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• Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

  - by Brian Kennedy

  So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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• .htaccess trickery multi-language website

  - by user1658741

  I have a website right now that uses two languages (french and english) The way it works right now is that if someone goes to mysite.com/folder/file.php for example, file.php is simply a script that figures out which language to use, get's it's own path and filename(file.php) and serves up mysite.com/en/folder/file.php (if the language is english). However what shows up in the URL is still mysite.com/folder/file.php. For any folder and any file the same script is used. If I want to add a new file I have to add the file to the folder the user types into the browser as well to the en and fr folders. Could I do some .htaccess trickery so that whatever URL is typed, one .php file gets open that checks the language and what folder/file was requested and then serves up the correct language file? here's the php file that is served up for any files in the URL. <?php // Get current document path which is mirrored in the language folders $docpath = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; // Get current document name (Used when switching languages so that the same current page is shown when language is changed) $docname = GetDocName(); //call up lang.php which handles display of appropriate language webpage. //lang.php uses $docpath and $docname to give out the proper $langfile. //$docpath/$docname is mirrored in the /lang/en and /lang/fr folders $langfile = GetDocRoot()."/lang/lang.php"; include("$langfile"); //Call up the proper language file to display function GetDocRoot() { $temp = getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"); $localpath=realpath(basename(getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"))); $localpath=str_replace("\\","/",$localpath); $docroot=substr($localpath,0, strpos($localpath,$temp)); return $docroot; } function GetDocName() { $currentFile = $_SERVER["SCRIPT_NAME"]; $parts = Explode('/', $currentFile); $dn = $parts[count($parts) - 1]; return $dn; } ?>

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• What makes my code DDD (domain-driven design) qualified?

  - by oykuo

  Hi All, I'm new to DDD and am thinking about using this design technique in my project. However, what strikes me about DDD is that how basic the idea is. Unlike other design techniques such as MVC and TDD, it doesn't seems to contain any ground breaking ideas. For example, I'm sure some of you will have the same feeling that the idea of root aggregates and repositories are nothing new because when you are was writing MVC web applications you have to have one single master object (i.e. the root aggregate) that contain other minor objects (i.e. value objects and entities) in the model layer in order to send data to a strongly typed view. To me, the only new idea in DDD is probably the "Smart" entities (i.e. you are supposed to have business rules on root aggregates) Separation between value object, root aggregate and entities. Can anyone tell me if I have missed out anything here? If that's all there is to DDD, if I update one of my existing MVC application with the above 2 new ideas, can I claim it's an TDD, MVC and DDD applcation?

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• compile c problem in emacs (ubuntu)

  - by user565739

  I wrote a very simple program like: ( sorry, I typed the code in the right way, but the display is wired. How could I fix it?) #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { int i; for ( i = 0; i <= 10; i++ ) { printf( "%d hello!\n", i); } return 0; } Usually, I compile c program in terminal with the command cc -o xxx xxx.c So in Emacs, when I type M-x compile, I change make -k to cc -o. But I got error like cc: argument to '-o' is missing What's the problem? If I use make, then I still got error No targets specified and no makefiles found. Finally, if the above problem is fixed, how could I define a custom hotkey for compile? I have already know how to do something like global-set-key [f8] 'goto-line But I don't know to set a hotkey for an action only for c-mode.

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• Which Java debugger do *you* use.

  - by mikevdg

  I spend a lot of time debugging applications in Eclipse using JPDA. There are a few issues with the Eclipse debugger which really annoy me. Can anybody recommend plug-ins, better debuggers or perhaps tricks that I don't know of yet? In the "Variables" tab, you can type in and execute bits of Java code. However, you first need to click on something (I usually click on "this") to give it some context. Then, after you've typed in a lengthy Java expression to debug something and "execute" it, your expression gets replaced with the result, so you need to type it in all over again. Is there some better way, such as a console or something that I'm missing? When you're poking through data structures, the presentation in the debugger leaves much to be desired. You see the internal representation of Lists, Maps, StringBuilders etc. What I want to see is what these objects conceptually contain. Is there a way of doing this, perhaps using some other debugger, or an extension or something? When an Exception is thrown, is there some way of inspecting the state of the application where the Exception was thrown? Currently I need to set breakpoints just before the Exception occurs and then try to reproduce it. When I'm stepping over a line with many statements on it, I can't actually see which of those statements is being executed, except by "stepping in" to each one to see where it takes me. If no source code is found, Eclipse just stares blankly at you. You get a helpful screen saying "Class File Editor / Source code not found" which is completely useless. I'd much prefer to be able to step through the bytecodes so I can at least see what is going on. Does anybody know of a Java debugger that does this better than Eclipse?

