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  • C# Event Handlers Using an Enum

    - by Jimbo
    I have a StatusChanged event that is raised by my object when its status changes - however, the application needs to carry out additional actions based on what the new status is. e.g If the new status is Disconnected, then it must update the status bar text and send an email notification. So, I wanted to create an Enum with the possible statuses (Connected, Disconnected, ReceivingData, SendingData etc.) and have that sent with the EventArgs parameter of the event when it is raised (see below) Define the object: class ModemComm { public event CommanderEventHandler ModemCommEvent; public delegate void CommanderEventHandler(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e); public void Connect() { ModemCommEvent(this, new ModemCommEventArgs ModemCommEventArgs.eModemCommEvent.Connected)); } } Define the new EventArgs parameter: public class ModemCommEventArgs : EventArgs{ public enum eModemCommEvent { Idle, Connected, Disconnected, SendingData, ReceivingData } public eModemCommEvent eventType { get; set; } public string eventMessage { get; set; } public ModemCommEventArgs(eModemCommEvent eventType, string eventMessage) { this.eventMessage = eventMessage; this.eventType = eventType; } } I then create a handler for the event in the application: ModemComm comm = new ModemComm(); comm.ModemCommEvent += OnModemCommEvent; and private void OnModemCommEvent(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e) { } The problem is, I get a 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' error when the object attempts to raise the event. Hoping someone can explain in n00b terms why and how to fix it :)

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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  • How to populate Range variable from a Sub/Function call?

    - by Ken Ingram
    I am trying to get this sub to work but the operationalRange variable is not being assigned. Despite the fact that the function selectBodyRow(bodyName) works fine. Sub sortRows(bodyName As String, ByRef wksht As Worksheet) Dim operationalRange As Range Set operationalRange = selectBodyRow(bodyName) Debug.Print "Sorting Worksheet: " & wksht.Name If Not operationalRange Is Nothing Then operationalRange.Select Debug.Print "Sorting " & operationalRange.Count & "Rows." ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(wksht.Name).Sort.SortFields.Clear ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(wksht.Name).Sort.SortFields.Add Key:=operationalRange, _ SortOn:=xlSortOnValues, Order:=xlAscending, DataOption:=xlSortNormal ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(wksht.Name).Sort.SortFields.Add Key:=operationalRange, _ SortOn:=xlSortOnValues, Order:=xlAscending, DataOption:=xlSortNormal With ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(wksht.Name).Sort .SetRange operationalRange .Header = xlGuess .MatchCase = False .Orientation = xlTopToBottom .SortMethod = xlPinYin .Apply End With Else MsgBox "Body is not being Set" End If End Sub The Sub being called by the above Sub is: Function selectBodyRow(bodyName As String) As Range Dim rangeStart As String, rangeEnd As String Dim selectionStart As Range, selectionEnd As Range Dim result As Range, srchRng As Range, cngrs As Variant If bodyName = "WEST" Then rangeStart = "<-WEST START->" rangeEnd = "<-WEST END->" ElseIf bodyName = "EAST" Then rangeStart = "<-EAST START->" rangeEnd = "<-EAST END->" End If Set srchRng = Range("A:A") srchRng.Select Set selectionStart = srchRng.Find(What:=rangeStart, After:=ActiveCell, LookIn _ :=xlValues, LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:= _ xlNext, MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) Set selectionEnd = srchRng.Find(What:=rangeEnd, After:=ActiveCell, LookIn _ :=xlValues, LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:= _ xlNext, MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) Set result = Range(selectionStart.Offset(1, 0), selectionEnd.Offset(-1, 0)) result.EntireRow.Select End Function

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  • c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

    - by Moe Sisko
    Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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  • GROUP BY ID range?

    - by d0ugal
    Given a data set like this; +-----+---------------------+--------+ | id | date | result | +-----+---------------------+--------+ | 121 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 122 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 123 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 124 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 125 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 126 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 127 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 128 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 129 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 130 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 131 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 132 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 133 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 134 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 135 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 136 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 137 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 138 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 1 | | 139 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 0 | | 140 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | +-----+---------------------+--------+ How would I go about grouping the results by day 5 records at a time. The above results is part of the live data, there is over 100,000 results rows in the table and its growing. Basically I want to measure the change over time, so want to take a SUM of the result every X records. In the real data I'll be doing it ever 100 or 1000 but for the data above perhaps every 5. If i could sort it by date I would do something like this; SELECT DATE_FORMAT(date, '%h%i') ym, COUNT(result) 'Total Games', SUM(result) as 'Score' FROM nn_log GROUP BY ym; I can't figure out a way of doing something similar with numbers. The order is sorted by the date but I hope to split the data up every x results. It's safe to assume there are no blank rows. Doing it above with the data you could do multiple selects like; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 0,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 5,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 10,5; Thats obviously not a very good way to scale up to a bigger problem. I could just write a loop but I'd like to reduce the number of queries.

