Search Results

Search found 17013 results on 681 pages for 'hard coding'.

Page 641/681 | < Previous Page | 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648  | Next Page >

  • Why does filter: blur(0) still cause text to blur under Webkit?

    - by johnkavanagh
    I've come across a bug today that's taken far longer than I would like to admit to identify. Essentially: setting a filter: blur(0) (or the vendor-specific -webkit-filter) on an element should - I believe - mean that no form of blur is applied. However, having tested this today, it would appear that Webkit based browsers still blur the text within any element with either blur(0) or blur(0px) assigned to it. I've knocked together a quick Fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/f9rBE/ These are three identical dixs containing text (no custom fonts): This has absolutely nothing assigned Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Aliquam facilisis orci in quam venenatis, in tempus ipsum sagittis. Suspendisse potenti. Donec ullamcorper lacus vel odio accumsan, vel aliquam libero tempor. Praesent nec libero venenatis, ultrices arcu non, luctus quam. Morbi scelerisque sit amet turpis sit amet tincidunt. Praesent semper erat non purus pretium consequat. Aenean et iaculis turpis. Curabitur diam tellus, consectetur non massa et, commodo venenatis metus. One has no styles at all assigned, the other two have blur(0) and blur(0px): .no-blur{} .zero-px-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0px); -moz-filter: blur(0px); -o-filter: blur(0px); -ms-filter: blur(0px); filter: blur(0px); } .zero-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0); -moz-filter: blur(0); -o-filter: blur(0); -ms-filter: blur(0); filter: blur(0); } If you preview this under Chrome/Safari you'll see that the text in the second two are still blurred: A few things worth noting: This unintentional blurring occurs in Safari on iOS7 devices (both iPhones and iPads); It also occurs on Chrome and Safari under OSX; It doesn't happen under FireFox in OSX. Of course, this isn't supported at all in Firefox just yet so it's hard to tell whether the behaviour I'm seeing is intentional/expected behaviour, or whether this is a bug in Webkit? Is it possible that this is only prevalent in higher-density resolution devices (ie: retina MacBook/iPhone/iPad)? With this in mind, how do you actually overwrite an item that has blur applied to it to set it back to non-blurred?

    Read the article

  • How does one paint the entire row's background in a QStyledItemDelegate ?

    - by Casey Link
    I have a QTableView which I am setting a custom QStyledItemDelegate on. In addition to the custom item painting, I want to style the row's background color for the selection/hovered states. The look I am going for is something like this KGet screenshot: Here is my code: void MyDelegate::paint( QPainter* painter, const QStyleOptionViewItem& opt, const QModelIndex& index ) const { QBrush backBrush; QColor foreColor; bool hover = false; if ( opt.state & QStyle::State_MouseOver ) { backBrush = opt.palette.color( QPalette::Highlight ).light( 115 ); foreColor = opt.palette.color( QPalette::HighlightedText ); hover = true; } QStyleOptionViewItemV4 option(opt); initStyleOption(&option, index); painter->save(); const QStyle *style = option.widget ? option.widget->style() : QApplication::style(); const QWidget* widget = option.widget; if( hover ) { option.backgroundBrush = backBrush; } painter->save(); style->drawPrimitive(QStyle::PE_PanelItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); painter->restore(); switch( index.column() ) { case 0: // we want default behavior style->drawControl(QStyle::CE_ItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); break; case 1: // some custom drawText break; case 2: // draw a QStyleOptionProgressBar break; } painter->restore(); } The result is that each individual cell receives the mousedover background only when the mouse is over it, and not the entire row. It is hard to describe so here is a screenshot: In that picture the mouse was over the left most cell, hence the highlighted background.. but I want the background to be drawn over the entire row. How can I achieve this? Edit: With some more thought I've realized that the QStyle::State_MouseOver state is only being passed for actual cell which the mouse is over, and when the paint method is called for the other cells in the row QStyle::State_MouseOver is not set. So the question becomes is there a QStyle::State_MouseOver_Row state (answer: no), so how do I go about achieving that?

    Read the article

  • Filter Calendar view SharePoint WWS 3.0

    - by lerac
    Hi all, I have a SP site with a calendarview and would like to filter this on the basis of the current user. Don't be afraid I already figured out how do to this with a list customizing some excisting jScripts and working with Content Editor WebPart. Yet this jScript does not work in a Calendar. To paint a picture I have columns like: Judge1 Lawyer Clerk (example). Underneath these columns there are names ofcourse. However these are not shown in Calendar view, so it is hard to filter on something that is not displayed only the casenumbers. Now I've been thinking (not always wise) perhaps I can adjust the aspx page of calendar/list by adjusting a filter I applied in SharePoint. This would also solve the issue of displaying all the content before it filters with Java, since it should not be possible for users to see the entire listcontent (security). I went to Modify list view and created a filter where judge1 = Mr. J. Jenkins. Then I went to SharePoint Designer and opend the Calendar aspx page. To my expectation I found Mr. J. Jenkins with the following code: Since I can't display image because i'm new, not very handy discrimination I have to give you a url. Code can't be pasted either is completely messes it up even with codemode on. Hyperlink CODE IMAGE Keep in mind I just posted a very tiny part of the code (only the part I want to change). Now I have no idea what kind of code this is above this text (SP wss 3.0 uses for aspx pages), but I would like to change Mr. J. Jenkins into a jScript var/val. Since I already managed to get the current user that is logged in content. var user = jP.getUserProfile(); var userinfspvalue = user.Department; There is more code around that one 2 ofcourse, yet to give you a picture. The var userinfspvalue is what I would like to replace the text Mr. J. Jenkins into. This would mean the calendar would be dynamically filtered based upon the current user that is logged on. Have no idea what is possible, perhaps there is a better solution who knows... Do you know? Thank you so much ahead!

