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  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

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  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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  • How do I loop through elements inside a div?

    - by crosenblum
    I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

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  • Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

    - by Chris B
    Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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  • How to implement a category hierarchy using collections

    - by Luke101
    Hello, I have about 200 categories that are nested. I am currently reading the documention on the C5 generics library. I am not sure if the C5 library is overkill or not. I am looking at converting all my custom algorithms to the C5 implemention. This is what I need. If a certain category is chosen i need to find its parents, siblings, direct children, and all children. This is the way I have it set up. To find the: Parents: I start from the current location then loop through the list and find the current parent. When I find the parent I loop through the whole list again to find the next parent and so on. Siblings: I loop through the whole list and find all the nodes that have the same parent as the choosen node. direct children: I loop through the whole list and find all nodes that is a parent of the choosen node. All Children: This one took me a while to figure out. But I used recursion to find all children of the choosen node. Is there a better way to implement something like this?

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  • Google maps KM bounds box reapplying itself on map zoom

    - by creminsn
    I have a map in which I apply a custom overlay using KMbox overlay to signify where I think the users general point of interest lies. What I want is to display this map to the user and allow them to click on the map to give me an exact location match of their POI. This all works fine except for when the user clicks on the map and changes the zoom of the map. Here's my code to add the marker to the map. function addMarker(location) { if(KmOverlay) { KmOverlay.remove(); } if(last_marker) { last_marker.setMap(null); } marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map }); // Keep track for future unsetting... last_marker = marker; } And to show the map I have this function. function show_map(lt, ln, zoom, controls, marker) { var ltln = new google.maps.LatLng(lt, ln); var vars = { zoom: zoom, center: ltln, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: controls, navigationControlOptions: {style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.ZOOM_PAN} , mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, scrollwheel: false }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), vars); KmOverlay = new KmBox(map, new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lon), KmOpts); var totalBounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); totalBounds.union(KmOverlay.getBounds()); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { addMarker(event.latLng); }); } I have a working example at the following link here

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • STL vector performance

    - by iAdam
    STL vector class stores a copy of the object using copy constructor each time I call push_back. Wouldn't it slow down the program? I can have a custom linkedlist kind of class which deals with pointers to objects. Though it would not have some benefits of STL but still should be faster. See this code below: #include <vector> #include <iostream> #include <cstring> using namespace std; class myclass { public: char* text; myclass(const char* val) { text = new char[10]; strcpy(text, val); } myclass(const myclass& v) { cout << "copy\n"; //copy data } }; int main() { vector<myclass> list; myclass m1("first"); myclass m2("second"); cout << "adding first..."; list.push_back(m1); cout << "adding second..."; list.push_back(m2); cout << "returning..."; myclass& ret1 = list.at(0); cout << ret1.text << endl; return 0; } its output comes out as: adding first...copy adding second...copy copy The output shows the copy constructor is called both times when adding and when retrieving the value even then. Does it have any effect on performance esp when we have larger objects?

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  • SharePoint Permissions: User with Contribute change cannot change a list item they did not create?

    - by antik
    I've build a custom SharePoint list that programatically adjusts permissions per list item. This part of the app works by clearing all permissions in the list item and adding permissions to the folks I want to grant Read or Contribute permission to. I believe this part of the application to be correct: selecting Manage Permissions on a list item I can see the appropriate users and roles for the list items in question in the Permissions list. However, I was surprised to realize that only the user who submitted a list item can successfully edit the item. I'll describe what I'm seeing with the following two users: UserA and UserB. UserA submitted the list item. UserB is trying to edit the same list item after the permissions have been assigned (either manually or programatically). UserB cannot edit the list item: UserB can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserB can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserB makes changes and presses submit, UserB encounters the out of box SharePoint "Access Denied" error page. The event handler for the list item update does not fire. Manually elevating UserB's permission to include Full Control does not affect the behavior above. By contrast, UserA encounters far more predictable behavior: UserA can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserA can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserA submits, the changes are persisted and the user is redirected back to the item list. Event Handlers fire after UserA submits. This leaves me with several questions: Is this an expected behavior for SharePoint that I managed to overlook? What can I do to allow UserB to modify the list item?

