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• NIS password mapping question

  - by papoyan

  I have NIS server with user "techsupport", which has uid/gid = 517 I've configured NIS and NFS on that server, as well as NFS/NIS client on the remote web server. Now I need to techsupport user to be able to login to web server using techsupport username, but HAVE root privileges. I need this, so I can easily track, which support agent doing what on the web server. Everything works fine, when from NIS server, I ssh to the web server with tech support user nisserver# ssh [email protected] I can authenticate against the NIS server just fine, and my home directory that is on NIS server, get's mounted on web server just fine. The Only two problems I have are : my GID on web server is webserver# id uid=517(techsupport) gid=517(client_jonny) groups=517(client_jonny) (as you can see, that it picked up gid of a client that exists on the web server, since it's same number) I need to make sure, that my "techsupport" user has ROOT privileges. How can I achieve this? I remember that I've seen identical results elsewhere, but LDAP was used, is there a way to achieve this with NIS/NFS setup? Thank you in advance,

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• How to sanely configure security policy in Tomcat 6

  - by Chas Emerick

  I'm using Tomcat 6.0.24, as packaged for Ubuntu Karmic. The default security policy of Ubuntu's Tomcat package is pretty stringent, but appears straightforward. In /var/lib/tomcat6/conf/policy.d, there are a variety of files that establish default policy. Worth noting at the start: I've not changed the stock tomcat install at all -- no new jars into its common lib directory(ies), no server.xml changes, etc. Putting the .war file in the webapps directory is the only deployment action. the web application I'm deploying fails with thousands of access denials under this default policy (as reported to the log thanks to the -Djava.security.debug="access,stack,failure" system property). turning off the security manager entirely results in no errors whatsoever, and proper app functionality What I'd like to do is add an application-specific security policy file to the policy.d directory, which seems to be the recommended practice. I added this to policy.d/100myapp.policy (as a starting point -- I would like to eventually trim back the granted permissions to only what the app actually needs): grant codeBase "file:${catalina.base}/webapps/ROOT.war" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; grant codeBase "file:${catalina.base}/webapps/ROOT/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; grant codeBase "file:${catalina.base}/webapps/ROOT/WEB-INF/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; grant codeBase "file:${catalina.base}/webapps/ROOT/WEB-INF/lib/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; grant codeBase "file:${catalina.base}/webapps/ROOT/WEB-INF/classes/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; Note the thrashing around attempting to find the right codeBase declaration. I think that's likely my fundamental problem. Anyway, the above (really only the first two grants appear to have any effect) almost works: the thousands of access denials are gone, and I'm left with just one. Relevant stack trace: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.io.FilePermission /var/lib/tomcat6/webapps/ROOT/WEB-INF/classes/com/foo/some-file-here.txt read) java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) java.lang.SecurityManager.checkRead(SecurityManager.java:871) java.io.File.exists(File.java:731) org.apache.naming.resources.FileDirContext.file(FileDirContext.java:785) org.apache.naming.resources.FileDirContext.lookup(FileDirContext.java:206) org.apache.naming.resources.ProxyDirContext.lookup(ProxyDirContext.java:299) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findResourceInternal(WebappClassLoader.java:1937) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findResource(WebappClassLoader.java:973) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.getResource(WebappClassLoader.java:1108) java.lang.ClassLoader.getResource(ClassLoader.java:973) I'm pretty convinced that the actual file that's triggering the denial is irrelevant -- it's just some properties file that we check for optional configuration parameters. What's interesting is that: it doesn't exist in this context the fact that the file doesn't exist ends up throwing a security exception, rather than java.io.File.exists() simply returning false (although I suppose that's just a matter of the semantics of the read permission). Another workaround (besides just disabling the security manager in tomcat) is to add an open-ended permission to my policy file: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; I presume this is functionally equivalent to turning off the security manager. I suppose I must be getting the codeBase declaration in my grants subtly wrong, but I'm not seeing it at the moment.

