many of the big players recommend slightly different techniques. Mostly on the placement of the new <script>. Google Anayltics: (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); Facebook: (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }());: Disqus: (function() { var dsq = document.createElement('script'); dsq.type = 'text/javascript'; dsq.async = true; dsq.src = 'http://' + disqus_shortname + '.disqus.com/embed.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(dsq); })(); (post others and I'll add them) Is there any rhyme or reason for these choices or does it not matter at all?

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  • what are the best practices to prevent sql injections

    - by s2xi
    Hi, I have done some research and still confused, This is my outcome of that research. Can someone please comment and advise to how I can make these better or if there is a rock solid implementation already out there I can use? Method 1: array_map('trim', $_GET); array_map('stripslashes', $_GET); array_map('mysql_real_escape_string', $_GET); Method 2: function filter($data) { $data = trim(htmlentities(strip_tags($data))); if (get_magic_quotes_gpc()) $data = stripslashes($data); $data = mysql_real_escape_string($data); return $data; } foreach($_GET as $key => $value) { $data[$key] = filter($value); }

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  • MongoDB C# - Hide property from serializer

    - by ehftwelve
    This is what my user model looks like: namespace Api.Models { public class User { [BsonId(IdGenerator = typeof(StringObjectIdGenerator))] [BsonRequired] public string Id { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Username is required.")] [StringLength(20, MinimumLength=3, ErrorMessage="Username must be between 3 and 20 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Email is required.")] [EmailAddress(ErrorMessage="Valid email required.")] [BsonRequired] public string Email { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is required.")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength=8, ErrorMessage="Password must be between 8 and 50 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Password { get; set; } [BsonRequired] public string Salt { get; set; } } } I want to write, and require, all of the properties into the MongoDB Database. What I don't want to do, is expose the Password and Salt properties when I send this through the request. Is there any sort of data attribute that I can set that will write it, but not expose it when displayed to any API user?

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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  • Are static delegates thread-safe?

    - by leypascua
    Consider this code snippet: public static class ApplicationContext { private static Func<TService> Uninitialized<TService>() { throw new InvalidOperationException(); } public static Func<IAuthenticationProvider> AuthenticationProvider = Uninitialized<IAuthenticationProvider>(); public static Func<IUnitOfWorkFactory> UnitOfWorkFactory = Uninitialized<IUnitOfWorkFactory>(); } //can also be in global.asax if used in a web app. public static void Main(string[] args) { ApplicationContext.AuthenticationProvider = () => new LdapAuthenticationProvider(); ApplicationContext.UnitOfWorkFactory = () => new EFUnitOfWorkFactory(); } //somewhere in the code.. say an ASP.NET MVC controller ApplicationContext.AuthenticationProvider().SignIn(username, true); Are delegates in the static class ApplicationContext thread-safe in the sense that multiple-threads can invoke them? What potential problems will I face if I pursue this approach?

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