    Read the article

  • WPF: Binding to ObservableCollection in ControlTemplate is not updated

    - by Julian Lettner
    I created a ControlTemplate for my custom control MyControl. MyControl derives from System.Windows.Controls.Control and defines the following property public ObservableCollection<MyControl> Children{ get; protected set; }. To display the nested child controls I am using an ItemsControl (StackPanel) which is surrounded by a GroupBox. If there are no child controls, I want to hide the GroupBox. Everything works fine on application startup: The group box and child controls are shown if the Children property initially contained at least one element. In the other case it is hidden. The problem starts when the user adds a child control to an empty collection. The GroupBox's visibility is still collapsed. The same problem occurs when the last child control is removed from the collection. The GroupBox is still visible. Another symptom is that the HideEmptyEnumerationConverter converter does not get called. Adding/removing child controls to non empty collections works as expected. Whats wrong with the following binding? Obviously it works once but does not get updated, although the collection I am binding to is of type ObservableCollection. <!-- Converter for hiding empty enumerations --> <Common:HideEmptyEnumerationConverter x:Key="hideEmptyEnumerationConverter"/> <!--- ... ---> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type MyControl}"> <!-- ... other stuff that works ... --> <!-- Child components --> <GroupBox Header="Children" Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Children, Converter={StaticResource hideEmptyEnumerationConverter}}"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{TemplateBinding Children}"/> </GroupBox> </ControlTemplate> . [ValueConversion(typeof (IEnumerable), typeof (Visibility))] public class HideEmptyEnumerationConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { int itemCount = ((IEnumerable) value).Cast<object>().Count(); return itemCount == 0 ? Visibility.Collapsed : Visibility.Visible; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } Another, more general question: How do you guys debug bindings? Found this (http://bea.stollnitz.com/blog/?p=52) but still I find it very hard to do. I am glad for any help or suggestion.

    Read the article

  • Using Linq to filter a ComboBox.DataSource ?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board, in another topic, I've stumbled over this very elegant solution by Darin Dimitrov to filter the DataSource of one ComboBox with the selection of another ComboBox: how to filter combobox in combobox using c# combo2.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<string>)c.DataSource) .Where(x => x == (string)combo1.SelectedValue); I would like to do a similar thing, but intead of filtering by a second combobox, I would like to filter by the text of a TextBox. (Basically, instead of choosing from a second ComboBox, the user simply enters his filter in to a TextBox). However, it turned out to be not as straight forward as I had hoped it would be. I tried stuff as the following, but failed miserably: cbWohndresse.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<DataSet>)ds) .Where(x => x.Tables["Adresse"].Select("AdrLabel LIKE '%TEST%'")); cbWohndresse.DisplayMember = "Adresse.AdrLabel"; cbWohndresse.ValueMember = "Adresse.adress_id"; ds is the DataSet which I would like to use as filtered DataSource. "Adresse" is one DataTable in this DataSet. It contains a DataColumn "AdrLabel". Now I would like to display only those "AdrLabel", which contain the string from the user input. (Currently, %TEST% replaces the textbox.text.) The above code fails because the lambda expression does not return Bool. But I am sure, there are also other problems (which type should I use for IEnumerable? Now it's DataSet, but Darin used String. But how could I convert a DataSet to a string? Yes, I am as much newbyish as it gets, my experience is "void", and publicly so. So please forgive me my rather stupid questions. Your help is greatly appreciated, because I can't solve this on my own (tried hard already). Thank you very much! Pesche P.S. I am only using Linq to achieve an uncomplicated filter for the ComboBox (avoiding a View). The rest is not based on Linq, but on oldstyle Ado.NET (ds is filled by an SqlDataAdapter), if that's of any importance.

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous readback from opengl front buffer using multiple PBO's