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• RSS feed created with PHP only shows the title in the feed reader

  - by James Simpson

  I am using the following PHP code to generate the XML for an RSS feed, but it doesn't seem to be working correctly. No short description is displayed in the feed reader, all I see is the title of the article. Also, all of the articles say they were published at the same time. This is the first time I have tried to setup an RSS feed, so I'm sure I've made several stupid mistakes. $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM blog ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 10"); $date = date(DATE_RFC822); header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo ("<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>\n"); echo ("<rss version=\"2.0\">\n"); echo ("<channel>\n"); echo ("<lastBuildDate>$date</lastBuildDate>\n"); echo ("<pubDate>$date</pubDate>\n"); echo ("<title>my website name</title>\n"); echo ("<description><![CDATA[the description]]></description>\n"); echo ("<link>http://my-domain.com</link>\n"); echo ("<language>en</language>\n"); $ch=100; while ($a = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $headline = htmlentities(stripslashes($a['subject'])); $posturl = $a[perm_link]; $content = $a['post']; $date = date(DATE_RFC822, $a['posted']); echo ("<item>\n"); echo ("<title>$headline</title>\n"); echo ("<link>$posturl</link>\n"); echo ("<description><![CDATA[$content]]></description>\n"); echo ("<guid isPermaLink=\"true\">$posturl</guid>\n"); echo ("<pubDate>$date2</pubDate>\n"); echo ("</item>\n"); } echo ("</channel>\n"); echo ("</rss>\n");

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• Wildcard subdomain .htaccess and Codeigniter

  - by Gautam

  Hi All, I am trying to create the proper .htaccess that would allow me to map as such: http://domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/home http://domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/home/whatever http://user.domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/user http://user.domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/user/whatever/ Here, someone would type in the above URLs, however internally, it would be redirecting as if it were the URL on the right. Also the subdomain would be dynamic (that is, http://user.domain.com isn't an actual subdomain but would be a .htaccess rewrite) Also /home is my default controller so no subdomain would internally force it to /home controller and any paths following it (as shown in #2 example above) would be the (catch-all) function within that controller. Like wise if a subdomain is passed it would get passed as a (catch-all) controller along with any (catch-all) functions for it (as shown in #4 example above) Hopefully I'm not asking much here but I can't seem to figure out the proper .htaccess or routing rules (in Codeigniter) for this. httpd.conf and hosts are setup just fine. EDIT #1 Here's my .htaccess that is coming close but is messing up at some point: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([a-z0-9-]+).domain [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php/%1/$1 [QSA] RewriteCond $1 !^(index\.php|images|robots\.txt) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L,QSA] With the above, when I visit: http://test.domain/abc/123 this is what I notice in $_SERVER var (I've removed some of the fields): Array ( [REDIRECT_STATUS] => 200 [SERVER_NAME] => test.domain [REDIRECT_URL] => /abc/123 [QUERY_STRING] => [REQUEST_URI] => /abc/123 [SCRIPT_NAME] => /index.php [PATH_INFO] => /test/abc/123 [PATH_TRANSLATED] => redirect:\index.php\test\test\abc\123\abc\123 [PHP_SELF] => /index.php/test/abc/123 ) You can see the PATH_TRANSLATED is not properly being formed and I think that may be screwing things up?

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• Can't get SFTP to work in PHP

  - by Chris Kloberdanz

  I am writing a simple SFTP client in PHP because we have the need to programatically retrieve files via n remote servers. I am using the PECL SSH2 extension. I have run up against a road block, though. The documentation on php.net suggests that you can do this: $stream = fopen("ssh2.sftp://$sftp/path/to/file", 'r'); However, I have an ls method that attempts to something similar public function ls($dir) { $rd = "ssh2.sftp://{$this->sftp}/$dir"; $handle = opendir($rd); if (!is_resource($handle)) { throw new SFTPException("Could not open directory."); } while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (substr($file, 0, 1) != '.'){ print $file . "\n"; } } closedir($handle); } I get the following error: PHP Warning: opendir(): Unable to open ssh2.sftp://Resource id #5/outgoing on remote host This makes perfect sense because that's what happens when you cast a resource to string. Is the documentation wrong? I tried replacing the resource with host, username, and host and that didn't work either. I know the path is correct because I can run SFTP from the command line and it works fine. Has anyone else tried to use the SSH2 extenstion with SFTP? Am I missing something obvious here? UPDATE: I setup sftp on another machine in-house and it works just fine. So, there must be something about the server I am trying to connect to that isn't working.

