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• Flex 3 - Saving an image of a component

  - by Emma

  Im currently trying to work the imageSnapshot function in flex. Ive been looking hard but I cant seem to find a solution to my problem. I wish to take a screenshot of one of my components, to capture the final output of my program, since a plain "printscreen" cuts off some of the output due to it scrolling. My current code looks like - <mx:ApplicationControlBar dock="true"> <mx:Button label="Take snapshot of Profile" click="takeSnapshot();" /> </mx:ApplicationControlBar> Which when called does - private function takeSnapshot(even:Event=null):void { var imageSnap:ImageSnapshot = ImageSnapshot.captureImage(viewstack1); Now i think this is taking the image of the viewstack which I want... But Im stumped on what to do from here! Is it not possible to now just copy the image to the clipboard, or produce a new window in my browser with the entire image inside? If anyone has any other way to do this, suggestions would be wonderful. Thank you for your time.

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• DataTable vs. Collection in .Net

  - by B Pete

  I am writing a program that needs to read a set of records that describe the register map of a device I need to communicate with. Each record will have a handfull of fields that describe the properties of each register. I don't really need to edit or modify the data in my VB or C# program, though I would like to be able to display the data on a grid. I would like to store the data in a CSV file, or perhaps an XML file. I need to enable users to edit the data off-line, preferably in excel. I am considering using a DataTable or a Collection of "Register" objects (which I would define). I prototyped a DataTable, and found I can read/write XML easily using the built in methods and I can easily bind to a DataGridView. I was not able to find a way to retreive info on a single register without using a query that returns a collection of rows, even though I defined a unique primaty key column. The syntax to get a value from a column is also complex, though I could be missing something on both counts. I'm tempted to use a collection of "Register" objects that I can access via a unique key. It would be a little more coding up front, but seems like a cleaner solution overall. I should still be able to use LINQ to dataset to query subsets of registers when I need them, but would also be able to grab a single field using a the key value, something like this: Registers(keyValue).fieldName). Which would be a cleaner approach to the problem? Is there a way to read/write XML into a Collection without needing custom code? Could this be accomplished using String for a key?

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• What is faster- Java or C# (Or good old C)?

  - by Rexsung

  I'm currently deciding on a platform to build a scientific computational product on, and am deciding on either C#, Java, or plain C with Intels compiler on Core2 Quad CPU's. It's mostly integer arithmetic. My benchmarks so far show Java and C are about on par with each other, and dotNET/C# trails by about 5%- however a number of my coworkers are claiming that dotNET with the right optimizations will beat both of these given enough time for the JIT to do its work. I always assume that the JIT would have done it's job within a few minutes of the app starting (Probably a few seconds in my case, as it's mostly tight loops), so I'm not sure whether to believe them Can anyone shed any light on the situation? Would dotNET beat Java? (Or am I best just sticking with C at this point?). The code is highly multithreaded and data sets are several terabytes in size. Haskell/erlang etc are not options in this case as there is a significant quantity of existing legacy C code that will be ported to the new system, and porting C to Java/C# is a lot simpler than to Haskell or Erlang. (Unless of course these provide a significant speedup). Edit: We are considering moving to C# or Java because they may, in theory, be faster. Every percent we can shave off our processing time saves us tens of thousands of dollars per year. At this point we are just trying to evaluate whether C, Java, or c# would be faster.

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• Can I configure the ResetPassword in Asp.Net's MembershipProvider?

  - by coloradotechie

  I have an C# asp.net app using the default Sql MembershipProvider. My web.config has a few settings that control how I'm using this Provider: enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" The problem I'm running into is that when people reset their passwords, it seems the ResetPassword() method returns a password that is longer than I want and has characters that can be confusing (l,1,i,I,0,O). Furthermore, I'm sending my users an email with a plain-text message and an HTML message (I'm using MailMessage with AlternateViews). If the password has unsafe HTML characters in it, when the email clients render the HTML text the password might be different (e.g. the %, &, and < aren't exactly HTML safe). I've looked over the "add" element that belongs in the web.config, but I don't see any extra configuration properties to only include certain characters in the ResetPassword() method and to limit the password length. Can I configure the ResetPassword() method to limit the password length and limit the character set it is choosing from? Right now I have a workaround: I call ResetPassword() to make sure the supplied answer is correct, and then I use a RandomPassword generator I downloaded off the internet to generate a password that I like (without ambiguous characters, HTML safe, and only 8 characters long) and then I call ChangePassword() to change the user's password after I've already reset it. My workaround seems kludgy and I thought it would be better to configure ResetPassword() to do what I want. Thank you~! ColoradoTechie

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• FLTK in Cygwin using Eclipse (Linking errors)