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• What is good about php/what is php good for?

  - by Roman A. Taycher

  I have often seen php bashed around the webs as a loosely typed(loose typing as in a lot of type coercion and/or easy(and perhaps common) to cast object all over not dynamic typing) language without a great compiler/interpreter/vm, with even the standard library using a number of different naming conventions. A lot of people complain about perl but many (including a lot of the complainers) also give it a lot of credit for its regexes and general flexibility and power. Other then legacy code , giant web frameworks that can do tons(drupal,ect.), and easy cheap hosting what is good about php (,also what criticism are unfair, and how is the language evolving to overcome its problems). Why would i want to learn it? why would I want to do an independent project in it? The main thing I have heard is that its php codes simplicity is sometimes easier then the over-engineered complexity you find in certain Java frameworks and applications. I'm not just trolling, i'm genuinly curious what makes php programmers use it. try to convince me to put it on my languages to dabble in and languages to learn more in depth lists.

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• (Java) Get value of string loaded into dynamic-type object?

  - by Michael

  I'm very new to Java (~10 days), so my code is probably pretty bad, but here's what I've got: ArgsDataHolder argsData = new ArgsDataHolder(); // a class that holds two // ArrayList's where each element // representing key/value args Class thisArgClass; String thisArgString; Object thisArg; for(int i=2; i< argsString.length; i++) { thisToken = argsString[i]; thisArgClassString = getClassStringFromToken(thisToken).toLowerCase(); System.out.println("thisArgClassString: " + thisArgClassString); thisArgClass = getClassFromClassString(thisArgClassString); // find closing tag; concatenate middle Integer j = new Integer(i+1); thisArgString = getArgValue(argsString, j, "</" + thisArgClassString + ">"); thisArg = thisArgClass.newInstance(); thisArg = thisArgClass.valueOf(thisArgString); argsData.append(thisArg, thisArgClass); } The user basically has to input a set of key/value arguments into the command prompt in this format: <class>value</class>, e.g. <int>62</int>. Using this example, thisArgClass would be equal to Integer.class, thisArgString would be a string that read "62", and thisArg would be an instance of Integer that is equal to 62. I tried thisArg.valueOf(thisArgString), but I guess valueOf(<String>) is only a method of certain subclasses of Object. For whatever reason, I can't seem to be able to cast thisArg to thisArgClass (like so: thisArg = (thisArgClass)thisArgClass.newInstance();, at which point valueOf(<String>) should become accessible. There's got to be a nice, clean way of doing this, but it is beyond my abilities at this point. How can I get the value of the string loaded into a dynamically-typed object (Integer, Long, Float, Double, String, Character, Boolean, etc.)? Or am I just overthinking this, and Java will do the conversion for me? :confused:

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• Additional information in ASP.Net MVC View

  - by Max Malmgren

  I am attempting to implement a custom locale service in an MVC 2 webpage. I have an interface IResourceDictionary that provides a couple of methods for accessing resources by culture. This is because I want to avoid the static classes of .Net resources. The problem is accessing the chosen IResourceDictionary from the views. I have contemplated using the ViewDataDictionary given, creating a base controller from which all my controllers inherits that adds my IResourceDictionary to the ViewData before each action executes. Then I could call my resource dictionary this way: (ViewData["Resources"] as IResourceDictionary).GetEntry(params); Admittedly, this is extremely verbose and ugly, especially in inline code as we are encouraged to use in MVC. Right now I am leaning towards static class access ResourceDictionary.GetEntry(params); because it is slightly more elegant. I also thought about adding it to my typed model for each page, which seems more robust than adding it to the ViewData.. What is the preferred way to access my ResourceDictionary from the views? All my views will be using this dictionary.

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• Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

  - by Jaxidian

  We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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• How can I get a default value in some instances but not others?