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• How to preload images using jquery for carousel?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I used jquery stepcarousel plugin and it works fine... But how to preload images that is used by the plugin... I am using this, <div id="mygallery" class="stepcarousel"> <div class="belt"> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img1.jpg" /> </div> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img2.jpg" /> </div> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> stepcarousel.setup({ galleryid: 'mygallery', //id of carousel DIV beltclass: 'belt', //class of inner "belt" DIV containing all the panel DIVs panelclass: 'panel', //class of panel DIVs each holding content autostep: { enable: true, moveby: 1, pause: 3000 }, panelbehavior: { speed: 500, wraparound: false, persist: true }, defaultbuttons: { enable: true, moveby: 1, leftnav: ['Images/lft_arrow.jpg', -5, 220], rightnav: ['Images/rit_arrow.jpg', -5, 220] }, statusvars: ['statusA', 'statusB', 'statusC'], //register 3 variables that contain current panel (start), current panel (last), and total panels contenttype: ['inline'] //content setting ['inline'] or ['ajax', 'path_to_external_file'] }) </script> How to preload images used by mygallery div such that i can avoid flickering.....

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• Daemon program that uses select() inside infinite loop uses significantly more CPU when ported from

  - by Jake

  I have a daemon app written in C and is currently running with no known issues on a Solaris 10 machine. I am in the process of porting it over to Linux. I have had to make minimal changes. During testing it passes all test cases. There are no issues with its functionality. However, when I view its CPU usage when 'idle' on my Solaris machine it is using around .03% CPU. On the Virtual Machine running Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.8 that same process uses all available CPU (usually somewhere in the 90%+ range). My first thought was that something must be wrong with the event loop. The event loop is an infinite loop ( while(1) ) with a call to select(). The timeval is setup so that timeval.tv_sec = 0 and timeval.tv_usec = 1000. This seems reasonable enough for what the process is doing. As a test I bumped the timeval.tv_sec to 1. Even after doing that I saw the same issue. Is there something I am missing about how select works on Linux vs. Unix? Or does it work differently with and OS running on a Virtual Machine? Or maybe there is something else I am missing entirely? One more thing I am sure sure which version of vmware server is being used. It was just updated about a month ago though. Thanks.

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• log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

  - by user1825172

  I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

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• Mercurial Hg Clone fails on C# project with GUID

  - by AnneTheAgile

  UPDATE: In trying to replicate this problem one more time to answer your questions I could not! I can only conclude that my initial setup of Mercurial was problematic and/or possibly I was trying to checkin a build that failed compilation before the checkin. Sigh! Thank you so very much for your help. I gave credit for the help on how to do a script. I need to try that for general purposes. hi all, I hope you can help me :). I am trying to see if Mercurial would be a good DCVS for my project at work, and I'm surely a newbie to many things. We have a fairly large codebase in C# (Dotnet3.0 not 3.5 , WindowsXP) and it utilizes the GUID feature. I confess to know little about how or why we use the GUID, but I do know that I cannot touch it. So, when I try hg clone, it fails unless I change the GUID in the cloned directory (ie create new GUID in Visual Studio and then paste that new GUID to replace the old one). To me, this completely defeats the purpose and utility of quick easy clones. It also makes difficult all the many workflows that require multiple clones. Is there a workaround, or is there something I'm doing wrong? How can I simplify and/or remove this problem? Would Bazaar make this easier? Thank you!

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• Table borders don't display properly when converted from HTML page into MS Word 2003

  - by Daria

  Hello everyone, I've got a bit of a complicated set up. I specialise in XSLT which I write for 3rd party system. All CSS looks fine in the browser. Now that system provides a button that converts my generated HTML into MS Word 2003. However, table borders don't convert as they appear in a Browser. There are lots of tables and they have different borders setup. For example there is one that uses only outside border and no borders inside it. When converting to MS Word, a table appears with ALL the borders in between cells. Which I don't want. I've tried search the Internet, but didn't come across anything useful. Maybe there are tips or tricks on how to set up tables borders so it's understood properly by MS Word. The third party said the following: "The system just passes the HTML created through the converter it finds in the installed version of Word". I would really appreciate any tips and help! Dasha

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• Re-Convert timestamp DATE back to original format (when editing) PHP MySQL

  - by Jess

  Ok so I have managed to get the format of the date presented in HTML (upon display) to how I want (dd/mm/yyy)...However, the user also can change the date via a form. So this is how it's setup as present. Firstly, the conversion from YYYY-MM-DD to DD/MM/YYYY and then display in HTML: $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); echo date('d/m/Y', $timestamp); Now when the user selects to update the due date, the value already stored value is drawn up and presented in my text field (using exactly the same code as above).. All good so far. But when my user runs the update script (clicks submit), the new due date is not being stored, and in my DB its seen as '0000-00-00'. I know I need to convert it back to the correct format that MySQL wants to have it in, in order for it to be saved, but I'm not sure on how to do this. This is what I have so far in my update script (for the due date): $duedate = $_POST['duedate']; $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); date('Y/m/d', $timestamp); $query = "UPDATE films SET filmname= '".$filmname."', duedate= '".$duedate; Can somebody please point me in the right direction to have the new date, when processed, converted back to the accepted format by MySQL. I appreciate any help given! Thanks.