  - by qpingu

  I have this assignment due that requires the usage of FLTK. The code is given to us and it should compile straight off of the bat, but I am having linking errors and do not know which other libraries I need to include. I currently have "opengl32", "fltk_gl", "glu32", and "fltk" included (-l), each of which seem to reduce the number of errors. I compiled FLTK using make with no specified options. Including all of the produced library files doesn't fix the problem, and I'm convinced that it's just some Windows specific problem. Compile log: **** Build of configuration Debug for project CG5 **** make all Building target: CG5.exe Invoking: Cygwin C++ Linker g++ -o"CG5.exe" ./src/draw_routines.o ./src/gl_window.o ./src/my_shapes.o ./src/shape.o ./src/shapes_ui.o ./src/tesselation.o -lopengl32 -lfltk_z -lfltk_gl -lglu32 -lfltk /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x197): undefined reference to `_SelectPalette@12' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x1a7): undefined reference to `_RealizePalette@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x1fe): undefined reference to `_glDrawBuffer@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x20d): undefined reference to `_glReadBuffer@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x23a): undefined reference to `_glGetIntegerv@8' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x2c3): undefined reference to `_glOrtho@48' /usr/lib/gcc/i686-pc-cygwin/3.4.4/../../../libfltk_gl.a(Fl_Gl_Window.o):Fl_Gl_Window.cxx:(.text+0x2f3): undefined reference to `_SwapBuffers@4' ...and lots more Thanks a ton for the help. EDIT: These first few lines are obviously OpenGL related, although I'm still not sure what additional libraries need to be included.

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• Confused about Ajax, Basic XMLHTTPRequest

  - by George

  I'm confused about the basics of Ajax. Right now I'm just trying to build a basic Ajax request using plain JavaScript to better understand how things work (as opposed to using Jquery or another library). First off, do you always need to pass a parameter or can you just retrieve data? In its most basic form, could I have an html document (located on the same server) that just has plain text, and another html document retrieve that text and load it on to the page? So I have fox.html with just text that says "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog." and I want to pull in that text into ajax.html on load. I have the following on ajax.html <script type="text/javascript"> function createAJAX() { var ajax = new XMLHttpRequest(); ajax.open('get','fox.html',true); ajax.send(null); ajax = ajax.responseText; return(ajax); } document.write(createAJAX()); </script> This currently writes nothing when I load the page.

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• Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

  - by Daniel Trebbien

  As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

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• BITS, TakeOwnership, and Kerberos / Windows Integrated Authentication

  - by Charlie Flowers

  We're using BITS to upload files from machines in our retail locations to our servers. BITS will stop transferring a file if the user who owns the BITS job logs off. Therefore, we're using a Windows Service running as LocalSystem to submit the jobs to BITS and be the job owner. This allows transfers to continue 24/7. However, it raises a question about authentication. We want the BITS server extensions in IIS to use Kerberos to authenticate the client machine. As far as I can tell, that leaves us with only 2 options, both of which are not ideal: Either we create an "ImageUploader" account and store its username/password in a config file that the Windows Service uses as credentials for the BITS job, or we ask the logged on user who creates the BITS job for his password, and then use his credentials for the BITS job. I guess the third option is not to use Kerberos, and maybe go with Basic Auth plus SSL. I'm sure I'm wrong and there's a better option. Is there? Thanks in advance.

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• Execute javascript on IIS server

  - by James Westgate

  I have the following situation. A customer uses JavaScript with jQuery to create a complex website. We would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server (IIS) for the following reasons: Skills transfer - we would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server and not have to use eg VB Script. / classic asp. .Net framework/Java etc is ruled out because of this. Improved options for search/accessibility. We would like to be able to use jQuery as a templating system, but this isn't viable for search engines and users with js turned off - unless we can selectively run this code on the server. There is significant investment in IIS and Windows Server, so changing that is not an option. I know you can run jScript on IIS using windows Script host, but am unsure of the scalability and the process surrounding this. I am also unsure whether this would have access to the DOM. Here is a diagram that hopefully explains the situation. I was wondering if anyone has done anything similar?

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• Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

  - by I82Much

  All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

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• How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

  - by Tchalvak

  I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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• Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

  - by Telos

  I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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• UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

  - by hadronzoo

  I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

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• python eval weirdness

  - by amadain

  Hi Folks I have the following code in one of my classes along with checks when the code does not eval: filterParam="self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" if eval(filterParam): print "Evalled" else: print "Not Evalled\nfilterParam\n'%s'\ntmpBPSS\n'%s'\nself.recipientMSISDN\n'%s'\nself.recipientIMSI\n'%s'" % (filterParam, tmpBPSS, self.recipientMSISDN, self.recipientIMSI) I am not getting anything to 'eval'. Here are the results: Not Evalled filterParam 'self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]' tmpBPSS 'bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' self.recipientMSISDN '919844000039' self.recipientIMSI '892000000' So I used the outputs from the above to check the code in a python shell and as you can see the code evalled correctly: >>> filterParam="recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" >>> tmpBPSS='bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' >>> recipientMSISDN='919844000039' >>> recipientIMSI='892000000' >>> if eval(filterParam): ... print "Evalled" ... else: ... print "Not Evalled" ... Evalled Am I off my rocker or what am I missing? A

