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  • SELECT product from subclass: How many queries do I need?

    - by Stefano
    I am building a database similar to the one described here where I have products of different type, each type with its own attributes. I report a short version for convenience product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id ... (common attributes to all product) magazine ======== magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id ... (magazine-specific attributes) web_site ======== web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id ... (web-site specific attributes) This way I do not need to make a huge table with a column for each attribute of different product types (most of which will then be NULL) How do I SELECT a product by product.product_id and see all its attributes? Do I have to make a query first to know what type of product I am dealing with and then, through some logic, make another query to JOIN the right tables? Or is there a way to join everything together? (if, when I retrieve the information about a product_id there are a lot of NULL, it would be fine at this point). Thank you

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  • I want a function to return a type of the subclass its invoked from

    - by Jay
    I want to have a function defined in a superclass that returns a value of the type of the subclass that is used to invoke the function. That is, say I have class A with a function plugh. Then I create subclasses B and C that extend A. I want B.plugh to return a B and C.plugh to return a C. Yes, they could return an A, but then the caller would have to either cast it to the right subtype, which is a pain when used a lot, or declare the receiving variable to be of the supertype, which loses type safety. So I was trying to do this with generics, writing something like this: class A<T extends A> { private T foo; public T getFoo() { return foo; } } class B extends A<B> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } class C extends A<C> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } This appears to work but it looks pretty ugly. For one thing, I get warnings on "class A". The compiler says that A is generic and I should specify the type. I guess it wants me to say "class A". But what would I put in for x? I think I could get stuck in an infinite loop here. It seems weird to write "class B extends A", but this causes no complaints, so maybe that's just fine. Is this the right way to do it? Is there a better way?

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  • Reference - What does this error mean in PHP?

    - by hakre
    On Stackoverflow you can see a lot of questions popping up about errors. Some users do not even know that error messages exists, others are asking about code that gives an error message but they do not understand the error message. If the error message is common, many questions about the same kind of error appears, but it is hard to find existing Q&A about the topic. Please add "your favorite" error message, one per answer, a short description what it means (even if it is only highlighting terms to their manual page) and a listing of existing Q&A that are of value. This will create a list. The question is a community wiki, so you are not answering for reputation but for creating a reference list for new users. It's based on error messages. Compare with the existing Reference - What does this symbol mean in PHP? question, which works pretty well. What are common errors in PHP and what are their Solutions. Index of Errors Just starting, but there are already some: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in ... on line Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_XXX in YYY on line ZZZ Fatal Error: Call to a member function ... on a non-object

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  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

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  • Why Is the sender type null when dealing with events

    - by ChloeRadshaw
    From C# Via CLR: Note A lot of people wonder why the event pattern requires the sender parameter to always be of type Object After all, since the MailManager will be the only type raising an event with a NewMail EventArgs object, it makes more sense for the callback method to be prototyped like this: void MethodName(Mai l Manager sender, NewMail EventArgs e); The pattern requires the sender parameter to be of type Object mostly because of inheritance What if Mai lManager were used as a base class for SmtpMailManager? In this case, the callback method should have the sender parameter prototyped as SmtpMailManager instead of Mail Manager, but this can’t happen because SmtpMai lManager just inherited the NewMai l event So the code that was expecting SmtpMail Manager to raise the event must still have to cast the sender argument to SmtpMailManager In other words, the cast is still required, so the sender parameter might as well be typed as Obj ect The next reason for typing the sender parameter as Obj ect is just fexibility It allows the delegate to be used by multiple types that offer an event that passes a NewMail EventArgs object For example, a PopMai lManager class could use the delegate even if this class were not derived from Mail Manager I just simply cannot understand why the sender is an object - Why can it not be generified? so most of the time we do not need to do generic casts

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  • jQuery selectable with a single element deselected by clicking

    - by BerggreenDK
    I would like to be able to deselect a selected item by clicking or using lasso, just like in Photoshop where I keep another key down to "deselect" parts of an existing selection. Is this possible? As I understand "jQuery UI selectable". There is only "single click" with or without CTRL to add multiple and then the quick lasso. I am trying to see how it would be possible to deselect, one or two elements of a whole selection by clicking them off again. Eg, you drag the lasso and get 30 elements but finds that 1 does not need to be part of this selection. You click it and deselects it. So something that reacts to the existing selection and removes the choosen element. Or with the lasso, you make a lasso selection. Gets 30 elements. Then you draw a new lasso, this time starting on an already selected element, now it default deselects and so does the rest of the group marked. I believe this should be customizable behaviour for the jQueryUI if anything. But is the "single deselect" possible with a simple jQuery hack or will it demand a lot of code?