  - by Connor Wagner

  I am making an iPhone app and want to use an 'if' statement and a boolean to set default values in some instances but not others... is this possible? Are there alternative options if it is not possible? In the MainViewController.m I have: @interface MainViewController (){ BOOL moveOver; } [...] - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i", computerSpeed]; } } [...] - (void)flipsideViewControllerDidFinish:(FlipsideViewController *)controller { [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil]; moveOver = true; } The problem that it is redefined when the ViewDidLoad runs... I need a statement that will not redefine when the ViewDidLoad runs. I have something that I feel like is much closer to working... In the ViewDidLoad I have: if (playToInt != 10 || computerMoveSpeed != 3) { moveOver = TRUE; } which connects to my created method, gameLoop. It has if (moveOver == false) { computerMoveSpeed = 3; playToInt = 10; } I have tried putting the code in the gameLoop into the ViewDidLoad, but it had the same effect. When moveOver was false, the computerMoveSpeed and the playToInt were both seemingly 0. I have two UITextFields and typed 10 and 3 in them... does this not set it to the default? It seems to set the default to 0 for both, how do I change this? THIS IS A DIFFERENT ISSUE THAN THE THREE BOOLEAN VALUES QUESTION

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• Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

  - by Dirk Boer

  I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

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• How to check whether a default browser is opened in the operating system (Java)?

  - by stempel1984

  Hi, I am newbie here. During my work, I faced an interesting problem. I need to: check whether a default html browser is opened; check whether the browser is minimized/maximized (simply, a window's state); get an url address typed in the browser. If any of these conditions is not met, I have to open the browser in a maximized view with a desired url address. I primarily wanted to do all this in Java, but it came to my mind that I should employ many techniques/technologies and combine them appropriately to complete the functionality. But, which ones? That's the problem. I just recalled Windows API, but I'm not sure if it is of any help... Some users on another forum suggested that I should consider JNI (no experience at all)... I only know how to open a default browser (e.g. with use of the 'browse(URI uri)' method of the 'java.awt.Desktop' class) - that's too little to be proud of. Please give me some hints, maybe links to reasonable discussions, I would greatly appreciate any suggestions how to approach the problem.

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• Is there a way to update the height of a single UITableViewCell, without recalculating the height for every cell?

  - by Chris Vasselli

  I have a UITableView with a few different sections. One section contains cells that will resize as a user types text into a UITextView. Another section contains cells that render HTML content, for which calculating the height is relatively expensive. Right now when the user types into the UITextView, in order to get the table view to update the height of the cell, I call [self.tableView beginUpdates]; [self.tableView endUpdates]; However, this causes the table to recalculate the height of every cell in the table, when I really only need to update the single cell that was typed into. Not only that, but instead of recalculating the estimated height using tableView:estimatedHeightForRowAtIndexPath:, it calls tableView:heightForRowAtIndexPath: for every cell, even those not being displayed. Is there any way to ask the table view to update just the height of a single cell, without doing all of this unnecessary work? Update I'm still looking for a solution to this. As suggested, I've tried using reloadRowsAtIndexPaths:, but it doesn't look like this will work. Calling reloadRowsAtIndexPaths: with even a single row will still cause heightForRowAtIndexPath: to be called for every row, even though cellForRowAtIndexPath: will only be called for the row you requested. In fact, it looks like any time a row is inserted, deleted, or reloaded, heightForRowAtIndexPath: is called for every row in the table cell. I've also tried putting code in willDisplayCell:forRowAtIndexPath: to calculate the height just before a cell is going to appear. In order for this to work, I would need to force the table view to re-request the height for the row after I do the calculation. Unfortunately, calling [self.tableView beginUpdates]; [self.tableView endUpdates]; from willDisplayCell:forRowAtIndexPath: causes an index out of bounds exception deep in UITableView's internal code. I guess they don't expect us to do this. I can't help but feel like it's a bug in the SDK that in response to [self.tableView endUpdates] it doesn't call estimatedHeightForRowAtIndexPath: for cells that aren't visible, but I'm still trying to find some kind of workaround. Any help is appreciated.

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• Why does this while terminate before receiving a value? (java)

  - by David

  Here's the relevant code snippet. public static Territory[] assignTerri (Territory[] board, String[] colors) { for (int i = 0; i<board.length; i++) { // so a problem is that Territory.translate is void fix this. System.out.print ("What team controls ") ; Territory.translate (i) ; System.out.println (" ?") ; boolean a = false ; while (a = false) { String s = getIns () ; if ((checkColor (s, colors))) { board[i].team = (returnIndex (s, colors)) ; a =true ; } else System.out.println ("error try again") ; } System.out.print ("How many unites are on ") ; Territory.translate (i) ; System.out.println (" ?") ; int n = getInt () ; board[i].population = n ; } return board ; } As an additional piece of information, checkColor just checks to make sure that its first argument, a string, is a string in one of the indexes of its second argument, an array. It seems to me that when the while the method gets a string from the keyboard and then only if that string checks out is a true and the while allowed to terminate. The output I get though is this: What team controls Alaska ? How many unites are on Alaska ? (there is space at the end to type in an input) This would seem to suggest that the while terminates before an input is ever typed in since the first line of text is within the while while the second line of text comes after it outside of it. Why is this happening?