    - by KillianDS
    I am developing an application that needs to read back the whole frame from the front buffer of an openGL application. I can hijack the application's opengl library and insert my code on swapbuffers. At the moment I am successfully using a simple but excruciating slow glReadPixels command without PBO's. Now I read about using multiple PBO's to speed things up. While I think I've found enough resources to actually program that (isn't that hard), I have some operational questions left. I would do something like this: create a series (e.g. 3) of PBO's use glReadPixels in my swapBuffers override to read data from front buffer to a PBO (should be fast and non-blocking, right?) Create a seperate thread to call glMapBufferARB, once per PBO after a glReadPixels, because this will block until the pixels are in client memory. Process the data from step 3. Now my main concern is of course in steps 2 and 3. I read about glReadPixels used on PBO's being non-blocking, will this be an issue if I issue new opengl commands after that very fast? Will those opengl commands block? Or will they continue (my guess), and if so, I guess only swapbuffers can be a problem, will this one stall or will glReadPixels from front buffer be many times faster than swapping (about each 15-30ms) or, worst case scenario, will swapbuffers be executed while glReadPixels is still reading data to the PBO? My current guess is this logic will do something like this: copy FRONT_BUFFER - generic place in VRAM, copy VRAM-RAM. But I have no idea which of those 2 is the real bottleneck and more, what the influence on the normal opengl command stream is. Then in step 3. Is it wise to do this asynchronously in a thread separated from normal opengl logic? At the moment I think not, It seems you have to restore buffer operations to normal after doing this and I can't install synchronization objects in the original code to temporarily block those. So I think my best option is to define a certain swapbuffer delay before reading them out, so e.g. calling glReadPixels on PBO i%3 and glMapBufferARB on PBO (i+2)%3 in the same thread, resulting in a delay of 2 frames. Also, when I call glMapBufferARB to use data in client memory, will this be the bottleneck or will glReadPixels (asynchronously) be the bottleneck? And finally, if you have some better ideas to speed up frame readback from GPU in opengl, please tell me, because this is a painful bottleneck in my current system. I hope my question is clear enough, I know the answer will probably also be somewhere on the internet but I mostly came up with results that used PBO's to keep buffers in video memory and do processing there. I really need to read back the front buffer to RAM and I do not find any clear explanations about performance in that case (which I need, I cannot rely on "it's faster", I need to explain why it's faster). Thank you

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP vs. ASP.NET encryption options

    - by harrije
    I'm working on a web site where the new pages are ASP.NET and the legacy pages are Classic ASP. Being new to development in the Windows env, I've been studying the latest technology, i.e. .NET and I become like a deer in headlights when ever legacy issues come up regarding COM objects. Security on the website is an abomination, but I've easily encrypted the connectionStrings in the web.config file per http://www.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/021506-1.aspx based on DPAPI machine mode. I understand this approach is not the most secure, but it's better than nothing which is what it was for the ASP.NET pages. Now, I question how to do similar encryption for the connection strings used by the Classic ASP pages. A complicating factor is that the web sited is hosted where I do not have admin permissions or even command line access, just FTP. Moreover I want to avoid managing the key. My research has found: DPAPI with COM interop. Seems like this should already be available, but the only thing I could find discussing this is CyptoUtility (see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163884.aspx) which is not installed on the hosting server. There are plenty of other third party COM objects, e.g. Crypto from Dalun Software http://www.dalun.com, but these aren't on the hosted server either, and they look to me to require you to do some kind of key management. There is CAPICOM on the hosted server, but M$ has deprecated it and many report it is not the easiest to use. It is not clear to me whether I can avoid key management with CAPICOM similar to using DPAPI for ASP.NET. If anyone happens to know, please clue me in. I could write an web service in ASP.NET and have the classic ASP pages use it to get the decrypted connection strings and then store those in an application variable. I would not need to use SSL since I could use localhost and nothing would be sent over the internet. In the simpliest form I could implement what someone termed a poor man's version based on a simple XML stream, however, I really was looking to avoid any development since I find it hard to believe there is not a simple solution for Classic ASP like there is for ASP.NET. Maybe I'm missing some options... Recommendations are requested...

    Read the article

  • Stored proc running 30% slower through Java versus running directly on database

    - by James B
    Hi All, I'm using Java 1.6, JTDS 1.2.2 (also just tried 1.2.4 to no avail) and SQL Server 2005 to create a CallableStatement to run a stored procedure (with no parameters). I am seeing the Java wrapper running the same stored procedure 30% slower than using SQL Server Management Studio. I've run the MS SQL profiler and there is little difference in I/O between the two processes, so I don't think it's related to query plan caching. The stored proc takes no arguments and returns no data. It uses a server-side cursor to calculate the values that are needed to populate a table. I can't see how the calling a stored proc from Java should add a 30% overhead, surely it's just a pipe to the database that SQL is sent down and then the database executes it....Could the database be giving the Java app a different query plan?? I've posted to both the MSDN forums, and the sourceforge JTDS forums (topic: "stored proc slower in JTDS than direct in DB") I was wondering if anyone has any suggestions as to why this might be happening? Thanks in advance, -James (N.B. Fear not, I will collate any answers I get in other forums together here once I find the solution) Java code snippet: sLogger.info("Preparing call..."); stmt = mCon.prepareCall("SP_WB200_POPULATE_TABLE_limited_rows"); sLogger.info("Call prepared. Executing procedure..."); stmt.executeQuery(); sLogger.info("Procedure complete."); I have run sql profiler, and found the following: Java app : CPU: 466,514 Reads: 142,478,387 Writes: 284,078 Duration: 983,796 SSMS : CPU: 466,973 Reads: 142,440,401 Writes: 280,244 Duration: 769,851 (Both with DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS run prior to profiling, and both produce the correct number of rows) So my conclusion is that they both execute the same reads and writes, it's just that the way they are doing it is different, what do you guys think? It turns out that the query plans are significantly different for the different clients (the Java client is updating an index during an insert that isn't in the faster SQL client, also, the way it is executing joins is different (nested loops Vs. gather streams, nested loops Vs index scans, argh!)). Quite why this is, I don't know yet (I'll re-post when I do get to the bottom of it) Epilogue I couldn't get this to work properly. I tried homogenising the connection properties (arithabort, ansi_nulls etc) between the Java and Mgmt studio clients. It ended up the two different clients had very similar query/execution plans (but still with different actual plan_ids). I posted a summary of what I found to the MSDN SQL Server forums as I found differing performance not just between a JDBC client and management studio, but also between Microsoft's own command line client, SQLCMD, I also checked some more radical things like network traffic too, or wrapping the stored proc inside another stored proc, just for grins. I have a feeling the problem lies somewhere in the way the cursor was being executed, and it was somehow giving rise to the Java process being suspended, but why a different client should give rise to this different locking/waiting behaviour when nothing else is running and the same execution plan is in operation is a little beyond my skills (I'm no DBA!). As a result, I have decided that 4 days is enough of anyone's time to waste on something like this, so I will grudgingly code around it (if I'm honest, the stored procedure needed re-coding to be more incremental instead of re-calculating all data each week anyway), and chalk this one down to experience. I'll leave the question open, big thanks to everyone who put their hat in the ring, it was all useful, and if anyone comes up with anything further, I'd love to hear some more options...and if anyone finds this post as a result of seeing this behaviour in their own environments, then hopefully there's some pointers here that you can try yourself, and hope fully see further than we did. I'm ready for my weekend now! -James