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  • Object mapping with LINQ and SubSonic

    - by Jeremy Seekamp
    I'm building a small project with SubSonic 3.0.0.3 ActiveRecord and I'm running into an issue I can't seem to get past. Here is the LINQ query: var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new ReleaseInfo { NumberOfInstalls = i, Release = new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy } }; The ReleaseInfo object is a custom class and looks like this: public class ReleaseInfo { public Release Release { get; set; } public int NumberOfInstalls { get; set; } } Release and Install are classes generated by SubSonic. When I do a watch on result, the Release property is null. If I make this a simpler query and watch result, the value is not null. var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy }; Is this an issue with my LINQ query or a limitation of SubSonic?

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • Google Adwords API response parse

    - by Yun Ling
    I am trying to figure out how to parse the Adword API query response without exceptions and one issue that i came across is that sometimes, the data itself contains comma besides the comma between each column. Say i do a query on Adroup, campaign and impression by using <reportDefinition xmlns="https://adwords.google.com/api/adwords/cm/v201209"> <selector> <fields>CampaignName</fields> <fields>AdgroupName</fields> <fields>Impressions</fields> <predicates> <field>Status</field> <operator>IN</operator> <values>ENABLED</values> <values>PAUSED</values> </predicates> </selector> <reportName>Custom Adgroup Performance Report</reportName> <reportType>ADGROUP_PERFORMANCE_REPORT</reportType> <dateRangeType>LAST_7_DAYS</dateRangeType> <downloadFormat>CSV</downloadFormat> </reportDefinition> Since my campaign has comma within the string like below: "Adroup,Campaign,Impressions, Premiun Beer, Beer, Chicago, 1000" where the adgroup is "premium beer" and campaign is "Beer,Chicago". that will cause an issue if we parse this information by using comma. Does anyone know how to solve this problem?

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  • Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

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  • getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

    - by Roger Joys
    I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

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  • Adding array to an object breaks the array

    - by DisgruntledGoat
    I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

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  • Dynamic editor upload into web page. Need advice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Hello everybody, I am writing intranet site for tracking employees science activities in organization. There lots of editable information on each personal page (science degree, publications & so on) so I upload editor per request (user clicks "edit" and modal dialog with html editor: set of textboxes/comboboxes/autocomplete features & validation logic appears). Editor is html layout that is wrapped with jquery dialog plugin + some logic, written as javascript functions that should be invoked from the callee page (onsubmit, validate, afterLoad editor events). There are also attributes (editor preferrable with and height) that are passed to callee page also. Currently I send these functions & attribute as ... function onsubmit() { }; function validate() { } var width = 640; var height = 800 ... code that is embedded into the request page. Function calls and editor markup wrap with jquery plugin completed in the callee page. It works, but I have some try { call editor event handler } catch { } stuff in callee page (because not every editor provides these functions) and some attributes (editor width & height for instance) that are loaded as variables declared in javascript. Please, suggest, is there a better approach to build & use custom editors for my situation. Thank you in advance!

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  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

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  • difference between http.context.user and thread.currentprincipal and when to use them?

    - by yamspog
    I have just recently run into an issue running an asp.net web app under visual studio 2008. I get the error 'type is not resolved for member...customUserPrincipal'. Tracking down various discussion groups it seems that there is an issue with Visual Studio's web server when you assign a custom principal against the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. In my code, I now use... HttpContext.Current.User = myCustomPrincipal //Thread.CurrentPrincipal = myCustomPrincipal I'm glad that I got the error out of the way, but it begs the question "What is the difference between these two methods of setting a principal?". There are other stackoverflow questions related to the differences but they don't get into the details of the two approaches. I did find one tantalizing post that had the following grandiose comment but no explanation to back up his assertions... Use HttpConext.Current.User for all web (ASPX/ASMX) applications. Use Thread.CurrentPrincipal for all other applications like winForms, console and windows service applications. Can any of you security/dot.net gurus shed some light on this subject?

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  • Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

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  • Two pass JSP page rendering

    - by dotsid
    Suppose an example. I have following interface: public interface DataSource<T> { Future<T> fetch(); } This datasource can do asynchronous data fetching. And we have following tag for using datasource in JSP: <html> <d:fetch from="${orderDS}" var="orders"> <c:foreach in="${orders}" var="order"> <div class="order"> <c:out value="${order.title}" /> </div> </c:foreach> </d:fetch> </html> So, what I want? I want JSP rendering engine to call my custom tag (FetchTag in this example) twice. On first call FetchTag will do DataSource.fetch() call and save Future locally as a object field. On second call FetchTag do Future.get() call and will be blocked until data becomes available. Is there any way to do such a thing?