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • Display two array's in the same table

    - by Naeem Ahmed
    $row = $query->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $num_rows = count($row); for ($i = 0; $i < $num_rows; $i++) { $title = htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['title']); $author =htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['author']); $school =htmlspecialchars($row[$i]['school']); $solution = $row[$i]['solution']; $notes = $row[$i]['notes']; $ad = array($title, $price, $author, $school, $contact, $content, $date); $inlcude = array($solutions, $notes); $field = 0; echo "<table border='1'>"; // foreach($inlcude as $in) This failled miserably foreach ($ad as $post) { if ($field < 3) //The first three values are placed in the first row { echo "<td>$post</td>"; } if ($field >= 3) { echo "<tr><td>$post</td><td>$in</td></tr>"; } $field++; } echo '</table>'; } I have two arrays and I would like to display them in different columns in my table. $ad displays perfectly fine but I'm having trouble displaying the contents in $inlcude in the second column. I've tried putting another foreach loop to iterate through contents of the second array but that really screws up my table by placing random values in different places on the table. Besides the foreach loop, I don't know of any other way to iterate through the array. Any suggestions would be appreciated.Thanks!

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  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

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  • Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

    - by Joshua Starner
    I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

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  • How can I embed images within my application and use them in HTML control?

    - by Atara
    Is there any way I can embed the images within my exe (as resource?) and use it in generated HTML ? Here are the requirements: A. I want to show dynamic HTML content (e.g. using webBrowser control, VS 2008, VB .Net, winForm desktop application) B. I want to generate the HTML on-the-fly using XML and XSL (file1.xml or file2.xml transformed by my.xsl) C. The HTML may contain IMG tags (file1.gif and or file2.gif according to the xml+xsl transformation) and here comes the complicated one: D. All these files (file1.xml, file2.xml, my.xsl, file1.gif, file2.gif) should be embedded in one exe file. I guess the XML and XSL can be embedded resources, and I can read them as stream, but what ways do I have to reference the image within the HTML ? <IMG src="???" /> I do not want to use absolute path and external files. If the image files are resources, can I use relative path? Relative to what? (I can use BASE tag, and then what?) Can I use stream as in email messages? If so, where can I find the format I need to use? http://www.websiteoptimization.com/speed/tweak/inline-images/ are browser dependent. What is the browser used by webBrowser control? IE? what version? Does it matter if I use GIF or JPG or BMP (or any other image format) for the images? Does it matter if I use mshtml library and not the regular webBrowser control? (currently I use http://www.itwriting.com/htmleditor/index.php ) Does it matter if I upgrade to VS 2010 ? Thanks, Atara

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  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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  • Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

    - by glenjohnson
    Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

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  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • How to select LI except first and second ?

    - by Wazdesign
    Here is the structure of the content, I want to select all LI except the first two (ie no-link) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var nosubnav = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))'); var nosubnavsize = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))').size(); jQuery(nosubnav).css('border' , '1px solid red'); alert('List item which does not have submenu '+nosubnavsize); }); div class="navigation-container"> <ul class="first-level"> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link2.1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link2.2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link 2.2.1</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#">Link </a></li> </ul> </div> related Question : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771801/how-to-count-li-which-does-not-have-ul

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  • Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

    - by Zane Geiger
    So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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  • Need to reload current_cart to get the test passed

    - by leomayleomay
    I'm testing my online store app with RSpec, here's what I'm doing: # spec/controllers/line_items_controller_spec.rb require 'spec_helper' describe LineItemsController do describe "POST 'create'" do before do @current_cart = Factory(:cart) controller.stub!(:current_cart).and_return(@current_cart) end it 'should merge two same line_items into one' do @product = Factory(:product, :name => "Tee") post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} assert LineItem.count.should == 1 assert LineItem.first.quantity.should == 2 end end end # app/controllers/line_items_controller.rb class LineItemsController < ApplicationController def create current_cart.line_items.each do |line_item| if line_item.product_id == params[:product_id] line_item.quantity += 1 if line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end return end end @line_item = current_cart.line_items.new(:product_id => params[:product_id]) if @line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end end end The problem right now is it never added up two line_items having the same product into one, because the second time I entered into the line_items_controller#create, the current_cart.line_items is [], I have run current_cart.reload to get the test passed, any idea what's going wrong?