    Read the article

  • Taking screenshots in Windows Vista, Windows 7, with transparent areas outside the app region

    - by Steve Sheldon
    Hey Folks, I am trying to take a screenshot of an application and I would like to make the parts of the rectangle that are not part of the applications region be transparent. So for instance on a standard windows application I would like to make the rounded corners transparent. I wrote a quick test application which works on on XP (or vista/windows 7 with aero turned off): protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { base.OnPaint(e); Graphics g = e.Graphics; // Just find a window to test with IntPtr hwnd = FindWindowByCaption(IntPtr.Zero, "Calculator"); WINDOWINFO info = new WINDOWINFO(); info.cbSize = (uint)Marshal.SizeOf(info); GetWindowInfo(hwnd, ref info); Rectangle r = Rectangle.FromLTRB(info.rcWindow.Left, info.rcWindow.Top, info.rcWindow.Right, info.rcWindow.Bottom); IntPtr hrgn = CreateRectRgn(info.rcWindow.Left, info.rcWindow.Top, info.rcWindow.Right, info.rcWindow.Bottom); GetWindowRgn(hwnd, hrgn); // fill a rectangle which would be where I would probably // write some mask color g.FillRectangle(Brushes.Red, r); // fill the region over the top, all I am trying to do here // is show the contrast between the applications region and // the rectangle that the region would be placed in Region region = Region.FromHrgn(hrgn); region.Translate(info.rcWindow.Left, info.rcWindow.Top); g.FillRegion(Brushes.Blue, region); } Quick side note: before commenting that this code is doing stuff it shouldn't (or should do, like dispose) in a paint function, I know, it's not going anywhere but this post and is designed purely as a way to quickly show the problem, and that it does... OK, back to the problem ;) When I run this test app on XP (or Vista/Windows 7 with Aero off), I get something like this, which is great because I can eek an xor mask out of this that can be used later with BitBlt. Here is the problem, on Vista or Windows 7 with Aero enabled, there isn't necessarily a region on the window, in fact in most cases there isn't. Can anybody help me figure out how to get the region of the application like this on these platforms. Here are some of the approaches I have already tried... 1. Using the PrintWindow function: This doesn't work because it gives back a screenshot taken of the window with Aero off and this window is a different shape from the window returned with Aero on 2 Using the Desktop Window Manager API to get a full size thumbnail: This didn't work because it draws directly to the screen and from what I can tell you can't get a screenshot directly out of this api. Yeah, I could open a window with a pink background, show the thumbnail, take a screenshot then hide this temporary window but thats a horrible user experience and a complete hack I would rather not have my name on. 3. Using Graphics.CopyFromScreen or some other pinvoke variant of this: This doesn't work because I can't assume that the window I need information from is at the top of the z-order on the screen. Right now, the best solution I can think of is to special case Aero on Windows 7 and Vista to manually rub out the corners by hard coding some graphics paths I paint out but this solution would suck since any application that performs custom skinning will break this. Can you think of another or better solution? If you are here, thanks for taking time to read this post, I appreciate any help or direction that you can offer!

    Read the article

  • TSQL Shred XML - Working with namespaces (newbie @ shredding XML)