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• Aborting $.post() / responsive search results

  - by Emphram Stavanger

  I have the following kludgey code; HTML <input type="search" id="search_box" /> <div id="search_results"></div> JS var search_timeout, search_xhr; $("#search_box").bind("textchange", function(){ clearTimeout(search_timeout); search_xhr.abort(); search_term = $(this).val(); search_results = $("#search_results"); if(search_term == "") { if(search_results.is(":visible")) search_results.stop().hide("blind", 200); } else { if(search_results.is(":hidden")) search_results.stop().show("blind", 200); } search_timeout = setTimeout(function () { search_xhr = $.post("search.php", { q: search_term }, function(data){ search_results.html(data); }); }, 100); }); (uses the textchange plugin by Zurb) The problem I had with my original more simple code was that it was horribly unresponsive. Results would appear seconds later, especially when typed slower, or when Backspace was used, etc. I made all this, and the situation isn't much better. Requests pile up. My original intention is to use .abort() to cancel out whatever previous request is still running as the textchange event is fired again (as per 446594). This doesn't work, as I get repeated errors like this in console; Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'abort' of undefined How can I make .abort() work in my case? Furthermore, is this approach the best way to fetch 'realtime' search results? Much like Facebook's search bar, which gives results as the user types, and seems to be very quick on its feet.

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• CakePHP "down for maintenance" page

  - by user1852176

  I found this post about how to create a "down for maintenance" page but I'm having some trouble getting it to work properly. define('MAINTENANCE', 1); if(MAINTENANCE > 0){ require('maintenance.php'); die(); } When I place this code in /webroot.index.php it works. However, the answer suggests adding an IP address check so that if it's down, I would still be able to view it and make sure any updates went through smoothly. So, it would look something like this define('MAINTENANCE', 0); if(MAINTENANCE > 0 && $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] !='188.YOUR.IP.HERE'){ require('maintenance.php'); die(); } The issue is, my IP address will NOT be detected by cake. I've typed echo $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] and it just shows ::1. I also tried using my user_id but I got the following error Class 'AuthComponent' not found in.... I tried /index.php and /App/index.php but the maintenance page wasn't triggered and the page loads normally.

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• Why does this while terminate before recieving a value? (java)

  - by David

  here's the relevant code snippet. public static Territory[] assignTerri (Territory[] board, String[] colors) { for (int i = 0; i<board.length; i++) { // so a problem is that Territory.translate is void fix this. System.out.print ("What team controls ") ; Territory.translate (i) ; System.out.println (" ?") ; boolean a = false ; while (a = false) { String s = getIns () ; if ((checkColor (s, colors))) { board[i].team = (returnIndex (s, colors)) ; a =true ; } else System.out.println ("error try again") ; } System.out.print ("How many unites are on ") ; Territory.translate (i) ; System.out.println (" ?") ; int n = getInt () ; board[i].population = n ; } return board ; } as an additional piece of information, checkColor just checks to make sure that its first argument, a string, is a string in one of the indexes of its second argument, an array. it seems to me that when the while the method gets a string from the keyboard and then only if that string checks out is a true and the while allowed to terminate. The output i get though is this: What team controls Alaska ? How many unites are on Alaska ? (there is space at the end to type in an input) This would seem to suggest that the while terminates before an input is ever typed in since the first line of text is within the while while the second line of text comes after it outside of it. why is this happening?

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• '??' Not a valid unicode character, but in the unicode character set?

  - by Steve Cotner

  Short story: I can't get an entity like '𠂉' to store in a MySQL database, either by using a text field in a Ruby on Rails app (with default UTF-8 encoding) or by inputting it directly with a MySQL GUI app. As far as I can tell, all Chinese characters and radicals can be entered into the database without problem, but not these rarely typed 'character components.' The character mentioned above is unicode U+20089 and html entity &#131209; I can get it to display on the page by entering <html>&#131209;</html> and removing html escaping, but I would like to store it simply as the unicode character and keep the html escaping in place. There are many other Chinese 'components' (parts of full characters, generally consisting of 2 or 3 strokes) that cause the same problem. According to this page, the character mentioned is in the UTF-8 charset: http://www.fileformat.info/info/unicode/char/20089/charset_support.htm But on the neighboring '...20089/index.htm' page, there's an alert saying it's not a valid unicode character. For reference, that entity can be found in Mac OS X by searching through the character palette (international menu, "Show Character Palette"), searching by radical, and looking under the '?' radical. Apologies if this is too open-ended... can a character like this be stored in a UTF-8-based database? How is this character both supported and unsupported, both present in the character set and not valid?