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  • Adding a button bar at the bottom of ListView upon checkbox select (as in gmail app)??

    - by elto
    I have a ListView with custom adapter. In each row there is a checkbox and couple of textviews. I want user to give option to delete the check marked items, so as soon as soon clicks on one of the checkbox, I want a button bar to slide in from the bottom and stay at the bottom regardless of listview scroll. This is something like the email app behavior of Motorola Cliq and to some extent gmail app itself. I have tried adding a relativelayout (containing buttons) below the listview, which has visibility set to gone initially, but as soon as user checks a button, the visibility changes to "visible". I have added a slide-in animation to it too. It is working but problem is that it is overlapping the last element of the listview which user can not checkmark if the button bar has already become visible. So I tried to set the bottom margin of the listview equal to the height of the button bar when I'm changing the button bar visibility, which solves the problem of overlap, but now the checkbox behavior has gone weird. Clicking on one checkmark tries to checkmark another checkmark in the list for some weird reason. I noticed that this happens because as soon as I change the listview margin, list redraws itself, and during this new call to getView() method of adapter, things mess up. I wanted to ask if anyone has done something like this. What is the best method to add such button bar below list while keeping the slide-in animation intact. Also, What is the footer-view of listview and can that solve my problem?

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  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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  • Black Corners On Grouped UITableViewCells Only After Navigation Pops

    - by coneybeare
    I am not graphics expert but I somehow managed to make some good looking custom grouped UITableViewCells by setting the background view to a backgroundView with some CG code. In all SDK's up to 3.1.3 (maybe 3.2... I haven't tested on the iPad) this was working great, but I think a more recent SDK has introduced a change in the way graphics are cached offscreen. Upon first render, everything is great: The drawing is fine and the corners are transparent. If I push a couple of view controllers on the navigation stack and come back, there are now black corners that appear in the views: BEFORE && AFTER I have tons of code, most of which is written up here. I have tried tweaking to the best of my ability, looking at the docs for applicable changes, but after at least 8 hours in I still cannot find what might cause this. I have tried setting every view I can think of to be backgroundColor=clearColor and opaque=NO What else am I missing? Any debugging tips? UPDATE: I have some debug code in viewDidAppear that prints the backgroundColor and class description of all the subviews. - (void)debugView:(UIView *)view { DebugLog(@"%@ - %@", view.backgroundColor, [[view class] description]); for (UIView* child in view.subviews) { [self debugView:child]; } } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; [DownloadController.networkQueue setSuspended:NO]; for (TTTableViewCell *cell in [self.tableView visibleCells]) { [cell debugView:cell]; } } With this code, I inspect the backgroundColor settings of the cell views on first load, when it is fine, and then again after coming back. There are some differences, but all the colors are still set to be clear. This leads me to believe the issue is underneath the UITableViewCell. UPDATE 2: I have created a simple sample application to highlight the problem here

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  • Manipulating a NSTextField via AppleScript

    - by Garry
    A little side project I'm working on is a digital life assistant, much like project JARVIS. What I'm trying to do is speak to my mac, have my words translated to text and then have the text interpreted by my program. Currently, my app is very simple, consisting of a single window containing a single wrapped NSTextView. Using MacSpeech Dictate, When I say the custom command "Jeeves", MacSpeech ensures that my app is frontmost, highlights any text in the TextField and clears it, then presses the Return key to trigger the textDidEndEditing method of NSTextField. This is done via Applescript. MacSpeech then switches to dictation mode and the next sentence I say will appear in the NSTextField. What I can't figure out is how to signify that I have finished saying a command to my program. I could simply say another keyword like "execute" or something similar that would send an AppleScript return keystroke to my app (thereby triggering the textDidEndEditing event) but this is cumbersome. Is there a notification that happens when text is pasted into a NSTextField? Would a timer work that would fire after maybe three seconds once my program becomes frontmost (three seconds should be sufficient for me to say a command)? Thanks,

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