    - by drachenstern
    Here's a link to my previous question on this same block of code with a working shred example Ok, I'm a C# ASP.NET dev following orders: The orders are to take a given dataset, shred the XML and return columns. I've argued that it's easier to do the shredding on the ASP.NET side where we already have access to things like deserializers, etc, and the entire complex of known types, but no, the boss says "shred it on the server, return a dataset, bind the dataset to the columns of the gridview" so for now, I'm doing what I was told. This is all to head off the folks who will come along and say "bad requirements". Task at hand: Current code that doesn't work: And if we modify the previous post to include namespaces on the XML elements, we lose the functionality that the previous post has... DECLARE @table1 AS TABLE ( ProductID VARCHAR(10) , Name VARCHAR(20) , Color VARCHAR(20) , UserEntered VARCHAR(20) , XmlField XML ) INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '12345','ball','red','john','<sizes xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="medium"><price>10</price></size><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="large"><price>20</price></size></sizes>' INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '12346','ball','blue','adam','<sizes xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="medium"><price>12</price></size><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="large"><price>25</price></size></sizes>' INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '12347','ring','red','john','<sizes xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="medium"><price>5</price></size><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="large"><price>8</price></size></sizes>' INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '12348','ring','blue','adam','<sizes xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="medium"><price>8</price></size><size xmlns="http://example.com/ns" name="large"><price>10</price></size></sizes>' INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '23456','auto','black','ann','<auto xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><type xmlns="http://example.com/ns">car</type><wheels xmlns="http://example.com/ns">4</wheels><doors xmlns="http://example.com/ns">4</doors><cylinders xmlns="http://example.com/ns">3</cylinders></auto>' INSERT INTO @table1 SELECT '23457','auto','black','ann','<auto xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><type xmlns="http://example.com/ns">truck</type><wheels xmlns="http://example.com/ns">4</wheels><doors xmlns="http://example.com/ns">2</doors><cylinders xmlns="http://example.com/ns">8</cylinders></auto><auto xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"><type xmlns="http://example.com/ns">car</type><wheels xmlns="http://example.com/ns">4</wheels><doors xmlns="http://example.com/ns">4</doors><cylinders xmlns="http://example.com/ns">6</cylinders></auto>' DECLARE @x XML -- I think I'm supposed to use WITH XMLNAMESPACES(...) here but I don't know how SELECT @x = ( SELECT ProductID , Name , Color , UserEntered , XmlField.query(' for $vehicle in //auto return <auto type = "{$vehicle/type}" wheels = "{$vehicle/wheels}" doors = "{$vehicle/doors}" cylinders = "{$vehicle/cylinders}" />') FROM @table1 table1 WHERE Name = 'auto' FOR XML AUTO ) SELECT @x SELECT ProductID = T.Item.value('../@ProductID', 'varchar(10)') , Name = T.Item.value('../@Name', 'varchar(20)') , Color = T.Item.value('../@Color', 'varchar(20)') , UserEntered = T.Item.value('../@UserEntered', 'varchar(20)') , VType = T.Item.value('@type' , 'varchar(10)') , Wheels = T.Item.value('@wheels', 'varchar(2)') , Doors = T.Item.value('@doors', 'varchar(2)') , Cylinders = T.Item.value('@cylinders', 'varchar(2)') FROM @x.nodes('//table1/auto') AS T(Item) If my previous post shows there's a much better way to do this, then I really need to revise this question as well, but on the off chance this coding-style is good, I can probably go ahead with this as-is... Any takers?

    Read the article

  • design of orm tool

    - by ifree
    Hello , I want to design a orm tool for my daily work, but I'm always worry about the mapping of foreign key. Here's part of my code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; namespace OrmTool { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property)] public class ColumnAttribute:Attribute { public string Name { get; set; } public SqlDbType DataType { get; set; } public bool IsPk { get; set; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class,AllowMultiple=false,Inherited=false)] public class TableAttribute:Attribute { public string TableName { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property)] public class ReferencesAttribute : ColumnAttribut { public Type Host { get; set; } public string HostPkName{get;set;} } } I want to use Attribute to get the metadata of Entity ,then mapping them,but i think it's really hard to get it done; public class DbUtility { private static readonly string CONNSTR = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connstr"].ConnectionString; private static readonly Type TableType = typeof(TableAttribute); private static readonly Type ColumnType = typeof(ColumnAttribute); private static readonly Type ReferenceType = typeof(ReferencesAttribute); private static IList<TEntity> EntityListGenerator<TEntity>(string tableName,PropertyInfo[] props,params SqlParameter[] paras) { return null; } private static IList<TEntity> ResultList() { return null; } private static SqlCommand PrepareCommand(string sql,SqlConnection conn,params SqlParameter[] paras) { SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(); cmd.CommandText = sql; cmd.Connection = conn; if (paras != null) cmd.Parameters.AddRange(paras); conn.Open(); return cmd; } } I don't know how to do the next step, if every Entity has it's own foreign key,how do I get the return result ? If the Entity like this: [Table(Name="ArtBook")] public class ArtBook{ [column(Name="id",IsPk=true,DataType=SqlDbType.Int)] public int Id{get;set;} [References(Name="ISBNId",DataType=SqlDataType.Int,Host=typeof(ISBN),HostPkName="Id")] public ISBN BookISBN{get;set;} public .....more properties. } public class ISBN{ public int Id{get;set;} public bool IsNative{get;set;} } If I read all ArtBooks from database and when I get a ReferencesAttribute how do I set the value of BookISBN?