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  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

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  • Java: Ignoring escapes when parsing XML

    - by Personman
    I'm using a DocumentBuilder to parse XML files. However, the specification for the project requires that within text nodes, strings like " and < be returned literally, and not turned into the corresponding ASCII values. A previous similar question, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1979785/read-escaped-quote-as-escaped-quote-from-xml, received one answer that seems to be specific to Apache, and another that appears to simply not not do what it says it does. I'd love to be proven wrong on either count, however :) For reference, here is some code: file = new File(fileName); DocBderFac = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocBder = DocBderFac.newDocumentBuilder(); doc = DocBder.parse(file); NodeList textElmntLst = doc.getElementsByTagName(text); Element textElmnt = (Element) textElmntLst.item(0); NodeList txts = textElmnt.getChildNodes(); String txt = ((Node) txts.item(0)).getNodeValue(); System.out.println(txt); I would like that println() to produce things like &quot;3&gt;2&quot; instead of "3>2" which is what currently happens. Thanks!

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  • Parsing multiple files at a time in Perl

    - by sfactor
    I have a large data set (around 90GB) to work with. There are data files (tab delimited) for each hour of each day and I need to perform operations in the entire data set. For example, get the share of OSes which are given in one of the columns. I tried merging all the files into one huge file and performing the simple count operation but it was simply too huge for the server memory. So, I guess I need to perform the operation each file at a time and then add up in the end. I am new to perl and am especially naive about the performance issues. How do I do such operations in a case like this. As an example two columns of the file are. ID OS 1 Windows 2 Linux 3 Windows 4 Windows Lets do something simple, counting the share of the OSes in the data set. So, each .txt file has millions of these lines and there are many such files. What would be the most efficient way to operate on the entire files.

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • C++ Pointer member function with templates assignment with a member function of another class

    - by Agusti
    Hi, I have this class: class IShaderParam{ public: std::string name_value; }; template<class TParam> class TShaderParam:public IShaderParam{ public: void (TShaderParam::*send_to_shader)( const TParam&,const std::string&); TShaderParam():send_to_shader(NULL){} TParam value; void up_to_shader(); }; typedef TShaderParam<float> FloatShaderParam; typedef TShaderParam<D3DXVECTOR3> Vec3ShaderParam; In another class, I have a vector of IShaderParams* and functions that i want to send to "send_to_shader". I'm trying assign the reference of these functions like this: Vec3ShaderParam *_param = new Vec3ShaderParam; _param-send_to_shader = &TShader::setVector3; This is the function: void TShader::setVector3(const D3DXVECTOR3 &vec, const std::string &name){ //... } And this is the class with IshaderParams*: class TShader{ std::vector params; public: Shader effect; std::string technique_name; TShader(std::string& afilename):effect(NULL){}; ~TShader(); void setVector3(const D3DXVECTOR3 &vec, const std::string &name); When I compile the project with Visual Studio C++ Express 2008 I recieve this error: Error 2 error C2440: '=' :can't make the conversion 'void (__thiscall TShader::* )(const D3DXVECTOR3 &,const std::string &)' a 'void (__thiscall TShaderParam::* )(const TParam &,const std::string &)' c:\users\isagoras\documents\mcv\afoc\shader.cpp 127 Can I do the assignment? No? I don't know how :-S Yes, I know that I can achieve the same objective with other techniques, but I want to know how can I do this..

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  • Dynamically add data stored in php to nested json

    - by HoGo
    I am trying to dynamicaly generate data in json for jQuery gantt chart. I know PHP but am totally green with JavaScript. I have read dozen of solutions on how dynamicaly add data to json, and tried few dozens of combinations and nothing. Here is the json format: var data = [{ name: "Sprint 0", desc: "Analysis", values: [{ from: "/Date(1320192000000)/", to: "/Date(1322401600000)/", label: "Requirement Gathering", customClass: "ganttRed" }] },{ name: " ", desc: "Scoping", values: [{ from: "/Date(1322611200000)/", to: "/Date(1323302400000)/", label: "Scoping", customClass: "ganttRed" }] }, <!-- Somoe more data--> }]; now I have all data in php db result. Here it goes: $rows=$db->fetchAllRows($result); $rowsNum=count($rows); And this is how I wanted to create json out of it: var data=''; <?php foreach ($rows as $row){ ?> data['name']="<?php echo $row['name'];?>"; data['desc']="<?php echo $row['desc'];?>"; data['values'] = {"from" : "/Date(<?php echo $row['from'];?>)/", "to" : "/Date(<?php echo $row['to'];?>)/", "label" : "<?php echo $row['label'];?>", "customClass" : "ganttOrange"}; } However this does not work. I have tried without loop and replacing php variables with plain text just to check, but it did not work either. Displays chart without added items. If I add new item by adding it to the list of values, it works. So there is no problem with the Gantt itself or paths. Based on all above I assume the problem is with adding plain data to json. Can anyone please help me to fix it?

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  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

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