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• desing pattern for related inputs

  - by curiousMo

  My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

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• Deleting objects with FK constraints in Spring/Hibernate

  - by maxdj

  This seems like such a simple scenario to me, yet I cannot for the life of my find a solution online or in print. I have several objects like so (trimmed down): @Entity public class Group extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Set<HiringManager> managers = new HashSet<HiringManager>(); private List<JobOpening> jobs; @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name="group_hiringManager", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="group_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="hiringManager_id") ) public Set<HiringManager> getManagers() { return managers; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="group", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public List<JobOpening> getJobs() { return jobs; } } @Entity public class JobOpening extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Group group; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="group_id", updatable=false, nullable=true) public Group getGroup() { return group; } } @Entity public class HiringManager extends User { @ManyToMany(mappedBy="managers", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Group> getGroups() { return groups; } } Say I want to delete a Group object. Now there are dependencies on it in the JobOpening table and in the group_hiringManager table, which cause the delete function to fail. I don't want to cascade the delete, because the managers have other groups, and the jobopenings can be groupless. I have tried overriding the remove() function of my GroupManager to remove the dependencies, but it seems like no matter what I do they persist, and the delete fails! What is the right way to remove this object?

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• Subclassing UIButton but can't access my properties

  - by Ross Ellerington

  Hi, I've created a sub class of UIButton: // // DetailButton.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface MyDetailButton : UIButton { NSObject *annotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *annotation; @end // // DetailButton.m // #import "MyDetailButton.h" @implementation MyDetailButton @synthesize annotation; @end I figured that I can then create this object and set the annotation object by doing the following: MyDetailButton* rightButton = [MyDetailButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; rightButton.annotation = localAnnotation; localAnnotation is an NSObject but it is really an MKAnnotation. I can't see why this doesn't work but at runtime I get this error: 2010-05-27 10:37:29.214 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190 2010-05-27 10:37:29.215 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190' ' I can't see why it's even looking at UIButton because I've subclassed that so it should be looking at the MyDetailButton class to set that annotation property. Have I missed something really obvious. It feels like it :) Thanks in advance for any help you can provide Ross

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• Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

  - by pauldoo

  Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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• iPhone - Memory Management - Using Leaks tool and getting some bizarre readings.

  - by Robert

  Hey all, putting the finishing touches on a project of mine so I figured I would run through it and see if and where I had any memory leaks. Found and fixed most of them but there are a couple of things regarding the memory leaks and object alloc that I am confused about. 1) There are 2 memory leaks that do not show me as responsible. There are 8 leaks attributed to AudioToolbox with the function being RegisterEmbeddedAudioCodecs(). This accounts for about 1.5 kb of leaks. The other one is detected immediately when the app begins. Core Graphics is responsible with the extra info being open_handle_to_dylib_path. For the audio leak I have looked over my audio code and to me it seems ok. self.musicPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:songFilePath] error:NULL]; [musicPlayer prepareToPlay]; [musicPlayer play] is called later on in a function. 2) Is it normal for there to be a spike in Object Allocation whenever a new view or controller is presented? My total memory usage is very, very low except for whenever I present a view controller. It spikes then immediately goes back down. I am guessing that this is just the phone handling all the information for switching or something. Blegh. Wall of text. Thanks in advance to anyone who helps! =)

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• Help getting MVVM ViewModel to bind to the View

  - by cw

  Okay guys, I'm new to this model and Silverlight in general. I have the following code (changed object names, so syntax/spelling errors ignore). public class ViewModel { ViewModelSource m_vSource; public ViewModel(IViewModelSource source) { m_vSource= source; m_vSource.ItemArrived += new Action<Item>(m_vSource_ItemArrived); } void m_vSource_ItemArrived(Item obj) { Title = obj.Title; Subitems = obj.items; Description = obj.Description; } public void GetFeed(string serviceUrl) { m_vFeedSource.GetFeed(serviceUrl); } public string Title { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Subitems> Subitems { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } } Here is the code I have in my page's codebehind. ViewModel m_vViewModel; public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); m_vViewModel = new ViewModel(new ViewModelSource()); this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); this.DataContext = m_vViewModel; } void MainPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { m_vViewModel.GetItems("http://www.myserviceurl.com"); } Finally, here is a sample of what my xaml looks like. <!--TitleGrid is the name of the application and page title--> <Grid x:Name="TitleGrid" Grid.Row="0"> <TextBlock Text="My Super Title" x:Name="textBlockPageTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle1Style}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Title}" x:Name="textBlockListTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle2Style}"/> </Grid> I know I'm missing something, but I'm just not knowledgable enough which is why I'm asking you guys :) Is there anything I'm doing wrong here? Thanks!