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• git: how to not delete files when rebasing commits with file deletion

  - by Benjol

  I have a branch that I would like to rebase onto the lastest commit on my master. The problem is that one of the intervening commits on master was to delete and ignore a particular set of files (see this question). If I just do a straight rebase, those files will get deleted again. Is there anyway of doing this, inside git, rather than copying all the files out by hand, then copying them back in again afterwards? Or should I do something like create a new branch off master, then merge in just the commits from the old branch? Attempts ascii art: master branch | w work in progress on branch C | committed further changes on master | | B / committed delete/ignore files on master | 2 committed changes on branch | / A / committed changes on master which I now need to get branch working | 1 committed changes on branch 0___/ created branch (Doing the art, I realise that I could just rebase branch from A, then merge when I've finished, but I'd still like to know if there's a way to do this 'properly') UPDATE Warning to anyone trying this. The solution proposed here is fine, but when you checkout master again, the B commit will be re-applied, and you lose all your files again :(

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• Nhibernat mapping aspnet_Users table

  - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick

  My User table I want to map to aspnet_Users: <class name="User" table="`User`"> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="Guid" not-null="true" /> <property name="FullName" column="FullName" type="String" not-null="true" /> <property name="PhoneNumber" column="PhoneNumber" type="String" not-null="false" /> </class> My aspnet_Users table: <class name="aspnet_Users" table="aspnet_Users"> <id name="ID" column="UserId" type="Guid" /> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="string" not-null="false" /> </class> I tried adding one-to-one, one-to-many and many-to-one mappings. The closest I can get is with this error: Object of type 'System.Guid' cannot be converted to type 'System.Int32'. How do I create a 1 way mapping from User to aspnet_User via the UserId column in User? I am only wanting to create a reference so I can extract read-only information, affect sorts, etc. I still need to leave UserId column in User set up like it is now. Maybe a virtual reference keying off of UserId? Is this even possible with Nhibernate? Unfortunately it acts like it only wants to use ID from User to map to aspnet_Users. Changing the table User to have it's primary key be UserId instead of ID is not an option at this point. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• Saving a record in Authlogic table

  - by denniss

  I am using authlogic to do my authentication. The current model that serves as the authentication model is the user model. I want to add a "belongs to" relationship to user which means that I need a foreign key in the user table. Say the foreign key is called car_id in the user's model. However, for some reason, when I do u = User.find(1) u.car_id = 1 u.save! I get ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Password can't be blank My guess is that this has something to do with authlogic. I do not have validation on password on the user's model. This is the migration for the user's table. def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :email t.string :first_name t.string :last_name t.string :crypted_password t.string :password_salt t.string :persistence_token t.string :single_access_token t.string :perishable_token t.integer :login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.integer :failed_login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_request_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :current_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :current_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :last_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.timestamps end end And later I added the car_id column to it. def self.up add_column :users, :user_id, :integer end Is there anyway for me to turn off this validation?

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• NTLM Authentication fails when behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. I have sniffed the traffic, and noticed the following: Behind Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx Without Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 6 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx When running the code from a network without a proxy server, I successfully Authentication with the server, but when I'm behind the proxy server, the traffic is cut-off at the 5th message, and thus don't succeed. I know from the Java docs that On Microsoft Windows platforms, NTLM authentication attempts to acquire the user credentials from the system without prompting the user's authenticator object. If these credentials are not accepted by the server then the user's authenticator will be called. Given that my Authentication code is called only ones, and only as the 5th attempt, it appears as if the connection is dropped when behind the proxy server before my Authentication object is used. Is there any way I can control the behavior of Authentication module, to not have it use the system credentials? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text Br Jan

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• iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

  - by Oliver

  Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

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• silverlight security with WCF service, Forms Authentication and Custom Form Ticket