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  • Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

    - by dan.codes
    I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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  • Has anyone ever had OpenCV work with Python 2.7 on MacOS 10.6?

    - by ?????
    I've been trying on and off for the past 6 months to get OpenCV to work with Python on MacOS. Every time there's a new release, I try again and fail. I've tried both 64-bit and 32-bit, and both the xcode gcc and gcc installed via macports. I just spend the past two days on it, hopeful that the latest OpenCV release, that appears to include Python support directly would work. It doesn't. I've also tried and failed to use this: http://code.google.com/p/pyopencv/ I've been using OpenCV with C++ or Microsoft C++/CLI for the past few years, but I'd love to use it with Python on a Mac because that is my primary development environment. I'd love to hear from anyone who's actually been able to get the opencv python examples to run under Mac OS 10.6, either 32 or 64-bit. My last attempt was to follow the instructions on this page http://recursive-design.com/blog/2010/12/14/face-detection-with-osx-and-python/ with a clean, fresh install of 10.6 on a 64-bit capable Mac. My PYTHONPATH is set, and I can see the cv library in it. But an "import cv" from python fails. Previously, the closest I've ever gotten (again, staring on a clean, fresh 10.6 install) was this: Python 2.7.1 (r271:86882M, Nov 30 2010, 10:35:34) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5664)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import cv Fatal Python error: Interpreter not initialized (version mismatch?) Abort trap thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ I've seen a lot of folks answering similar questions here, but have never seen an definitive answer for it.

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  • parse a special xml in python

    - by zhaojing
    I have s special xml file like below: <alarm-dictionary source="DDD" type="ProxyComponent"> <alarm code="402" severity="Alarm" name="DDM_Alarm_402"> <message>Database memory usage low threshold crossed</message> <description>dnKinds = database type = quality_of_service perceived_severity = minor probable_cause = thresholdCrossed additional_text = Database memory usage low threshold crossed </description> </alarm> ... </alarm-dictionary> I know in python, I can get the "alarm code", "severity" in tag alarm by: for alarm_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('alarm'): if alarm_tag.hasAttribute('code'): alarmcode = str(alarm_tag.getAttribute('code')) And I can get the text in tag message like below: for messages_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('message'): messages = "" for message_tag in messages_tag.childNodes: if message_tag.nodeType in (message_tag.TEXT_NODE, message_tag.CDATA_SECTION_NODE): messages += message_tag.data But I also want to get the value like dnkind(database), type(quality_of_service), perceived_severity(thresholdCrossed) and probable_cause(Database memory usage low threshold crossed ) in tag description. That is, I also want to parse the content in the tag in xml. Could anyone help me with this? Thanks a lot!

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  • Connection string problems on shared hosting with sql server 2005 express

    - by dagogo
    hi i have problem connecting to my db on a shared hosting, my host provider says they deployed sql 2005 express on their database and i prepared my connection string as follows to take advantage of sql express. \ the data source nae i used originally was ./SQLExpress but my host provider asked that i change it to local host, although with the former it didnt connect, but still with the change as indicated above the error still comes up on access to my default page. the error is as follows; Server Error in '/' Application. Invalid value for key 'attachdbfilename'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: Invalid value for key 'attachdbfilename'. Source Error: Line 120: Public Function GetID(ByVal sLgaName As String) As Integer Line 121: Dim q As String = "Select PLID " & "From LGA " & "Where LGAName = " & "'" & sLgaName & "'" Line 122: Dim cn As New SqlConnection(Me.ConnectionString) Line 123: Dim cmd As New SqlCommand(q, cn) Line 124: ive read up a lot on the web and googled ma fingers numb on this, i have a deadline to deliver this project and having successfully built the app it frustrating for this to happen. pls help me.