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• linq - how to sort a list

  - by Billy Logan

  Hello everyone, I have a linq query that populates a list of designers. since i am using the filters below my sorting is not functioning properly. My question is with the given code below how can i best sort this List after the fact or sort while querying? I have tried to sort the list after the fact using the following script but i receive a compiler error: List<TBLDESIGNER> designers = new List<TBLDESIGNER>(); designers = 'calls my procedure below and comes back with an unsorted list of designers' designers.Sort((x, y) => string.Compare(x.FIRST_NAME, y.LAST_NAME)); Query goes as follows: List<TBLDESIGNER> designer = null; using (SOAE strikeOffContext = new SOAE()) { //Invoke the query designer = AdminDelegates.selectDesignerDesigns.Invoke(strikeOffContext).ByActive(active).ByAdmin(admin).ToList(); } Delegate: public static Func<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>> selectDesignerDesigns = CompiledQuery.Compile<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>>( (designer) => from c in designer.TBLDESIGNER.Include("TBLDESIGN") orderby c.FIRST_NAME ascending select c); Filter ByActive: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByActive(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool active) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.ACTIVE == active select c; } Filter ByAdmin: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByAdmin(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool admin) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.SITE_ADMIN == admin select c; } Thanks in advance, Billy

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• Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

  - by Andrew M

  Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

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• How do I apply a "template" or "skeleton" of code in C# here?

  - by Scott Stafford

  In my business layer, I need many, many methods that follow the pattern: public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { if (this.m_LocallyCachedValue == null) { if (this.Record == null) { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.PropertyId); } else { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.Record.ForeignKeyName); } } return this.m_LocallyCachedValue; } } I am still learning C#, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to write this pattern once and add methods to each business layer class that follow this pattern with the proper types and variable names substituted. BusinessClass is a typename that must be substituted, and PropertyName, PropertyId, ForeignKeyName, and m_LocallyCachedValue are all variables that should be substituted for. Are attributes usable here? Do I need reflection? How do I write the skeleton I provided in one place and then just write a line or two containing the substitution parameters and get the pattern to propagate itself? EDIT: Modified my misleading title -- I am hoping to find a solution that doesn't involve code generation or copy/paste techniques, and rather to be able to write the skeleton of the code once in a base class in some form and have it be "instantiated" into lots of subclasses as the accessor for various properties. EDIT: Here is my solution, as suggested but left unimplemented by the chosen answerer. // I'll write many of these... public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { return GetSingleRelation(ref this.m_LocallyCachedValue, this.PropertyId, "ForeignKeyName"); } } // That all call this. public TBusinessClass GetSingleRelation<TBusinessClass>( ref TBusinessClass cachedField, int fieldId, string contextFieldName) { if (cachedField == null) { if (this.Record == null) { ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), typeof(int) }); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, fieldId }); } else { var obj = this.Record.GetType().GetProperty(objName).GetValue( this.Record, null); ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), obj.GetType()}); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, obj }); } } return cachedField; }

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• How do I pass a LuaTable between two Lua states using LuaInterface?

  - by user316675

  I've been trying to pass a LuaTable class between two Lua states, like so: LuaManager L1 = new Lua(); LuaManager L2 = new Lua(); LuaTable table = L1.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; L2["tbl"] = table; double results = L2.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); The above test fails; I receive a return value of nil. Using the Immediate Window confirms that "table" is a non-null object, and that table["apple"] returns 25; it's something that's being lost in translation to L2. Interestingly, when the object is loaded back into the same state, the test works, like so: //Succeeds LuaManager lua = new Lua(); LuaTable table = lua.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; lua["tbl"] = table; double results = lua.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); How can I safely pass the LuaTables without hassles? Thanks in advance!

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• Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

  - by user343547

  I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

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• Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

  - by ahsteele

  I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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• How can I check if a user has written his username and password correctly?