    Read the article

  • WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

    - by orangecl4now
    I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

    Read the article

  • HTML Purifier: Removing an element conditionally based on its attributes

    - by pinkgothic
    As per the HTML Purifier smoketest, 'malformed' URIs are occasionally discarded to leave behind an attribute-less anchor tag, e.g. <a href="javascript:document.location='http://www.google.com/'">XSS</a> becomes <a>XSS</a> ...as well as occasionally being stripped down to the protocol, e.g. <a href="http://1113982867/">XSS</a> becomes <a href="http:/">XSS</a> While that's unproblematic, per se, it's a bit ugly. Instead of trying to strip these out with regular expressions, I was hoping to use HTML Purifier's own library capabilities / injectors / plug-ins / whathaveyou. Point of reference: Handling attributes Conditionally removing an attribute in HTMLPurifier is easy. Here the library offers the class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform with the method confiscateAttr(). While I don't personally use the functionality of confiscateAttr(), I do use an HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform as per this thread to add target="_blank" to all anchors. // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addBlankElement('a'); $anchor->attr_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target(); // purify down here HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target is a very simple class, of course. class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target extends HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform { public function transform($attr, $config, $context) { // I could call $this->confiscateAttr() here to throw away an // undesired attribute $attr['target'] = '_blank'; return $attr; } } That part works like a charm, naturally. Handling elements Perhaps I'm not squinting hard enough at HTMLPurifier_TagTransform, or am looking in the wrong place(s), or generally amn't understanding it, but I can't seem to figure out a way to conditionally remove elements. Say, something to the effect of: // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addElementHandler('a'); $anchor->elem_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_ElementTransform_Cull(); // add target as per 'point of reference' here // purify down here With the Cull class extending something that has a confiscateElement() ability, or comparable, wherein I could check for a missing href attribute or a href attribute with the content http:/. HTMLPurifier_Filter I understand I could create a filter, but the examples (Youtube.php and ExtractStyleBlocks.php) suggest I'd be using regular expressions in that, which I'd really rather avoid, if it is at all possible. I'm hoping for an onboard or quasi-onboard solution that makes use of HTML Purifier's excellent parsing capabilities. Returning null in a child-class of HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform unfortunately doesn't cut it. Anyone have any smart ideas, or am I stuck with regexes? :)

    Read the article

  • 401 Using Multiple Authentication methods IE 10 only

    - by jon3laze
    I am not sure if this is more of a coding issue or server setup issue so I've posted it on stackoverflow and here... On our production site we've run into an issue that is specific to Internet Explorer 10. I am using jQuery doing an ajax POST to a web service on the same domain and in IE10 I am getting a 401 response, IE9 works perfectly fine. I should mention that we have mirrored code in another area of our site and it works perfectly fine in IE10. The only difference between the two areas is that one is under a subdomain and the other is at the root level. www.my1stdomain.com vs. portal.my2nddomain.com The directory structure on the server for these are: \my1stdomain\webservice\name\service.aspx \portal\webservice\name\service.aspx Inside of the \portal\ and \my1stdomain\ folders I have a page that does an ajax call, both pages are identical. $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/webservice/name/service.aspx/function', cache: false, contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', dataType: 'json', data: '{ "json": "data" }', success: function() { }, error: function() { } }); I've verified permissions are the same on both folders on the server side. I've applied a workaround fix of placing the <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" value="IE=9"> to force compatibility view (putting IE into compatibility mode fixes the issue). This seems to be working in IE10 on Windows 7, however IE 10 on Windows 8 still sees the same issue. These pages are classic asp with the headers that are being included, also there are no other meta tags being used. The doctype is being specified as <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> on the portal page and <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> on the main domain. UPDATE1 I used Microsoft Network Monitor 3.4 on the server to capture the request. I used the following filter to capture the 401: Property.HttpStatusCode.StringToNumber == 401 This was the response - Http: Response, HTTP/1.1, Status: Unauthorized, URL: /webservice/name/service.aspx/function Using Multiple Authetication Methods, see frame details ProtocolVersion: HTTP/1.1 StatusCode: 401, Unauthorized Reason: Unauthorized - ContentType: application/json; charset=utf-8 - MediaType: application/json; charset=utf-8 MainType: application/json charset: utf-8 Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 jsonerror: true - WWWAuthenticate: Negotiate - Authenticate: Negotiate WhiteSpace: AuthenticateData: Negotiate - WWWAuthenticate: NTLM - Authenticate: NTLM WhiteSpace: AuthenticateData: NTLM XPoweredBy: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 04 Mar 2013 21:13:39 GMT ContentLength: 105 HeaderEnd: CRLF - payload: HttpContentType = application/json; charset=utf-8 HTTPPayloadLine: {"Message":"Authentication failed.","StackTrace":null,"ExceptionType":"System.InvalidOperationException"} The thing here that really stands out is Unauthorized, URL: /webservice/name/service.aspx/function Using Multiple Authentication Methods With this I'm still confused as to why this only happens in IE10 if it's a permission/authentication issue. What was added to 10, or where should I be looking for the root cause of this? UPDATE2 Here are the headers from the client machine from fiddler (server information removed): Main SESSION STATE: Done. Request Entity Size: 64 bytes. Response Entity Size: 9 bytes. == FLAGS ================== BitFlags: [ServerPipeReused] 0x10 X-EGRESSPORT: 44537 X-RESPONSEBODYTRANSFERLENGTH: 9 X-CLIENTPORT: 44770 UI-COLOR: Green X-CLIENTIP: 127.0.0.1 UI-OLDCOLOR: WindowText UI-BOLD: user-marked X-SERVERSOCKET: REUSE ServerPipe#46 X-HOSTIP: ***.***.***.*** X-PROCESSINFO: iexplore:2644 == TIMING INFO ============ ClientConnected: 14:43:08.488 ClientBeginRequest: 14:43:08.488 GotRequestHeaders: 14:43:08.488 ClientDoneRequest: 14:43:08.488 Determine Gateway: 0ms DNS Lookup: 0ms TCP/IP Connect: 0ms HTTPS Handshake: 0ms ServerConnected: 14:40:28.943 FiddlerBeginRequest: 14:43:08.488 ServerGotRequest: 14:43:08.488 ServerBeginResponse: 14:43:08.592 GotResponseHeaders: 14:43:08.592 ServerDoneResponse: 14:43:08.592 ClientBeginResponse: 14:43:08.592 ClientDoneResponse: 14:43:08.592 Overall Elapsed: 0:00:00.104 The response was buffered before delivery to the client. == WININET CACHE INFO ============ This URL is not present in the WinINET cache. [Code: 2] Portal SESSION STATE: Done. Request Entity Size: 64 bytes. Response Entity Size: 105 bytes. == FLAGS ================== BitFlags: [ClientPipeReused, ServerPipeReused] 0x18 X-EGRESSPORT: 44444 X-RESPONSEBODYTRANSFERLENGTH: 105 X-CLIENTPORT: 44439 X-CLIENTIP: 127.0.0.1 X-SERVERSOCKET: REUSE ServerPipe#7 X-HOSTIP: ***.***.***.*** X-PROCESSINFO: iexplore:7132 == TIMING INFO ============ ClientConnected: 14:37:59.651 ClientBeginRequest: 14:38:01.397 GotRequestHeaders: 14:38:01.397 ClientDoneRequest: 14:38:01.397 Determine Gateway: 0ms DNS Lookup: 0ms TCP/IP Connect: 0ms HTTPS Handshake: 0ms ServerConnected: 14:37:57.880 FiddlerBeginRequest: 14:38:01.397 ServerGotRequest: 14:38:01.397 ServerBeginResponse: 14:38:01.464 GotResponseHeaders: 14:38:01.464 ServerDoneResponse: 14:38:01.464 ClientBeginResponse: 14:38:01.464 ClientDoneResponse: 14:38:01.464 Overall Elapsed: 0:00:00.067 The response was buffered before delivery to the client. == WININET CACHE INFO ============ This URL is not present in the WinINET cache. [Code: 2]