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  • Rails: Obfuscating Image URLs on Amazon S3? (security concern)

    - by neezer
    To make a long explanation short, suffice it to say that my Rails app allows users to upload images to the app that they will want to keep in the app (meaning, no hotlinking). So I'm trying to come up with a way to obfuscate the image URLs so that the address of the image depends on whether or not that user is logged in to the site, so if anyone tried hotlinking to the image, they would get a 401 access denied error. I was thinking that if I could route the request through a controller, I could re-use a lot of the authorization I've already built into my app, but I'm stuck there. What I'd like is for my images to be accessible through a URL to one of my controllers, like: http://railsapp.com/images/obfuscated?member_id=1234&pic_id=7890 If the user where to right-click on the image displayed on the website and select "Copy Address", then past it in, it would be the SAME url (as in, wouldn't betray where the image is actually hosted). The actual image would be living on a URL like this: http://s3.amazonaws.com/s3username/assets/member_id/pic_id.extension Is this possible to accomplish? Perhaps using Rails' render method? Or something else? I know it's possible for PHP to return the correct headers to make the browser think it's an image, but I don't know how to do this in Rails... UPDATE: I want all users of the app to be able to view the images if and ONLY if they are currently logged on to the site. If the user does not have a currently active session on the site, accessing the images directly should yield a generic image, or an error message.

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  • Sending custom app logs to developer

    - by Templar
    I'm planning to release a new app in the future. I have a custom logging function which logs some application data (not crashes) into a file (location manager state, app foreground-background transitions, main actions...). These logs helped me a lot to debug problems which were app-related, but not causing a crash. Until now these were in the documents directory (shared in iTunes) and the testers sent them to me after they saw some incorrect behaviors, however I don't want to share them anymore because this directory contains the app's database too. I'd like to obtain these logs even when the app will be on App Store, but I don't know how this should be done. As I wrote, it is a new app and even after the test phase may exist minor bugs. I know that the users can report problems in iTunes or on the Dev site, but without a detailed scenario or log it is really hard to correct a bug. Should I make some kind of in-app bug report functionality (even if this creates a wrong user impression) ? How is this usually handled ? Thanks

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  • sending large data .getJSON or proxy ?

    - by numerical25
    Hey guys. I was told that the only trick to sending data to a external server (i.e x-domain) is to use getJSON. Well my problem is that the data I am sending exceeds the getJSON data limit. I am tracking mouse movements on a screen for analytics. Another option is I could also send a little data at a time. probably every time the mouse moves. but that seems as if it would slow things down. I could setup a proxy server. My question is which would be better? Setting up a proxy server ? or Just sending bits of information via javascript or JQUERY. What do the professionals use (Google and other company's that build mash-ups that send a lot of data to x-domain sites.) I need to know the best practices. Thanx!! Also the data is put into JSON.

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  • [PHP, CSS, & ?] fixed width div, resizing text on the fly based on length

    - by Andrew Heath
    Let's say you've got a simple fixed-width layout that pulls a title from a MySQL database. CSS: #wrapper { width: 800px; } h1 { width: 100%; } HTML: <html> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <h1> $titleString </h1> </div> </body> </html> But the catch is, the length of the title string pulled from your MySQL database varies wildly. Sometimes it might be 10 characters, sometimes it might be 80. It's possible to establish a min & max character count. How, if at all possible, do I get the text-size of my <h1>$titleString</h1> to enlarge/decrease on-the-fly such that the string is only ever on one line and best fit to that line length? I've seen a lot of questions about resizing the div - but in my case the div must always be 100% (800px) and I want to best-fit the title. Obviously a maximum text-size value would have to be set so 5 character strings don't become gargantuan. Does anyone have a suggestion? I'm only using PHP/MySQL/CSS on this page at the moment, but incorporation of another language is fine if it means I can solve the problem. The only thing I can think of is a bruteforce approach whereby through trial and error I establish acceptable string character count ranges matched with CSS em sizes, but that'd be a pretty ugly implementation from the code side.

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  • How to deal with unknown entity references?

    - by Chris
    I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

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  • Creating UTF-8 files in Java from a runnable Jar

    - by RuntimeError
    I have a little Java project where I've set the properties of the class files to UTF-8 (I use a lot of foreign characters not found on the default CP1252). The goal is to create a text file (in Windows) containing a list of items. When running the class files from Eclipse itself (hitting Ctrl+F11) it creates the file flawlessly and opening it in another editor (I'm using Notepad++) I can see the characters as I wanted. +--------------------------------------------------+ ¦ Universidade2010 (18/18)¦ ¦ hidden: 0¦ +--------------------------------------------------¦ But, when I export the project (using Eclipse) as a runnable Jar and run it using 'javaw -jar project.jar' the new file created is a mess of question marks ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? ? Universidade2010 (19/19)? ? hidden: 0? ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? I've followed some tips on how to use UTF-8 (which seems to be broken by default on Java) to try to correct this so now I'm using Writer w = new OutputStreamWriter(fos, "UTF-8"); and writing the BOM header to the file like in this question already answered but still without luck when exporting to Jar Am I missing some property or command-line command so Java knows I want to create UTF-8 files by default ?

