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  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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  • Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

    - by Gohlool
    Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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  • Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

    - by Coesy
    Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • PHP and MySQL validating problem

    - by IPADvsSLATE
    I'm trying to check if a color is already entered into the database if it is the color should not be entered and stored into the database and the following error code <p>This color has already been entered!</p> should be displayed. But for some reason I cant get this to work, can someone please help me? The color names are entered into $_POST['color'] which is an array entered by the user. Here is the html code that collects the colors. <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> Here is the PHP & MySQL code. for($i=0; $i < count($_POST['color']); $i++) { $color = "'" . $_POST['color'][$i] . "'"; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT * FROM colors WHERE color = '$color' AND user = '$user_id' "); if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == TRUE) { echo '<p>This color has already been entered!</p>'; } else if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { // enter the color into the database }

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  • scanf a byte then print it out?

    - by Sarah
    I've searched around to see if I can find this answer but I can't seem to (please let me know if I'm wrong). I am trying to use scanf to read in a byte, an unsigned int and a char in one .c file and I am trying to access this byte in a different .c file and print it out. (I have already checked to make sure I have included all the appropriate parameters everywhere) But I keep getting errors. The warnings are: database.c: In function ‘addCitizen’: database.c:23:2: warning: format ‘%hhu’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘byte *’ [-Wformat] database.c:24:2: warning: format ‘%u’ expects argument of type ‘unsigned int’, but argument 2 has type ‘int *’ [-Wformat] database.c:25:2: warning: format ‘%c’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘char *’ [-Wformat] where I'm scanf'ing: // Request loop while (count-- != 0) { while (1){ // Get values from the user int error = scanf ("%79s %hhu %u %c", tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); addCitizen(db, tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); where I'm printing: void addCitizen(Database *db, char *tname, byte *tdist, int *tyear, char *tgender){ //needs to find the right place in memory to put this stuff and then put it there printf("\nName is: %79s\n", tname); printf("District is: %hhu\n", tdist); printf("Year of birth is: %u\n", tyear); printf("Gender is:%c\n", tgender); I'm not sure where I'm going wrong?

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • Modelling in Agile Development

    - by bertzzie
    I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

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  • Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

    - by ILya
    Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • Debug formatting code

    - by Arcadian
    I'm trying to debug my code here: private void CheckFormatting() { StringReader objReaderf = new StringReader(txtInput.Text); List<String> formatTextList = new List<String>(); do { formatTextList.Add(objReaderf.ReadLine()); } while (objReaderf.Peek() != -1); objReaderf.Close(); for (int i = 0; i < formatTextList.Count; i++) { if (!Regex.IsMatch(formatTextList[i], "G[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2} JG[0-9]{2")) { MessageBox.Show("Line " + formatTextList[i] + " is not formatted correctly.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); break; } else { this.WriteToFile(); MessageBox.Show("Your entries have been saved.", "Saved", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } } } what it is supposed to do is to check each line in the list. if one of them isn't formatted correctly, then break the loop and display a message box, if all the lines are formatted properly then it should call the WriteToFile method. However, when testing it using input that WAS correctly formatted it displayed the error message and broke the loop. Anyone figure out why? There's some rep points in it for you :) Thanks in advance

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  • query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

    - by Andrew Heath
    One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

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  • vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

    - by mazrabul
    Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

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  • Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

    - by Coder
    Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

    - by John
    Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

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  • Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • Get ViewData IList back on postback in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Thomas
    I have the following in my view: <%using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <% foreach (var item in Model.Cart) { %> <div> <%= Html.TextBox("Cart.Quantity", item.Quantity, new { maxlength = "2" })%> <%= Html.Hidden("Cart.ItemID", item.ItemID)%> </div> <% } %> <input name="update" type="image" src="image.gif" /> <% } % I then have this code in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { CartViewData cartViewData = new CartViewData(); IList<Item> items = ItemManager.GetItems(); cartViewData.Cart = items; return View("Index", cartViewData); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(CartViewData cartViewData) { // cartviewData is null } Is there a way to grab the List on the postback to see if the values in the textboxes have changed? Thanks Below is a simplified example since it was requested: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="removeItem(<%= Model.Cart[i].ShoppingCartItemID %>);">Remove</a> <% } %> Hope this helps.

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  • Adding array to an object breaks the array

    - by DisgruntledGoat
    I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

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  • Running a Model::find in for loop in cakephp v1.3

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Hi all, How can I achieve the following result in cakephp: In my application a Topic is related to category, category is related to city and city is finally related to state in other words: topic belongs to category, category belongs to city , city belongs to state.. Now in the Topic controller's index action I want to find out all the topics and it's city and state. How can I do this. I can easily do this using a custom query ($this-Model-query() function ) but then I will be facing pagination difficulties. I tried doing like this function index() { $this->Topic->recursive = 0; $topics = $this->paginate(); for($i=0; $i<count($topics);$i++) { $topics[$i]['City'] = $this->Topic->Category->City->find('all', array('conditions' => array('City.id' => $topics[$i]['Category']['city_id']))); } $this->set(compact('messages')); } The method that I have adopted is not a good one (running query in a loop) Using the recursive property and setting it to highest value (2) will degrade performance and is not going to yield me state information. How shall I solve this ? Please help Thanks

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  • A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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