  - by Sergio Tapia

  I'm using a Linq-to-SQL class called Scans.dbml. In that class I've dragged a table called Users (username, password, role) onto the graphic area and now I can access User object via a UserRepository class: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Scanner.Classes { public class UserRepository { private ScansDataContext db = new ScansDataContext(); public User getUser(string username) { return db.Users.SingleOrDefault(x => x.username == username); } public bool exists(string username) { } } } Now in my Login form, I want to use this Linq-to-SQL goodness to do all the data related activities. UserRepository users = new UserRepository(); private void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { loginToSystem(); } private void loginToSystem() { if (users.getUser(txtUsername.Text)) { } //If txtUsername exists && User.password == Salt(txtPassword) //then Show.MainForm() with User.accountType in constructor to set permissions. } I need help with verifying that a user exists && that that users.password is equal to SALT(txtpassword.text). Any guidance please?

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• jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

  - by Rob Crowell

  When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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• Existing LINQ extension method similar to Parallel.For?

  - by Joel Martinez

  The linq extension methods for ienumerable are very handy ... but not that useful if all you want to do is apply some computation to each item in the enumeration without returning anything. So I was wondering if perhaps I was just missing the right method, or if it truly doesn't exist as I'd rather use a built-in version if it's available ... but I haven't found one :-) I could have sworn there was a .ForEach method somewhere, but I have yet to find it. In the meantime, I did write my own version in case it's useful for anyone else: using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; public delegate void Function<T>(T item); public delegate void Function(object item); public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static void For(this IEnumerable enumerable, Function func) { foreach (object item in enumerable) { func(item); } } public static void For<T>(this IEnumerable<T> enumerable, Function<T> func) { foreach (T item in enumerable) { func(item); } } } usage is: myEnumerable.For<MyClass>(delegate(MyClass item) { item.Count++; });

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• ajax to populate an input type text

  - by kawtousse

  hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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• stuck with enable session state

  - by Shrewd Demon

  hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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• Change flash src with jquery?

  - by Elliott

  Hi I have a flash menu showing a few links, but when the user is logged in I want to change the menu from menu1 to menu2 ... so that it will display "My Account" rather than "Signup" The code below is for my flash: <div id="menu"> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="825" height="69" id="menu1" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="movie" value="menu1.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="menu1.swf" quality="high" wmode="transparent" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="825" height="69" name="menu1" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> </div> Php: if (loggedin()) { echo '<script type="text/javascript"> CHANGE FLASH LINK HERE </script>'; } Could this be done without having to write all the above code out again? Thanks :)

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• multi-threaded proxy checker having problems

  - by Paul

  hello everyone, I am trying to create a proxy checker. This is my first attempt at multithreading and it's not going so well, the threads seem to be waiting for one to complete before initializing the next. Imports System.Net Imports System.IO Imports System.Threading Public Class Form1 Public sFileName As String Public srFileReader As System.IO.StreamReader Public sInputLine As String Public Class WebCall Public proxy As String Public htmlout As String Public Sub New(ByVal proxy As String) Me.proxy = proxy End Sub Public Event ThreadComplete(ByVal htmlout As String) Public Sub send() Dim myWebRequest As HttpWebRequest = CType(WebRequest.Create("http://www.myserver.com/ip.php"), HttpWebRequest) myWebRequest.Proxy = New WebProxy(proxy, False) Try Dim myWebResponse As HttpWebResponse = CType(myWebRequest.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim loResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(myWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) htmlout = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Debug.WriteLine("Finished - " & htmlout) RaiseEvent ThreadComplete(htmlout) Catch ex As WebException If (ex.Status = WebExceptionStatus.ConnectFailure) Then End If Debug.WriteLine("Failed - " & proxy) End Try End Sub End Class Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim proxy As String Dim webArray As New ArrayList() Dim n As Integer For n = 0 To 2 proxy = srFileReader.ReadLine() webArray.Add(New WebCall(proxy)) Next Dim w As WebCall For Each w In webArray Threading.ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(New WaitCallback(AddressOf w.send), w) Next w End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load srFileReader = System.IO.File.OpenText("proxies.txt") End Sub End Class

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• Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

  - by Rob

  Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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• Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

  - by mannish

  So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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• vector::erase with pointer member

  - by matt

  I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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• GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

  - by Ian Kelly

  I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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• Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

  - by David

  When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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