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  • How to hadle a tags inside another tags in NSXMLParser

    - by SimpleMan
    I have a file: <xml> <component>something <system>somethingDeeper <value>somethingDeepest</value> </system> </component> <component>somethinfDifferent <value>somethingDifferentDeeper</value> </component> <value>somethingNew</value> </xml> So i want to distinguish what is inside another tag (ex. <system>) what is not. How to do this with NSXMLParser ? I currently use BOOL ivar's but this is a lot of tags and this is not as elegant as i want it to be. I know that NSXMLParser is a SAX parser and i understand that. In above example I will be enter to didEndElement method three times with: elementName equal value Is there a more elegant way to distinguish what entry was from <component> tag above what not?

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  • PHP: Formatting multi-dimensional array as HTML?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, I have tried to get my head around building a recursive function to handle formatting of a unknown depth multi-dimensional array to HTML and nested Divs. I thought that it should be a piece of cake, but no. Here's what I have come up with this far: function formatHtml($array) { $var = '<div>'; foreach ($array as $k => $v) { if (is_array($v['children']) && !empty($v['children'])) { formatHtml($v['children']); } else { $var .= $v['cid']; } } $var.= '</div>'; return $var; } And here's my array: Array ( [1] => Array ( [cid] => 1 [_parent] => [id] => 1 [name] => 'Root category' [children] => Array ( [2] => Array ( [cid] => 2 [_parent] => 1 [id] => 3 [name] => 'Child category' [children] => Array () ) ) ) ) Thanks a lot!

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  • PHP: Extract direct sub directory from path string

    - by Nebs
    I need to extract the name of the direct sub directory from a full path string. For example, say we have: $str = "dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4/filename.ext"; $dir = "dir1/dir2"; Then the name of the sub-directory in the $str path relative to $dir would be "dir3". Note that $dir never has '/' at the ends. So the function should be: $subdir = getsubdir($str,$dir); echo $subdir; // Outputs "dir3" If $dir="dir1" then the output would be "dir2". If $dir="dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4" then the output would be "" (empty). If $dir="" then the output would be "dir1". Etc.. Currently this is what I have, and it works (as far as I've tested it). I'm just wondering if there's a simpler way since I find I'm using a lot of string functions. Maybe there's some magic regexp to do this in one line? (I'm not too good with regexp unfortunately). function getsubdir($str,$dir) { // Remove the filename $str = dirname($str); // Remove the $dir if(!empty($dir)){ $str = str_replace($dir,"",$str); } // Remove the leading '/' if there is one $si = stripos($str,"/"); if($si == 0){ $str = substr($str,1); } // Remove everything after the subdir (if there is anything) $lastpart = strchr($str,"/"); $str = str_replace($lastpart,"",$str); return $str; } As you can see, it's a little hacky in order to handle some odd cases (no '/' in input, empty input, etc). I hope all that made sense. Any help/suggestions are welcome.

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  • Nhibernate Cannot delete the child object

    - by Daoming Yang
    I know it has been asked for many times, i also have found a lot of answers on this website, but i just cannot get out this problem. Can anyone help me with this piece of code? Many thanks. Here is my parent mapping file <set name="ProductPictureList" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true" order-by="DateCreated" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" > <key column="ProductID"/> <one-to-many class="ProductPicture"/> </set> Here is my child mapping file <class name="ProductPicture" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true"> <id name="ProductPictureID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ProductID" type="Int32"></property> <property name="PictureName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> </class> Here is my c# code var item = _productRepository.Get(productID); var productPictrue = item.ProductPictureList .OfType<ProductPicture>() .Where(x => x.ProductPictureID == productPictureID); // reomve the finding item var ok = item.ProductPictureList.Remove(productPictrue); _productRepository.SaveOrUpdate(item); ok is false value and this child object is still in my database.

