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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • Multiple table relationships in Zend Help

    - by Zogi
    Hi Guys I have been doing some DB mapping to link two tables to no avail. Everytime I run the code I get the following error: Message: File "Role.php" does not exist or class "Role" was not found in the file Stack trace: #0 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Db\Table\Row\Abstract.php(867): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->_getTableFromString('Role') #1 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\models\admin\User.php(56): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->findDependentRowset('Role') #2 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\controllers\AdminController.php(110): Application_Model_Admin_User->getUsers() #3 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): AdminController->usersAction() #4 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('usersAction') #5 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #6 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #7 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #8 C:\wamp\www\uwi\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #9 {main} Code & DB below: application/models/admin/User.php class Application_Model_Admin_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Role'); public function getUsers() { $rows = $this->fetchAll($this->select()->where('active = ?', 1)); $rows1 = $rows->current(); $rows2 = $rows1->findDependentRowset('Role'); return $rows2; } } application/models/admin/Role.php class Application_Model_Admin_Role extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'role'; protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'Role' => array( 'columns' => array('id'), 'refTableClass' => 'User', 'refColumns' => array('role_id') ); } DB tables CREATE TABLE role ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, name varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, username varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id), FOREIGN KEY(role_id) REFERENCES role(id) );

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  • Qt/MFC Migration Framework tool: properly exiting DLL?

    - by User
    I'm using the Qt/MFC Migration Framework tool following this example: http://doc.qt.nokia.com/solutions/4/qtwinmigrate/winmigrate-qt-dll-example.html The dll I build is loaded by a 3rd party MFC-based application. The 3rd party app basically calls one of my exported DLL functions to startup my plugin and another function to shutdown my application. Currently I'm doing nothing in my shutdown function. When I load my DLL in the 3rd party app the startup function is called and my DLL starts successfully and I can see my message box. However if I shutdown my plugin and then try to start it again I get the following error: Debug Error! Program: <my 3rd party app> Module: 4.7.1 File: global\qglobal.cpp Line: 2262 ASSERT failure in QWidget: "Widgets must be created in the GUI thread.", file kernel\qwidget.cpp line 1233 (Press Retry to debug the application) Abort Retry Ignore This makes me think I'm not doing something to properly shutdown my plugin. What do I need to do to shut it down properly? UPDATE: http://doc.qt.nokia.com/solutions/4/qtwinmigrate/winmigrate-walkthrough.html says: The DLL also has to make sure that it can be loaded together with other Qt based DLLs in the same process (in which case a QApplication object will probably exist already), and that the DLL that creates the QApplication object remains loaded in memory to avoid other DLLs using memory that is no longer available to the process. So I wonder if there is some problem where I need to somehow keep the original DLL loaded no matter what?

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  • How can I check if a user has written his username and password correctly?

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I'm using a Linq-to-SQL class called Scans.dbml. In that class I've dragged a table called Users (username, password, role) onto the graphic area and now I can access User object via a UserRepository class: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Scanner.Classes { public class UserRepository { private ScansDataContext db = new ScansDataContext(); public User getUser(string username) { return db.Users.SingleOrDefault(x => x.username == username); } public bool exists(string username) { } } } Now in my Login form, I want to use this Linq-to-SQL goodness to do all the data related activities. UserRepository users = new UserRepository(); private void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { loginToSystem(); } private void loginToSystem() { if (users.getUser(txtUsername.Text)) { } //If txtUsername exists && User.password == Salt(txtPassword) //then Show.MainForm() with User.accountType in constructor to set permissions. } I need help with verifying that a user exists && that that users.password is equal to SALT(txtpassword.text). Any guidance please?

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  • How do I apply a "template" or "skeleton" of code in C# here?