  - by user74825

  I have a silverlight application with login on the silverlight page. It uses Forms Authentication with WCF authentication service and customer Membership Provider. Something like : http://blogs.msdn.com/phaniraj/archive/2009/09/10/using-the-ado-net-data-services-silverlight-client-library-in-x-domain-and-out-of-browser-scenarios-ii-forms-authentication.aspx So, SL page login page calls the WCF service authentication service, it validates using DB - brings back username and password. Now, in each subsequent calls (in Global.asax in Authenticate_Request, I get HttpContext.User.IsAuthenticated and HttpContext.User.UserName). I have all this working properly. But, I just don't want the username, but more information surrounding the user, like UserId, UserAddress, UserAssociateCustomer etc. I tried couple of different approaches. 1) Use HttpContext.Cache as a dictionary to save the item and get it off based on httpcontext.user.name, problem is cache can be erased if there memory is being used heavily. 2) Tried CustomFormsAuth Ticket, when forms authentication writes a ticket, I intercept CreatingCookie method and write additional info in formauthentication ticket, so that I can read it in subsequent requests, I am having problems with this approach, I don't find the ticket in subsequent requests. I read about how we should use REsponse.Redirect, but where do I redirect user from WCF call. How do you guys implement the above scenario? Any best practices.? Any issues you see with going on HTTPS? All examples (or most of them) just explains simple forms authentication with "I am logged in message".. Any suggestions ?

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• How to run R through PHP with exec?

  - by dkar

  I am going to ask something, that I know that it has been asked already some times. But since, all of the past posts are quite old and none of them answer my problem..I try again. I am completely new in R language and relative new in php. What I want to do is to use the exec() function from php in order to execute a R script. Most of the people here will start talking about rapache, rserve and I don't know what else..but since I am not familiar with all these technologies, I prefer just using exec. The code I will show here is working just fine when I run it with Rscript from the terminal. # R script png("temp.png") plot(5,5) dev.off() But when I try to run it either with Rscript or with R CMD BATCH from PHP, like this: echo exec("Rscript my_rscript.R"); //OR //echo exec("R CMD BATCH my_rscript.R"); I get nothing back. I have checked if exec() function is available and if it works. Everything is ok with this. I read also, that I might have to change the permissions of the webserver...but I don't know how to do this in mamp. I hope I am clear with my problem and someone can help. Thanks Dimitris

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• Redirect website from http to https

  - by MaG3Stican

  I have a website stored on azure for which I got an SSL certificate. I am trying to redirect www.mywebsite.com to https://www.mywebsite.com but with no success. I am using the following code that should change the configuration of IIS where my project is deployed : <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to HTTPS"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="off" ignoreCase="true" /> <add input="{URL}" pattern="/$" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="https://{SERVER_NAME}/{R:1}" redirectType="SeeOther" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> But when I type my URL it does not redirect to https. By the way, rewrite appears unrecorgnized by Intellisense.

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• Detect IE version in Javascript

  - by Chad Decker

  I want to bounce users of our web site to an error page if they're using a version of Internet Explorer prior to v9. It's just not worth our time and money to support IE pre-v9. Users of all other non-IE browsers are fine and shouldn't be bounced. Here's the proposed code: if(navigator.appName.indexOf("Internet Explorer")!=-1){ //yeah, he's using IE var badBrowser=( navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 9")==-1 && //v9 is ok navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 1")==-1 //v10, 11, 12, etc. is fine too ); if(badBrowser){ // navigate to error page } } Will this code do the trick? To head off a few comments that will probably be coming my way: [1] Yes, I know that users can forge their useragent string. I'm not concerned. [2] Yes, I know that programming pros prefer sniffing out feature-support instead of browser-type but I don't feel this approach makes sense in this case. I already know that all (relevant) non-IE browsers support the features that I need and that all pre-v9 IE browsers don't. Checking feature by feature throughout the site would be a waste. [3] Yes, I know that someone trying to access the site using IE v1 (or = 20) wouldn't get 'badBrowser' set to true and the warning page wouldn't be displayed properly. That's a risk we're willing to take. [4] Yes, I know that Microsoft has "conditional comments" that can be used for precise browser version detection. IE no longer supports conditional comments as of IE 10, rendering this approach absolutely useless. Any other obvious issues to be aware of? Thanks.

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• Flash - Uploading to and Downloading from localhost

  - by Md Derf

  I have an online flash application that acts as a front end for a server application built in delphi. The server can be installed/used on a remote computer or a personal version can be downloaded and the Flash app pointed at localhost to use it. However, Flash has issues with using the POST and GET functions on the localhost, which makes uploading data files and downloading results files difficult. To get past the difficulty with downloading results files I'm planning to just have the server app serve the results file as an attachment and have the Flash app open the address of the file up in another browser window using external interface. First off, is this likely to cause similar security issues? I.E. Flash will see "localhost" in the external interface call and stop it from working the same as when I try to use POST/GET functions with localhost? Secondly, for upload this seems just a bit little trickier, I'm planning on doing something similar, having flash use external interface to open a php script for a file upload. Is this feasible and, again, will Flash still have security issues? Lastly, if anyone knows how to get flash to execute POST and GET functions with localhost addresses, I'd love to have that information to avoid all this jumping through hoops.

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