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  • Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

    - by Zack
    I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

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  • Change URL Submitted to Depending on Form Selection

    - by Chris
    I have a form which I need to submit to one of three different URLs depending on a selection made in the form. I suspect the easiest solution is to use jQuery to insert the appropriate path before the rest of the form parameters as the selection is made, but not sure on what the code would be. Any pointers greratly appreciated! <form id="myForm" action='/booking/default-path' accept-charset='utf-8' method='get'> <select name="paramA" id="paramA"> <option id="optionA" value="A" selected="selected">Option A</option> <option id="optionB" value="B">Option B</option> </select> <select name="currency" id="currency"> <option id="GBP" value="GBP" selected="selected">British Pounds</option> <option id="EUR" value="EUR">Euros</option> <option id="USD" value="USD">US Dollars</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="submit" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> Where the three different URLs would be: ../booking/default-path-gbp?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-eur?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-usd?...[params here]... I know it would be a lot easier to incorporate the parameter in the usual way and just use one submission URL root, but unfortunately I'm submitting to an eComms system out of my control and am stuck with having to find a solution to this. Should be easy I think, but not sure where to start, jQuery used elsewhere, so would prefer to use this framework in any solutions.

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  • How can I keep the the logic to translate a ViewModel's values to a Where clause to apply to a linq query out of My Controller?

    - by Mr. Manager
    This same problem keeps cropping up. I have a viewModel that doesn't have any persistent backing. It is just a ViewModel to generate a search input form. I want to build a large where clause from the values the user entered. If the Action Accepts as a parameter SearchViewModel How do I do this without passing my viewModel to my service layer? Service shouldn't know about ViewModels right? Oh and if I serialize it, then it would be a big string and the key/values would be strongly typed. SearchViewModel this is just a snippet. [Display(Name="Address")] public string AddressKeywords { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the census. /// </summary> public string Census { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the lot block sub. /// </summary> public string LotBlockSub { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the owner keywords. /// </summary> [Display(Name="Owner")] public string OwnerKeywords { get; set; } In my controller action I was thinking of something like this. but I would think all this logic doesn't belong in my Controller. ActionResult GetSearchResults(SearchViewModel model){ var query = service.GetAllParcels(); if(model.Census != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Census == model.Census); } if (model.OwnerKeywords != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Owners == model.OwnerKeywords); } return View(query.ToList()); }

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  • Client side page call/scrape?

    - by Silvre
    Here is the problem: I have a web application - a frequently changing notification system - that runs on a series of local computers. The application refreshes every couple of seconds to display the new information. The computers only display info, and do not have keyboards or ANY input device. The issue is that if the connection to the server is lost (say updates are installed and a server must be rebooted), a page not found error is displayed). We must then either reboot all computers that are running this app, OR add a keyboard and refresh the browser, OR try to access each computer remotely and refresh the browser. None of these are good options and result in a lot of frustration. I cannot change the actual application OR server environment. So what I need is some way to test the call to the application, and if an error is returned or it times out, continue trying every minute or so until the connection is reestablished. My idea is to create a client-side page scraper, that makes a JS request to the application (which displays basic HTML), and can run locally on the machine, no server required. If the scrape returns the correct content, it displays it. If not it continues to request the page until the actual page content is returned. Is this possible? What is the best way to do it?

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  • Concurrent usage of table causing issues

    - by Sven
    Hello In our current project we are interfacing with a third party data provider. They need to insert data in a table of ours. This inserting can be frequent every 1 min, every 5min, every 30, depends on the amount of new data they need to provide. The use the isolation level read committed. On our end we have an application, windows service, that calls a webservice every 2 minutes to see if there is new data in this table. Our isolation level is repeatable read. We retrieve the records and update a column on these rows. Now the problem is that sometimes this third party provider needs to insert a lot of data, let's say 5000 records. They do this per transaction (5rows per transaction), but they don't close the connection. They do one transaction and then the next untill all records are inserted. This caused issues for our process, we receive a timeout. If this goes on for a long time the database get's completely unstable. For instance, they maybe stopped, but the table somehow still stays unavailable. When I try to do a select on the table, I get several records but at a certain moment I don't get any response anymore. It just says retrieving data but nothing comes anymore until I get a timeout exception. Only solution is to restart the database and then I see the other records. How can we solve this. What is the ideal isolation level setting in this scenario?

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