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• Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

  - by rforte

  I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

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• RewriteCond and RewriteRule newbie

  - by mybrokengnome

  I'm taking over a website for a client that is running on a custom built CMS (that I didn't write). I don't mess with .htaccess files usually because a lot of the hosting I do is on IIS, or I used WordPress as a CMS and don't have to worry about messing with the .htaccess file. Here's the contents of the file: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ framework.php?%{QUERY_STRING}&resource=$1& [L] I get what it's doing (sending all requests through the framework.php file). The client wants a WordPress blog added to their site. I'm placing it in a /blog/ folder. The problem is that because of the rewrite rules and conditions in the .htaccess file whenever I try to go /blog/ the other CMS freaks out because it doesn't like me trying to go there. My question is how do I write a rule/cond that tells apache to send all requests made to the /blog/ folder to the /blog/ folder, but keep all other requests piped through the framework.php file like it is now? Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

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• How do I use InputType=numberDecimal with the "phone" soft keypad?

  - by Adam Dunn

  For an EditText box, the user should only be entering valid numbers, so I am using android:inputType="numberDecimal". Unfortunately, the soft keyboard that Android brings up has numbers only along the top row, while the next three rows have various other symbols (dollar sign, percent sign, exclamation mark, space, etc). Since the numberDecimal only accepts numbers 0-9, negative sign, and decimal point, it would make more sense to use the "phone" soft keyboard (0-9 in a 3x3 grid, plus some other symbols). This would make the buttons larger and easier to hit (since it's a 4x4 grid rather than a 10x4 grid in the same screen area). Unfortunately, using android:inputType="phone" allows non-numeric characters such as parentheses I have attempted to use android:inputType="numberDecimal|phone", but the numberDecimal aspect of the bit flag seems to be ignored. I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in combination with android:digits="0123456789-.", but that still allows multiple negative signs or decimal points (inputType="number" has really good error checking for things like that, and won't let the user even type it in). I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in the xml layout file, while using a DigitsKeyListener in the java code, but then that just uses the default number soft keyboard (the one that has numbers only along top row) (it appears to set InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER, which voids the InputType.TYPE_CLASS_PHONE set by the xml layout). Writing a custom IME wouldn't work, since the user would have to select the IME as a global option outside the app. Is there any way to use the "phone" style soft keyboard while also using the "number" restrictions on what is entered?

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• Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

  - by Crend King

  Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

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• Does fast typing influence fast programming? [closed]

  - by Lukasz Lew

  Many young programmers think that their bottleneck is typing speed. After some experience one realizes that it is not the case, you have to think much more than type. At some point my room-mate forced me to turn of the light (he sleeps during the night). I had to learn to touch type and I experienced an actual improvement in programming skill. The most surprising was that the improvement not due to sheer typing speed, but to a change in mindset. I'm less afraid now to try new things and refactor them later if they work well. It's like having a new tool in the bag. Have anyone of you had similar experience? Now I trained a touch typing a little with KTouch. I find auto-generate lessons the best. I can use this program to create new lessons out of text files but it's only verbatim training, not auto-generated based on a language model. Do you know any touch typing program that allows creation of custom, but randomized lessons?

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• getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

  - by Roger Joys

  I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

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• FileReference.save() duplicates ByteArray

  - by bartekb

  Hi, I've encountered a memory problem using FileReference.save(). My Flash application generates of a lot of data in real-time and needs to save this data to a local file. As I understand, Flash 10 (as opposed to AIR) does not support streaming to a file. But, what's even worse is that FileReference.save() duplicates all the data before saving it. I was looking for a workaround to this doubled memory usage and thought about the following approach: What if I pass a custom subclass of ByteArray as an argument to FileReference.save(), where this ByteArray subclass would override all read*() methods. The overridden read*() methods would wait for a piece of data to be generated by my application, return this piece of data and immediately remove it from the memory. I know how much data will be generated, so I could also override length/bytesAvailable methods. Would it be possible? Could you give me some hint how to do it? I've created a subclass of ByteArray, registered an alias for it, passed an instance of this subclass to FileReference.save(), but somehow FileReference.save() seems to treat it just as it was a ByteArray instance and doesn't call any of my overridden methods... Thanks a lot for any help!