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• How to mock the Request.ServerVariables using MOQ for ASP.NET MVC?

  - by melaos

  hi guys, i'm just learning to put in unit testing for my asp.net mvc when i came to learn about the mock and the different frameworks there is out there now. after checking SO, i found that MOQ seems to be the easiest to pick up. as of now i'm stuck trying to mock the Request.ServerVariables, as after reading this post, i've learned that it's better to abstract them into property. as such: /// <summary> /// Return the server port /// </summary> protected string ServerPort { get { return Request.ServerVariables.Get("SERVER_PORT"); } } But i'm having a hard time learning how to properly mock this. I have a home controller ActionResult function which grabs the user server information and proceed to create a form to grab the user's information. i tried to use hanselman's mvcmockhelpers class but i'm not sure how to use it. this is what i have so far... [Test] public void Create_Redirects_To_ProductAdded_On_Success() { FakeViewEngine engine = new FakeViewEngine(); HomeController controller = new HomeController(); controller.ViewEngine = engine; MvcMockHelpers.SetFakeControllerContext(controller); controller.Create(); var results = controller.Create(); var typedResults = results as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["action"], "Wrong action"); Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["controller"], "Wrong controller"); } Questions: As of now i'm still getting null exception error when i'm running the test. So what am i missing here? And if i use the mvcmockhelpers class, how can i still call the request.verifyall function to ensure all the mocking are properly setup?

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• Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

  - by Spencer

  I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

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• The type of field isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany"

  - by Robert

  We are new to JPA and trying to setup a very simple one to many relationship where a pojo called Message can have a list of integer group id's defined by a join table called GROUP_ASSOC. Here is the DDL: CREATE TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ( "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY (START WITH 1, INCREMENT BY 1) ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ADD CONSTRAINT "MESSAGE_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID"); CREATE TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ( "GROUP_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL, "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID", "GROUP_ID"); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_FK" FOREIGN KEY ("MESSAGE_ID") REFERENCES "APP"."MESSAGE" ("MESSAGE_ID"); Here is the pojo: @Entity @Table(name = "MESSAGE") public class Message { @Id @Column(name = "MESSAGE_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int messageId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) private List groupIds; public int getMessageId() { return messageId; } public void setMessageId(int messageId) { this.messageId = messageId; } public List getGroupIds() { return groupIds; } public void setGroupIds(List groupIds) { this.groupIds = groupIds; } } When we try to execute the following test code we get <openjpa-1.2.3-SNAPSHOT-r422266:907835 fatal user error> org.apache.openjpa.util.MetaDataException: The type of field "pojo.Message.groupIds" isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany". Please choose a different strategy. Message msg = new Message(); List groups = new ArrayList(); groups.add(101); groups.add(102); EntityManager em = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("TestDBWeb").createEntityManager(); em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(msg); em.getTransaction().commit(); Help!

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• Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

  - by Andrew

  We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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• Linq to XML Document Traversal

  - by Perpetualcoder

  I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

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• What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

  - by Alex R

  I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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• Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

  - by Darwin Tech

  I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

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• Distributed development systems

  - by Nathan Adams

  I am interested in a system that allows for distributed development with an authentication piece. What do I mean by that? Ok so lets take SVN, SVN keeps track of revisions and doesn't care who submits, as long as you have the right to submit you can submit, really, to any part in the repository. Where does my system come into play? Being able to granulate access control and give a stackoverflow like feel to the environment. In the system I am describing we have 4 users Bob, Alice, Dan, Joe. Bob is a project managed, Alice and Dan are programmers under Bob and Joe is a random programmer on the internet who wants to help. Ideally in this system, Bob can commit any changes and won't require approval. Alice and Dan can commit to their branches, or a branch, but a commit to the trunk would need approval by Bob. This is where Joe comes in, wants to help, however, you just don't want to give him the keys to the kingdom just yet so to speak, so in my system you would setup a "low user" account. Any commits that Joe makes would need to be approved by Dan, Alice or both. However, in the system, Joe can build up "Karma" where after so many approved commits it would only need approval by one of the programmers, and then eventually no approval would be necessary. Does that make sense and do you know if a system like that exists? Or am I just crazy to even think such a system/environment would be possible?