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• RDS installation failure on 2012 R2 Server Core VM in Hyper-V Server

  - by Giles

  I'm currently installing a test-bed for my firms Infrastructure replacement. 10 or so Windows/Linux servers will be replaced by 2 physical servers running Hyper-V server. All services (DC, RDS, SQL) will be on Windows 2012 R2 Server Core VMs, Exchange on Server 2012 R2 GUI, and the rest are things like Elastix, MailArchiver etc, which aren't part of the equation thus far. I have installed Hyper-V server on a test box, and sucessfully got two virtual DC's running, SQL 2014 running, and 8.1 which I use for the RSAT tools. When trying to install RDS (The old fashioned kind, not the newer VDI(?) style), I get a failed installation due to the server not being able to reboot. A couple of articles have said not to do it locally, so I've moved on. Sitting at the Powershell prompt on the Domain Controller or SQL server (Both Server Core), I run the following commands: Import-Module RemoteDesktop New-SessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" The installation begins, carries on for 2 or 3 minutes, then I receive the following error message: New-SessionDeployment : Validation failed for the "RD Connection Broker" parameter. AlstersTS.Alsters.local Unable to connect to the server by using WindowsPowerShell remoting. Verify that you can connect to the server. At line:1 char:1 + NewSessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost " ... + + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [Write-Error], WriteErrorException + FullyQualifiedErrorID : Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.WriteErrorException,New-SessionDeployment So far, I have: Triple, triple checked syntax. Tried various other commands, and a script to accomplish the same task. Checked DNS is functioning as it should. Checked to the best of my knowledge that AD is working as it should. Checked that the Network Service has the needed permissions. Created another VM and placed the two roles on different servers. Deleted all VMs, started again with a new domain name (Lather, rinse, repeat) Performed the whole installation on a second physical box running Hyper-V Server Pleaded with it Interestingly, if I perform the installation via a GUI installation, the thing just works! Now I know I could convert this to a Server Core role after installation, but this wouldn't teach me what was wrong in the first instance. I've probably got 10 pages through various Google searches, each page getting a little less relevant. The closest matches seem to have good information, but it doesn't seem to be the fix for my set-up. As a side note, I expected to be able to "tee" or "out-file" the error message into a text file, but couldn't get that to work either, so I've typed in the error message manually. Chaps, any suggestions, from the glaringly obvious, to the long-winded and complex? Thanks!

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• 5.5.0 smtp;554 transaction failed spam message not queued

  - by Miguel

  Some users are trying to send email to certain domains using Exchange Server 2003, but the message is always is rejected and the following message is shown: 5.5.0 smtp;554 Transaction Failed Spam Message not queued The IP is not in a black list (checked using http://whatismyipaddress.com/blacklist-check and is clean - not listed). The emails were checked using using smtpdiag ("a troubleshooting tool designed to work directly on a Windows server with IIS/SMTP service enabled or with Exchange Server installed") and the connection using port 25 is ok. Also, an nslookup with set type=ptr shows (names and IP changed, "" means I typed something): C:\Documents and Settings\administrator>nslookup Default Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 > server publicdns.isp.net Default Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 > set type=ptr >mydomain.com Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 mydomain.com primary name server = publicdns.isp.net responsible mail addr = root.isp.net serial = 2011061301 refresh = 10800 (3 hours) retry = 3600 (1 hour) expire = 604800 (7 days) default TTL = 86400 (1 day) > 20.21.22.23 Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 23.22.21.20.in-addr.arpa name = mail.mydomain.com 20.21.in-addr.arpa nameserver = publicdns.isp.net 20.21.in-addr.arpa nameserver = publicdns2.isp.net publicdns2.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.11 publicdns.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.10 Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 23.22.21.20.in-addr.arpa name = mail.mydomain.com 20.21.in-addr.arpa nameserver = publicdns.isp.net 20.21.in-addr.arpa nameserver = publicdns2.isp.net publicdns2.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.11 publicdns.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.10 > set type=mx > mydomain.com Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 mydomain.com MX preference = 10, mail exchanger = mail.mydomain.com mydomain.com nameserver = publicdns.isp.net mydomain.com nameserver = publicdns2.isp.net mail.mydomain.com internet address = 20.21.22.23 publicdns2.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.11 publicdns.isp.net internet address = 10.10.10.10 > set type=a > mydomain.com Server: publicdns.isp.net Address: 10.10.10.10 Nombre: mydomain.com Address: 20.21.22.23 When I test the spf record with http://www.mxtoolbox.com it shows: TXT mydomain.com 24 hrs v=spf1 a mx ptr ip4:20.21.22.23 mx:mail.mydomain.com -all Any clues of what's happening here?