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• what is file verification system for php project or licence checking the configuration files

  - by Jayapal Chandran

  Hi, My colleague asked me a question like "license check to config file". when i searched i got this http://www.google.com/search?q=file+verification+system&ie=utf-8&oe=utf-8&aq=t&rls=org.mozilla:en-US:official&client=firefox-a and in the result i got this http://integrit.sourceforge.net/texinfo/integrit.html but could not grasp much of its idea. Here is my thoughts... Our project is written in codeigniter. The project owner is providing it to their customer. The owner is a business partner with that concept. Besides, the owner needs control of the project code so that the customer will not break rules with him like changing the code or moving it go another server or validity. So the owner needs a system to enable disable the site. Let me give an example... owner.com will have an admin panel where he can either disable or enable the client.com. when he disables the client.com should display a custom message instead of loading the files. client.com is written i a way that i will process requests from owner.com and also the other way round. so, here i want a list of the concepts with which we can implement the ownership and control over client.com any suggestions, links, references, answers will be helpful. If i am missing something in my question i will update my question according to your comments if any so that the users can give in their idea without confusing of what i had asked. THX

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• Is there a simple way to "roll your own forms" for mysql in php, for example in jquery?

  - by talkingnews

  I've been googling around for a really simple way of making what is, in effect, nothing more than an enhanced phpMySql. In a mysql database, I have: Name, address, phone, website etc, plus 2 or 3 custom fields. This data is pulled out to make a website. All I want is to be able to make a freeform form, a bit like Access, but for the web, and the only thing I want to do over and above normal field editing would be to have a list of when I contact them, what was said, and perhaps a reminder when the next action is due. I've looked at so many CRMs my mind is boggling, and they all do WAY more than I need. I don't have leads or accounts, all I have is the need to make sure than when I update the person's details, and for that data to be in the same DB as my site is generate from. I'm happy to learn if I can get pointed in the right direction, and I have a feeling that something like what I want might lie in the direction of jquery. It's just that there's so much good jquery stuff about, I can't see the wood for the trees! Thanks.

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• Leveraging hobby experience to get a job

  - by Bernard

  Like many other's I began programming at an early age. I started when I was 11 and I learned C when I was 14 (now 26). While most of what I did were games just to entertain myself I did everything from low level 2D graphics, and binary I/O, to interfacing with free API's, custom file systems, audio, 3D animations, OpenGL, web sites, etc. I worked on a wide variety of things trying to make various games. Because of this experience I have tested out of every college level C/C++ programming course I have ever been offered. In the classes I took, my classmates would need a week to do what I finished in class with an hour or two of work. I now have my degree now and I have 2 years of experience working full time as a web developer however I would like to get back into C++ and hopefully do simulation programming. Unfortunately I have yet to do C++ as a job, I have only done it for testing out of classes and doing my senior project in college. So most of what I have in C++ is still hobby experience and I don't know how to best convey that so that I don't end up stuck doing something too low level for me. Right now I see a job offer that requires 2 years of C++ experience, but I have at least 9 (I didn't do C++ everyday for the last 14 years). How do I convey my experience? How much is it truly worth? and How do I get it's full value? The best thing that I can think of is a demo and a portfolio, however that only comes into play after an interview has been secured. I used a portfolio to land my current job. All answers and advice are appreciated.

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• Approaches for cross server content sharing?

  - by Anonymity

  I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

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• Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

  - by Brian Ojeda

  Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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• iOS - Passing variable to view controller

  - by gj15987

  I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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• Gridview Paging via ObjectDataSource: Why is maximumRows being set to -1?

  - by Bryan

  So before I tried custom gridview paging via ObjectDataSource... I think I read every tutorial known to man just to be sure I got it. It didn't look like rocket science. I've set the AllowPaging = True on my gridview. I've specified PageSize="10" on my gridview. I've set EnablePaging="True" on the ObjectDataSource. I've added the 2 paging parms (maximumRows & startRowIndex) to my business object's select method. I've created an analogous "count" method with the same signature as the select method. The only problem I seem to have is during execution... the ObjectDataSource is supplying my business object with a maximumRows value of -1 and I can't for the life of me figure out why. I've searched to the end of the web for anyone else having this problem and apparently I'm the only one. The StartRowIndex parameter seems to be working just fine. Any ideas?