    - by Scott Stafford
    In my business layer, I need many, many methods that follow the pattern: public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { if (this.m_LocallyCachedValue == null) { if (this.Record == null) { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.PropertyId); } else { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.Record.ForeignKeyName); } } return this.m_LocallyCachedValue; } } I am still learning C#, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to write this pattern once and add methods to each business layer class that follow this pattern with the proper types and variable names substituted. BusinessClass is a typename that must be substituted, and PropertyName, PropertyId, ForeignKeyName, and m_LocallyCachedValue are all variables that should be substituted for. Are attributes usable here? Do I need reflection? How do I write the skeleton I provided in one place and then just write a line or two containing the substitution parameters and get the pattern to propagate itself? EDIT: Modified my misleading title -- I am hoping to find a solution that doesn't involve code generation or copy/paste techniques, and rather to be able to write the skeleton of the code once in a base class in some form and have it be "instantiated" into lots of subclasses as the accessor for various properties. EDIT: Here is my solution, as suggested but left unimplemented by the chosen answerer. // I'll write many of these... public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { return GetSingleRelation(ref this.m_LocallyCachedValue, this.PropertyId, "ForeignKeyName"); } } // That all call this. public TBusinessClass GetSingleRelation<TBusinessClass>( ref TBusinessClass cachedField, int fieldId, string contextFieldName) { if (cachedField == null) { if (this.Record == null) { ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), typeof(int) }); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, fieldId }); } else { var obj = this.Record.GetType().GetProperty(objName).GetValue( this.Record, null); ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), obj.GetType()}); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, obj }); } } return cachedField; }

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  • Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • C# reference collection for storing reference types

    - by ivo s
    I like to implement a collection (something like List<T>) which would hold all my objects that I have created in the entire life span of my application as if its an array of pointers in C++. The idea is that when my process starts I can use a central factory to create all objects and then periodically validate/invalidate their state. Basically I want to make sure that my process only deals with valid instances and I don't re-fetch information I already fetched from the database. So all my objects will basically be in one place - my collection. A cool thing I can do with this is avoid database calls to get data from the database if I already got it (even if I updated it after retrieval its still up-to-date if of course some other process didn't update it but that a different concern). I don't want to be calling new Customer("James Thomas"); again if I initted James Thomas already sometime in the past. Currently I will end up with multiple copies of the same object across the appdomain - some out of sync other in sync and even though I deal with this using timestamp field on the MSSQL server I'd like to keep only one copy per customer in my appdomain (if possible process would be better). I can't use regular collections like List or ArrayList for example because I cannot pass parameters by their real local reference to the their existing Add() methods where I'm creating them using ref so that's not to good I think. So how can this be implemented/can it be implemented at all ? A 'linked list' type of class with all methods working with ref & out params is what I'm thinking now but it may get ugly pretty quickly. Is there another way to implement such collection like RefList<T>.Add(ref T obj)? So bottom line is: I don't want re-create an object if I've already created it before during the entire application life unless I decide to re-create it explicitly (maybe its out-of-date or something so I have to fetch it again from the db). Is there alternatives maybe ?

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  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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  • Subclassing UIButton but can't access my properties

    - by Ross Ellerington
    Hi, I've created a sub class of UIButton: // // DetailButton.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface MyDetailButton : UIButton { NSObject *annotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *annotation; @end // // DetailButton.m // #import "MyDetailButton.h" @implementation MyDetailButton @synthesize annotation; @end I figured that I can then create this object and set the annotation object by doing the following: MyDetailButton* rightButton = [MyDetailButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; rightButton.annotation = localAnnotation; localAnnotation is an NSObject but it is really an MKAnnotation. I can't see why this doesn't work but at runtime I get this error: 2010-05-27 10:37:29.214 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190 2010-05-27 10:37:29.215 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190' ' I can't see why it's even looking at UIButton because I've subclassed that so it should be looking at the MyDetailButton class to set that annotation property. Have I missed something really obvious. It feels like it :) Thanks in advance for any help you can provide Ross

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  • Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

    - by Andrew M
    Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

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  • Assign delegate event handler from dynamically added child control

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have a control that handles commenting. In this control, I have set a delegate event handler for sending an email. I then have various types of controls, e.g. blog, articles etc, each of which may or may not have the commenting control added (which is done dynamically with me not knowing the id's), i.e. the commenting control is added outside this control. Each of these controls handles it's emailing differently(hence the event). What I'm trying to determine, is how to assign the event in the parent control. At the moment, I'm having to recursively search through all the controls on the page until I find the comment control, and set it that way. Example below explains: COMMENTING CONTROL public delegate void Commenting_OnSendEmail(); public partial class Commenting : UserControl { public Commenting_OnSendEmail OnComment_SendEmail(); private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(OnComment_SendEmail != null) { OnComment_SendEmail(); } } } PARENT CONTROL public partial class Blog : UserControl { private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Commenting comControl = (Commenting)this.FindControl<Commenting>(this); if(comControl != null) { comCtrol.OnComment_SendEmail += new Commenting_OnSendMail(Blog_Comment_OnSendEmail); } } } Is there an easier way?