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to structure this Linq-to-Events Drag & Drop code?

    - by Rob Fonseca-Ensor
    I am trying to handle a drag & drop interaction, which involves mouse down, mouse move, and mouse up. Here is a simplified repro of my solution that: on mouse down, creates an ellipse and adds it to a canvas on mouse move, repositions the ellipse to follow the mouse on mouse up, changes the colour of the canvas so that it's obvious which one you're dragging. var mouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var mouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseMove"); Ellipse ellipse = null; var q = from start in mouseDown.Do(x => { // handle mousedown by creating a red ellipse, // adding it to the canvas at the right position ellipse = new Ellipse() { Width = 10, Height = 10, Fill = Brushes.Red }; Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); canvas.Children.Add(ellipse); }) from delta in mouseMove.Until(mouseUp.Do(x => { // handle mouse up by making the ellipse green ellipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; })) select delta; q.Subscribe(x => { // handle mouse move by repositioning ellipse Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); }); the XAML is simply <Canvas x:Name="canvas"/> There's a few things I don't like about this code, and I need help refactoring it :) First of all: the mousedown and mouseup callbacks are specified as side effects. If two subscriptions are made to q, they will happen twice. Second, the mouseup callback is specified before the mousemove callback. This makes it a bit hard to read. Thirdly, the reference to the ellipse seems to be in a silly place. If there's two subscriptions, that variable reference will get overwritten quite quickly. I'm sure that there should be some way we can leverage the let keyword to introduce a variable to the linq expression that will mean the correct ellipse reference is available to both the mouse move and mouse up handlers How would you write this code?

    Read the article

  • Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

    Read the article

  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

    Read the article

  • Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

    Read the article

  • How can this C and PHP programmer learn Ruby and Rails?

    - by Winston
    I came from a C, php and bash background, it was easy to learn because they all have the same C structure, which I can associate with what I already know. Then 2 years ago I learned Python and I learned it quite well, Python is easier for me to learn than Ruby. Then since last year, I was trying to learn Ruby, then Rails, and I admit, until now I still couldn't get it, the irony is that those are branded as easy to learn, but for a seasoned programmer like me, I just couldn't associate it with what I learned before, I have 2 books on both Ruby and Rails, and when I'm reading it nothing is absorbed into my mind, and I'm close to giving up... In ruby, I'm having a hard time grasping the concepts of blocks, and why there's @variables that can be accessed by other functions, and what does $variable and :variable do? And in Rails, why there's function like this_is_another_function_that_do_this, so thus ruby, is it just a naming convention or it's auto-generated with thisvariable _can_do_this_function. I'm still puzzled that where all those magic concepts and things came from? And now, 1 year of trying and absorbing, but still no progress... Edit: To summarize: How can I learn about blocks, and how can it be related to concepts from PHP/C? Variables, what does does it mean when a variable is prefixed with: @ $ : "Magic concepts", suchs as rails declarations of Records, what happens behind the scenes when I write has_one X OK so, bear with me with my confusion, at least I'm honest with myself, and it's over a year now since I first trying to learn ruby, and I'm not getting younger.. so I learned this in Bash/C/PHP solve_problem($problem) { if [ -e $problem == "trivial" ]; then write_solution(); else breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems(\; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for i in $( command $each_subproblem ); do solve_problem $i done fi } write_solution(problem) { some_solution=$(command <parameters> "input" | command); command | command $some_solution > output_solved_problem_to_file } breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems($problems) { for i in $problems; do command $i | command > i_can_output_a_file_right_away done } define_relationship_between_subproblems($problems) { if [ -e $problem == "relationship" ]; then relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) elsif [ -e $problem == "another_relationship" ]; relationship=$(command; command | command; command;) fi } In C/PHP is something like this solve_problem(problem) { if (problem == trivial) write_solution; else { breakdown_problem_into_N_subproblems; define_relationship_between_subproblems; for (each_subproblem) solve_problems(subproblem); } } And now, I just couldn't connect the dots with Ruby, |b|{ blocks }, using @variables, :variables, and variables_with_this_things..