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• Handle window scroll event in greasemonkey script

  - by Akim Khalilov

  Hi. I need some advice. I have a web page and want to extend it's functionality with greasemonkey script and firefox. When page has loaded I need run custom function during user's page scrolling (with mouse whell or scrollbar). I want show some div block when user scrolling down and hide it when he scrolling to the top. But I met some problem - I couldn't assign event handler to the onscroll event. I use next part of the code: function showFixedBlock(){ ... } function onScrollStart(){ ... showFixedBlock(); ... } window.onscroll = onScrollStart; I test this piece of code on my test html page and it works, but when I copy it into greasemonkey, script doesn't work. Should I assign onscroll event handler during page loading? As I know greasemonkey execute it's scripts when page has loaded? Is it the reason of the problem? Is there some additional requirments to handle 'onscroll' event? How can I do that? Thanks.

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• HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

  - by Dan Halliday

  I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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• Drawing graphics on top of a JButton

  - by trinth

  I have a situation wherein I have a bunch of JButtons on a GridLayout. I need each of the JButtons to have: a background image (but retain the ability to keep the default button look if needed) custom graphics drawn on top by other classes I have no trouble with the background image, since I am using setIcon() but I am having problems drawing things on top of the background. At one point I was able to draw on top of the button, but after the button was clicked, the drawings disappeared. How can make the button keep this drawing state? Basically, I need a way for my JButtons to have public methods that would allow another class to draw anything on it such as: public void drawSomething() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); g.drawOval(3,2,2,2); repaint(); } or public Graphics getGraphics() { return this.getGraphics(); } then another class could do this: button.getGraphics().drawSomething(); The latter is more what I am looking for but the first is equally useful. Is there any way to go about this? Also, overriding the parent class method paintComponent() doesn't help since I need each button to have different graphics.

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• WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

  - by benPearce

  I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Executing untrusted code

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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• Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

  - by prodigitalson

  Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

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• ASP:GridView does not show data with ObjectdataSource

  - by Kashif

  I have been trying to bind a DataGrid with ObjectDataSource having custom paging but no output is display on my usercontrol. Here is the code I am using <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LeadId" DataSourceID="dsBuyingLead1" AllowPaging="True"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Subject" HeaderText="Subject" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ExpiryDate" HeaderText="ExpiryDate" ReadOnly="True" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsBuyingLead1" runat="server" EnablePaging="True" DataObjectTypeName="Modules.SearchBuyingLeadInfo" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="GetAllBuyingLeads" StartRowIndexParameterName="startRow" MaximumRowsParameterName="maximumRows" SelectCountMethod="GetAllBuyingLeadsCount" TypeName="Modules.SearchController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="searchText" QueryStringField="q" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Here are my methods from SearchController class: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static long GetAllBuyingLeadsCount(string searchText) { return DataProvider.Instance().GetAllBuyingLeadsCount(searchText); } [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static List<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> GetAllBuyingLeads (string searchText, int startRow, int maximumRows) { List<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> l = CBO.FillCollection<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> ( DataProvider.Instance() .GetAllBuyingLeadswithText(searchText, startRow, maximumRows) ); return l; } Where SearchBuyingLeadInfo is my Data Access Object class I have verified by setting up break points that both GetAllBuyingLeadsCount and GetAllBuyingLeads return non-zero values but unfortunately nothing is displayed on the grid. Only the column headers are displayed. Can anyone tell me what am I missing?

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• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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• How can I make this LinqToSQL query work? (SqlExecption)

  - by kversch

  The following code gives me an SqlException: OO theCourse = subject.Course; var students = dc.studentsCourses.Where(x = x.course == theCourse).Select(x = x.student); "Invalid object name 'dbo.studentsCourses'." I tried the following code instead but I also get an Exception. My original question was asked on Aardvark and can be read bellow: var allStudents = from s in dc.students select s; List thestudents = new List(); foreach (student s in allStudents) { if (s.courses.Contains(theCourse)) { thestudents.Add(s); } } I did a right click, "run custom tool" on my dbml and checked my names of my tables and entities. The project compiles but I get an Exception at runtime on this line: "if (s.courses.Contains(theCourse))" Any ideas? Original question on Aardvark: How do I do a LinqToSQL query that gives me this: I want to select all students that attended a certain lesson. The lesson is from a certain course. So select the course the lesson is from. Now select all the students that are following that course. There is a many-to-many relationship between the students and the courses table in my DB. I already extended my LINQ entities to be able to select student.Courses and course.Students using this method: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/linq/linq-to-sql-many-to-many.aspx

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