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• xterm not wrapping text properly

  - by mulllhausen

  I'm configuring both my gnome-terminal and xterm columns (i still haven't picked which of these I will be using) and I have a couple of issues I would like to fix: the typing area seems to be smaller (fewer columns) than the display area the typed text is not wrapping to the next line when it reaches the end - it just continues back around on the same line, overwriting the prompt (i have set a custom bash prompt with PS1 in case this is relevant) $ lsb_release -a No LSB modules are available. Distributor ID: Debian Description: Debian GNU/Linux 7.1 (wheezy) Release: 7.1 Codename: wheezy $ echo $TERM xterm $ stty -a [peter@pc ~] $ stty -a speed 38400 baud; rows 52; columns 126; line = 0; intr = ^C; quit = ^\; erase = ^?; kill = ^U; eof = ^D; eol = M-^?; eol2 = M-^?; swtch = M-^?; start = ^Q; stop = ^S; susp = ^Z; rprnt = ^R; werase = ^W; lnext = ^V; flush = ^O; min = 1; time = 0; -parenb -parodd cs8 hupcl -cstopb cread -clocal -crtscts -ignbrk brkint -ignpar -parmrk -inpck -istrip -inlcr -igncr icrnl ixon -ixoff -iuclc ixany imaxbel iutf8 opost -olcuc -ocrnl onlcr -onocr -onlret -ofill -ofdel nl0 cr0 tab0 bs0 vt0 ff0 isig icanon iexten echo echoe echok -echonl -noflsh -xcase -tostop -echoprt echoctl echoke $[peter@mine ~] $ # the column width only goes up to here ------------------------------------------------> the results are identical in both the xterm and in gnome-terminal 3.4.1.1 and as you can see, the output of the stty -a command goes right up to the edge of the screen, while the typing does not go that far. I have found that I can get the desired result by setting the columns to a very large number, eg: $ stty cols 1800 this fixes both problems. Is it the right way to go about solving this problem? Will this "break" any of the output from programs? So far I have tried top and stty -a and these seem OK. more info as requested in the comments i found that if i cat some input into a file then the columns actually strech the full width of the terminal window: [peter@mine applications] $ cat > /tmp/asd aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaasssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssqqqqqqqqqqqqqqqq qqqq does this imply that it is actually bash that is restricting the number of columns and not the terminal? if so then how to alter the number of columns in bash?

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• libvirt qemu/kvm migration problem