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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

    - by Rob
    Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Why can't I wrap the ServletRequest when trying to capture JSP Output

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to dispatch in a servlet request handler to the JSP processor and capture the content of it. I am providing wrapper instances for the ServletRequest and ServletResponse, they implement the corresponding HTTPServletRequest/-Response interfaces, so they should be drop-in replacements. All methods are currently passed to the original Servlet Request object (I am planning to modify some of them soon). Additionally I have introduced some new methods. (If you want to see the code: http://code.google.com/p/gloudy/source/browse/trunk/gloudyPortal/src/java/org/gloudy/gloudlet/impl/RenderResponseImpl.java) The HttpServletResponse uses it's own output streams to capture the output. When I try to call request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request, response); With my request and response wrappers the method returns and no content has been captured. When I tried to pass the original request object it worked! But that's not what I need in the long run... request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request.getServletRequest(), response); This works. getservletRequest() returns the original Request, given by the servlet container. Does anyone know why this is not working with my wrappers?

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  • Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

    - by Kyralessa
    We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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  • Existing LINQ extension method similar to Parallel.For?

    - by Joel Martinez
    The linq extension methods for ienumerable are very handy ... but not that useful if all you want to do is apply some computation to each item in the enumeration without returning anything. So I was wondering if perhaps I was just missing the right method, or if it truly doesn't exist as I'd rather use a built-in version if it's available ... but I haven't found one :-) I could have sworn there was a .ForEach method somewhere, but I have yet to find it. In the meantime, I did write my own version in case it's useful for anyone else: using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; public delegate void Function<T>(T item); public delegate void Function(object item); public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static void For(this IEnumerable enumerable, Function func) { foreach (object item in enumerable) { func(item); } } public static void For<T>(this IEnumerable<T> enumerable, Function<T> func) { foreach (T item in enumerable) { func(item); } } } usage is: myEnumerable.For<MyClass>(delegate(MyClass item) { item.Count++; });

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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  • Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

    - by user343547
    I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

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  • multi-threaded proxy checker having problems

    - by Paul
    hello everyone, I am trying to create a proxy checker. This is my first attempt at multithreading and it's not going so well, the threads seem to be waiting for one to complete before initializing the next. Imports System.Net Imports System.IO Imports System.Threading Public Class Form1 Public sFileName As String Public srFileReader As System.IO.StreamReader Public sInputLine As String Public Class WebCall Public proxy As String Public htmlout As String Public Sub New(ByVal proxy As String) Me.proxy = proxy End Sub Public Event ThreadComplete(ByVal htmlout As String) Public Sub send() Dim myWebRequest As HttpWebRequest = CType(WebRequest.Create("http://www.myserver.com/ip.php"), HttpWebRequest) myWebRequest.Proxy = New WebProxy(proxy, False) Try Dim myWebResponse As HttpWebResponse = CType(myWebRequest.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim loResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(myWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) htmlout = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Debug.WriteLine("Finished - " & htmlout) RaiseEvent ThreadComplete(htmlout) Catch ex As WebException If (ex.Status = WebExceptionStatus.ConnectFailure) Then End If Debug.WriteLine("Failed - " & proxy) End Try End Sub End Class Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim proxy As String Dim webArray As New ArrayList() Dim n As Integer For n = 0 To 2 proxy = srFileReader.ReadLine() webArray.Add(New WebCall(proxy)) Next Dim w As WebCall For Each w In webArray Threading.ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(New WaitCallback(AddressOf w.send), w) Next w End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load srFileReader = System.IO.File.OpenText("proxies.txt") End Sub End Class

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