Search Results

Search found 19393 results on 776 pages for 'reference count'.

Page 640/776 | < Previous Page | 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647  | Next Page >

• Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

  Read the article

• Modelling in Agile Development

  - by bertzzie

  I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

  Read the article

• NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

  - by wheaties

  We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

  Read the article

• Why do Scala maps have poor performance relative to Java?

  - by Mike Hanafey

  I am working on a Scala app that consumes large amounts of CPU time, so performance matters. The prototype of the system was written in Python, and performance was unacceptable. The application does a lot with inserting and manipulating data in maps. Rex Kerr's Thyme was used to look at the performance of updating and retrieving data from maps. Basically "n" random Ints were stored in maps, and retrieved from the maps, with the time relative to java.util.HashMap used as a reference. The full results for a range of "n" are here. Sample (n=100,000) performance relative to java, smaller is worse: Update Read Mutable 16.06% 76.51% Immutable 31.30% 20.68% I do not understand why the scala immutable map beats the scala mutable map in update performance. Using the sizeHint on the mutable map does not help (it appears to be ignored in the tested implementation, 2.10.3). Even more surprisingly the immutable read performance is worse than the mutable read performance, more significantly so with larger maps. The update performance of the scala mutable map is surprisingly bad, relative to both scala immutable and plain Java. What is the explanation?

  Read the article

• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

  - by Coesy

  Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

  Read the article

• Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

  - by Ola Tuvesson

  I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

  Read the article

• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

  Read the article

• Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

  - by John

  Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

  Read the article

• query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

  - by Andrew Heath

  One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

  Read the article

• jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

  - by user1352530

  HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

  Read the article

• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

  Read the article

• Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

  - by Gohlool

  Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

  - by Groky

  I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

  Read the article

• Get ViewData IList back on postback in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Thomas

  I have the following in my view: <%using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <% foreach (var item in Model.Cart) { %> <div> <%= Html.TextBox("Cart.Quantity", item.Quantity, new { maxlength = "2" })%> <%= Html.Hidden("Cart.ItemID", item.ItemID)%> </div> <% } %> <input name="update" type="image" src="image.gif" /> <% } % I then have this code in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { CartViewData cartViewData = new CartViewData(); IList<Item> items = ItemManager.GetItems(); cartViewData.Cart = items; return View("Index", cartViewData); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(CartViewData cartViewData) { // cartviewData is null } Is there a way to grab the List on the postback to see if the values in the textboxes have changed? Thanks Below is a simplified example since it was requested: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="removeItem(<%= Model.Cart[i].ShoppingCartItemID %>);">Remove</a> <% } %> Hope this helps.

  Read the article

• How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

  - by Shashi

  I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

  Read the article

• vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

  - by mazrabul

  Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

  - by Øystein

  Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

  Read the article

• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

  Read the article

• Running a Model::find in for loop in cakephp v1.3

  - by Gaurav Sharma

  Hi all, How can I achieve the following result in cakephp: In my application a Topic is related to category, category is related to city and city is finally related to state in other words: topic belongs to category, category belongs to city , city belongs to state.. Now in the Topic controller's index action I want to find out all the topics and it's city and state. How can I do this. I can easily do this using a custom query ($this-Model-query() function ) but then I will be facing pagination difficulties. I tried doing like this function index() { $this->Topic->recursive = 0; $topics = $this->paginate(); for($i=0; $i<count($topics);$i++) { $topics[$i]['City'] = $this->Topic->Category->City->find('all', array('conditions' => array('City.id' => $topics[$i]['Category']['city_id']))); } $this->set(compact('messages')); } The method that I have adopted is not a good one (running query in a loop) Using the recursive property and setting it to highest value (2) will degrade performance and is not going to yield me state information. How shall I solve this ? Please help Thanks

  Read the article

• Debug formatting code

  - by Arcadian

  I'm trying to debug my code here: private void CheckFormatting() { StringReader objReaderf = new StringReader(txtInput.Text); List<String> formatTextList = new List<String>(); do { formatTextList.Add(objReaderf.ReadLine()); } while (objReaderf.Peek() != -1); objReaderf.Close(); for (int i = 0; i < formatTextList.Count; i++) { if (!Regex.IsMatch(formatTextList[i], "G[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2} JG[0-9]{2")) { MessageBox.Show("Line " + formatTextList[i] + " is not formatted correctly.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); break; } else { this.WriteToFile(); MessageBox.Show("Your entries have been saved.", "Saved", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } } } what it is supposed to do is to check each line in the list. if one of them isn't formatted correctly, then break the loop and display a message box, if all the lines are formatted properly then it should call the WriteToFile method. However, when testing it using input that WAS correctly formatted it displayed the error message and broke the loop. Anyone figure out why? There's some rep points in it for you :) Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

  - by Coder

  Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

  Read the article

• How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

  - by Ankur

  I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• passenger won't spawn more than 6 instances despite passenger_max_pool_size = 30

  - by mrD

  I have some problems with passenger + nginx and hope someone might be able help me and direct me in the right direction. I've set the passenger_max_pool_size to 30 but passenger never spawns more than 6 instances. I'm loading a webpage that uses ajax to load 30 sub pages from the server but because passenger only spawns 6 instances they are queued. What makes me confused is that Waiting on global queue is 0 but I can see in my browser that everything gets queued. When the first 6 ajax requests are done the next 6 starts loading. What am I missing? :) This is the output from passenger-status (I had about 24 requests in the browser waiting for response from the server when I checked this status) ----------- General information ----------- max = 30 count = 6 active = 6 inactive = 0 Waiting on global queue: 0 ----------- Domains ----------- /srv/rails/production/current: PID: 28428 Sessions: 1 Processed: 42 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28424 Sessions: 1 Processed: 23 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28422 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28420 Sessions: 1 Processed: 22 Uptime: 6m 0s PID: 28426 Sessions: 1 Processed: 39 Uptime: 5m 43s PID: 28430 Sessions: 1 Processed: 7 Uptime: 5m 43s These are my passenger related settings in nginx.conf http { passenger_root /opt/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /opt/ruby/bin/ruby; passenger_max_pool_size 30;

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647  | Next Page >