  - by Panda

  I am using kvm and libvirt on my Dell server. Now i am trying to migrate one virtual machine from a physical server to another. However, I failed everytime. In virsh on physicalServer1, I typed: virsh # migrate virtualmachine1 qemu+ssh://username@physicalServer2/system error: operation failed: migration to 'tcp:physicalServer2:49163' failed: migration failed Then I searched FAQ part on libvirt.org. It says: error: operation failed: migration to '...' failed: migration failed This is an error often encountered when trying to migrate with QEMU/KVM. This typically happens with plain migration, when the source VM cannot connect to the destination host. You will want to make sure your hosts are properly configured for migration (see the migration section of this FAQ) I managed to ssh physicalServer2 from a shell on virtualmachine1 so the above red part did not explain my failure. I also open ports on physicalServer2, iptables -L shows following information: Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination ACCEPT udp -- anywhere anywhere udp dpt:domain ACCEPT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:domain ACCEPT udp -- anywhere anywhere udp dpt:bootps ACCEPT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:bootps ACCEPT udp -- anywhere anywhere udp dpt:domain ACCEPT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:domain ACCEPT udp -- anywhere anywhere udp dpt:bootps ACCEPT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:bootps ACCEPT tcp -- anywhere anywhere state NEW tcp dpts:49152:49215 Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination ACCEPT all -- anywhere 192.168.122.0/24 state RELATED,ESTABLISHED ACCEPT all -- 192.168.122.0/24 anywhere ACCEPT all -- anywhere anywhere REJECT all -- anywhere anywhere reject-with icmp-port-unreachable REJECT all -- anywhere anywhere reject-with icmp-port-unreachable ACCEPT all -- anywhere 192.168.122.0/24 state RELATED,ESTABLISHED ACCEPT all -- 192.168.122.0/24 anywhere ACCEPT all -- anywhere anywhere REJECT all -- anywhere anywhere reject-with icmp-port-unreachable REJECT all -- anywhere anywhere reject-with icmp-port-unreachable Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination The /var/log/libvirt/qemu/virtualmachine1.log on physicalServer2: 2011-05-06 13:37:30.708: starting up LC_ALL=C PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin QEMU_AUDIO_DRV=none /usr/bin/kvm -S -M pc-0.14 -enable-kvm -m 2048 -smp 1,sockets=1,cores=1,threads=1 -name openjudge-test -uuid a8c704bc-a4f9-90db-3e57-40e60b00aac1 -nodefconfig -nodefaults -chardev socket,id=charmonitor,path=/var/lib/libvirt/qemu/virtualmachine1.monitor,server,nowait -mon chardev=charmonitor,id=monitor,mode=readline -rtc base=utc -boot c -drive file=/media/nfs/virtualmachine1.img,if=none,id=drive-ide0-0-0,format=raw -device ide-drive,bus=ide.0,unit=0,drive=drive-ide0-0-0,id=ide0-0-0 -drive if=none,media=cdrom,id=drive-ide0-1-0,readonly=on,format=raw -device ide-drive,bus=ide.1,unit=0,drive=drive-ide0-1-0,id=ide0-1-0 -netdev tap,fd=20,id=hostnet0 -device rtl8139,netdev=hostnet0,id=net0,mac=00:16:36:8a:22 :a0,bus=pci.0,addr=0x3 -chardev pty,id=charserial0 -device isa-serial,chardev=charserial0,id=serial0 -usb -vnc 127.0.0.1:2 -vga cirrus -incoming tcp:0.0.0.0:49163 -device virtio-balloon-pci,id=balloon0,bus=pci.0,addr=0x4 char device redirected to /dev/pts/0 2011-05-06 13:37:30.915: shutting down The /var/log/libvirt/qemu/virtualmachine1.log on physicalServer1 is empty. Both physical servers are using Ubuntu 11.04. The libvirt and kvm used are installed by apt-get. The libvirt version is 0.8.8.

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• How can I install things in Linux with *no yum* and *no wget*?

  - by e9t

  I'm a newbie to Linux (that mainly uses Windows and Mac OS X) needing some advice. I was trying to install git on a Linux machine today, and encountered some problems: Not knowing the version of the installed OS, I've opened the /proc/version file which said: Linux version 2.6.9-42.0.2.ELsmp ([email protected]) (gcc version 3.4.6 20060404 (Red Hat 3.4.6-3)) #1 SMP Thu Aug 17 17:57:31 EDT 2006 Then, as written in the git documents (http://git-scm.com/download/linux), I assumed I could use the yum install git command for Fedora, but got the following result. [root@myserver ~]# yum install git -bash: yum: command not found So I tried installing yum using wget, but wasn't so lucky. [root@myserver ~]# wget http://linux.duke.edu/projects/yum/download/2.0/yum-2.0.7.tar.gz -bash: wget: command not found I googled and found this page and this page, so tried installing yum with rpm, but only got a result full of question marks. (Possibly an encoding problem, hmm...) [root@myserver ~]# rpm -Uvh http://www.eomy.net/linux/install-yum-x86_64/wget-1.10.2-0.40E.x86_64.rpm http://www.eomy.net/linux/install-yum-x86_64/wget-1.10.2-0.40E.x86_64.rpm(??)?? ?????? ?: /var/tmp/rpm-xfer.TbuAOu: V3 DSA signature: NOKEY, key ID 443e1821 ???.. ########################################### [100%] wget-1.10.2-0.40E U???????g??????? wget-1.10.2-0.40E???? ??g??/usr/bin/wget ?? wget-1.10.2-0.40E U?????? ???? wget-1.10.2-0.40E???? ??g??/usr/share/man/man1/wget.1.gz ?? wget-1.10.2-0.40E U?????? ???? [root@myserver ~]# Finally, when I typed rpm --version in the terminal, I got the below results. [root@myserver ~]# rpm --version RPM ???? - 4.3.3 I would like to know what I can do or possibly try now. Is it not possible to wget or yum anything in my situation? Or is there any magical tool like homebrew (http://mxcl.github.com/homebrew/) that I can use? Any comments or advice would be appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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• CentOS 5.7 keeps rebooting after fresh installation