    Read the article

  • Google Chrome audit on caching

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

    Read the article

  • do you want try ? [closed]

    - by gemxia
    Only with time and hard work, that can you get an IT certification. Although there are hundreds of certifications for you to pick from, the basic steps to get certified are the same. The following steps are certain to clear your puzzles about the preparation process of your <. The first step to take is choosing a certification. It is simple but at the same time very important. Make sure to choose the certifications that are respected in your industries. The second step you should take is to evaluate your experience. Find out what skills and experience the IBM certification is expecting. Then, decide what type of training is suitable for you. Preparation books will certainly not make you an expert in subjects you’re not already an expert in. But, for the subject areas you know little or nothing about, a study guide provides you clues and guidance about what the important information from those subjects is when it comes to passing the Examkiller IBM examination exam. Visit certification forums during your 000-M62 certification exam preparation. In this way, you can learn from others’ mistakes and example, meanwhile help your own studies. Achieving your goals without proper training is a sure road to failure. Knowing about a topic and having special expertise in it are completely different. One cannot be an expert in the IT industry without the proper foundation. Taking a training class for Examkiller IBM exam might be a guaranteed way. When the economy dips and budgets get tightened, one of the first things to go from corporate spending is training. There are plenty of courses, boot camps and cram sessions that promise to prepare you for the IBM exam, but they are exceptionally expensive. As much as possible, for your own benefit, you should look for resources that are free. Vendor of IBM offers free resource in their sites. These practice exams are the closest to the real exams. If you think that you have got ready for the exam, you can take the fourth now, which is registering your exam. Even if you have passed your <, yet you can’t relax, since there are still so many certifications ahead. If you have just memorized some questions and answers, excepting a fluke, then, don’t take the IBM test exam, until you really have the experience and skills the certification requires.

    Read the article

  • Occasional Date or timezone discrepancy in hudson or maven with jodatime

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I hope following explanation will make sense because it's a weird problem we're facing and hard to describe. We have a maven project which gets build in hudson and that contains some unit tests where dates are used and asserted. The hudson server runs on solaris. Now, occasionally (like 30% of the times) the unit tests using dates fail because 3,5 hours are deducted from the specified time in the unit test and hence asserts start failing. The other 70% everything works fine although nothing at all changed in the code and we run the hudson job several times an hour. I add following code to a unittest to check the time: @Test public void testDate() { System.out.println("new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate();"); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate()); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate().getTime()); Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2011); cal.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 5); cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MILLISECOND, 0); System.out.println("cal.getTime();"); System.out.println(cal.getTime()); System.out.println(cal.getTime().getTime()); } So basically it should print the same thing when using jodatime or plain old Calendar. This is the case in 70% of the runs; for the other 30% I get following printouts: Running TestSuite new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate(); Tue Jan 04 21:30:00 MET 2011 1294173000000 cal.getTime(); Wed Jan 05 12:00:00 MET 2011 1294225200000 Local maven tests never appear the pose this problem and we can't figure out what could be the cause of it. Especially, we can't think of a single reason why the tests sometimes pass and sometimes fail without changing any code nor hudson or server setting. Also, we run the maven install with cobertura which means that the unit tests are run twice. It happens also that they pass the first time and fail the second time or the other way around or that they fail both times. Thanks for any help, Stijn

    Read the article

  • Would Ruby on Rails be appropriate for this Foreign Language project?

    - by Lynne Overesch-Maister
    I'm a Spanish professor & computer groupie. About 15 years ago, I authored in HyperCard a series of verb conjugation programs that are now completely out of date with respect to System OS X. I would like to redo these programs myself because I had a lot of fun doing them last time (mostly I coded while my son played in Leaps and Bounds, you know, one of those places where parents take their kids & let them run wild through the tubes...). Colleagues have mentioned using Flash, Director, and various other solutions, but I saw a presentation on RoR at our SIDLIT conference today, and was inspired. I will be parsing and comparing strings (and there are other features on top of that, but that is the main one), "adding" strings relationally indexed in some kind of database(s). It will also have to handle various foreign characters (accents, upside down question marks, etc.). On top of the main process of the program, it will have to provide a practice vs. test mode, keep track of specific answers as well as totals right/wrong, and print a report. Would this be either easier and/or more efficiently done in RoR than in other languages. I am pretty sure that it will work on a Microsoft server, right? Because I think that is where most of our stuff is. I would be programming either on a Mac or a PC, whichever you think is easier. So, in summary, is RoR the way for me to go with this project? If I have some (little) experience programming in Hypercard and C, should I be able to pick RoR up fairly quickly? What things will I need to start (I already saw something called Redhills foreign key migration plugin, which I assume would be beneficial)? I still have my old scripts from hypercard, however what I would really like to do is to combine all six of my former tense-specific programs into one larger program. I figure that it wouldn't be too hard to reference the individual tenses in some way--could that be a class? Many thanks for any help you can give me on this forum.

    Read the article

  • How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

    - by Schnapple
    I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648  | Next Page >