  - by Wagner Maestrelli

  I have just installed CentOS 5.7 x86_64 on a new computer. The installation went on without any issues. But, after it finnished, the machine started to show an awkward behaviour: it restarts every time it tries to boot. It happens after all the services have been started. The screen just goes black and it shows an error message from the monitor: Input not supported. And then it reboots. I took a look at the logs, but I couldn't manage to find anything. Any help? Update Before doing the hardware diagnosis, as pointed out, I decided to make some tests. First, I changed the runlevel to 3, adding the 3 parameter at the end of the kernel command. Then, after logging in in text mode, I checked the xorg.conf file out for some problems regarding the screen resolution. There was nothing unexpected set. Well, if there had to be a problem with it, I couldn't start the X server at the command line, right? So, I typed startx and Gnome started! So, probably, it's not an issue with the screen resolution, I suppose. Then I selected the Log Out root... Gnome menu option and something odd happened: the screen went black, the Input not supported monitor error message was displayed and the system rebooted. Yes, the same problem I was having while trying to boot! After that, I decided to try yet another test: I removed the rhgb quiet parameters from the kernel command to see if some error would show up. Well, to my surprise, the boot went on without problems! The Gnome login screen showed up, I logged in and the session started. But then I selected the Shut Down... menu option and guess what? Same problem: black screen, same monitor error and the system rebooted. Yes, it rebooted, it did not shut down. I repeated both of the tests and the behaviours were the same. I really don't know what's going on. It seems to be an issue regarding the changing of the screen mode or something like that. Any ideas? Could this be a hardware problem? Or does it seem to be something regarding the system configuration?

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• PCI-DSS compliance for business with only swipe terminals [migrated]

  - by rowatt

  I support the IT infrastructure for a small retail business which is now required to undergo a PCI-DSS assessment. The payment service and terminal provider (Streamline) has asked that we use Trustwave to do the PCI-DSS certification. The problem I face is that if I answer all questions and follow Trustwave's requirements to the letter, we will have to invest significantly in networking equipment to segment LANs and /or do internal vulnerability scanning, while at the same time Streamline assures me that the terminals we have (Verifone VX670-B and MagIC3 X-8) are secure, don't store any credit card information and are PCI-DSS compliant so by implication we don't need to take any action to ensure their network security. I'm looking for any suggestions as to how we can most easily meet the networking requirements for PCI-DSS. Some background on our current network setup: single wired LAN, also with WiFi turned on (though if this creates any PCI-DSS complexities we can turn it off). single Netgear ADSL router. This is the only firewall we have in place, and the firewall is out the box configuration (i.e. no DMZ, SNMP etc). Passwords have been changed though :-) a few windows PCs and 2 windows based tills, none of which ever see any credit card information at all. two swipe terminals. Until a few months ago (before we were told we had to be PCI-DSS certified) these terminals did auth/capture over the phone. Streamline suggested we moved to their IP Broadband service, which instead uses an SSL encrypted channel over the internet to do auth/capture, so we now use that service. We don't do any ecommerce or receive payments over the internet. All transactions are either cardholder present, or MOTO with details given over phone and typed direct into terminal. We're based in the UK. As I currently understand it we have three options in order to get PCI-DSS certification. segment our network so the POS terminals are isolated from all PCs, and set up internal vulnerability scanning on that network. don't segment the network, and have to do more internal scanning and have more onerous management of PCs than I think we need (for example, though the tills are Windows based, they are fully managed so I have no control over software update policies, anti virus etc). All PCs have anti virus (MSE) and windows updates automatically applied, but we don't have any centralised go back to auth/capture over phone lines. I can't imagine we are the first merchant to be in this situation. I'm looking for any recommendations a simple, cost effective way to be PCI-DSS compliant - either by doing 1 or 2 above with (hopefully) simple and inexpensive equipment/software, or any other ways if there's a better way to do this. Or... should we just go back to the digital stone age and do auth/capture over the phone, which means we don't need to do anything on our network to be PCI-DSS certified?

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