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• iPhone 4.0 on iPhone but still Ad-Hoc compile for 3.1.3?

  - by Mark

  Device: Version : 3.1 Build: 3511 Device: iPhone OS: iPhone OS 4.0 xCode 3.2.2 (Old) xCode 3.2.3 (New; For iPhone 4.0 Beta) Background: As you can see I installed 4.0 on my iPhone as I read on this forum it's really hard to near impossible to downgrade back to 3.1.3, but it's my only device I have and use for development. When I try to continue to develop and build with the old xCode it tells me that "No provisioned iPhone OS device is connected". When I select Simulator it does compile and build, however when I spread this file it does not work on the devices of my testers, they get a Signed error. When I run the new xCode, it does compile and build on the Device and when I spread this file, it does work on the devices of my testers (which are running the current official version 3.1.3). Questions: Why is there a difference between building for Simulator and Device? A simulator build never seem to work on the devices of my testers because of signing issues and the build for device does work. Currently it seems the old xCode became useless, however I read that you may not use the Beta xCode to build your application for release. So knowing the above how am I able to pull this off with my current setup due the fact the old xCode won't let me build properly.

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• OpenGL behaving strangely

  - by Mk12

  OpenGL is acting very strangely for some reason. In my subclass of NSOpenGLView, I have the following code in -prepareOpenGL: - (void)prepareOpenGL { GLfloat lightAmbient[] = { 0.5f, 0.5f, 0.5f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightDiffuse[] = { 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightPosition[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 2.0f }; quality = 0; zCoord = -6; [self loadTextures]; glEnable(GL_LIGHTING); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glShadeModel(GL_SMOOTH); glClearColor(0.2f, 0.2f, 0.2f, 0.0f); glClearDepth(1.0f); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glDepthFunc(GL_LEQUAL); glHint(GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL_NICEST); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_AMBIENT, lightAmbient); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_DIFFUSE, lightDiffuse); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_POSITION, lightPosition); glEnable(GL_LIGHT1); gameState = kGameStateRunning; int i = 0; // HERE ******** [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.03f target:self selector:@selector(processKeys) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; // Synchronize buffer swaps with vertical refresh rate GLint swapInt = 1; [[self openGLContext] setValues:&swapInt forParameter:NSOpenGLCPSwapInterval]; // Setup and start displayLink [self setupDisplayLink]; } I wanted to assign the timer that processes key input to an ivar so that I could invalidate it when the game is paused (and reinstantiate it on resume), however when I did that (as apposed to leaving it at [NSTimer scheduledTimer…), OpenGL doesn't display the cube I draw. When I take it away, it's fine. So i tried just adding a harmless statement, int i = 0; (maked // HERE *******), and that makes the lighting not work! When I take it away, everything is fine, but when I put it back, everything is dark. Can someone come up with a rational explanation for this? Thanks.

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• Excel VBA Select Case Loop Sub

  - by Zack

  In my excel file, I have a table setup with formulas. with Cells from Range("B2:B12"), Range ("D2:D12"), and etc every other row containing the answers to these formulas. for these cells (with the formula answers), I need to apply conditional formatting, but I have 7 conditions, so I've been using "select case" in VBA to change their interior background based on their number. I have the select case function currently set up within the sheet code, as opposed to it's own macro Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) Dim iColor As Integer If Not Intersect(Target, Range("B2:L12")) Is Nothing Then Select Case Target Case 0 iColor = 2 Case 0.01 To 0.49 iColor = 36 Case 0.5 To 0.99 iColor = 6 Case 1 To 1.99 iColor = 44 Case 2 To 2.49 iColor = 45 Case 2.5 To 2.99 iColor = 46 Case 3 To 5 iColor = 3 End Select Target.Interior.ColorIndex = iColor End If End Sub but using this method, you must be actually entering the value into the cell for the formatting to work. which is why I want to write a subroutine to to do this as a macro. I can input my data, let the formulas work, and when everything is ready, I can run the macro and format those specific cells. I want an easy way to do this, obviously I could waste a load of time, typing out all the cases for every cell, but I figured it'd be easier with a loop. how would I go about writing a select case loop to change the formatting on a a specific range of cells every other row? thank you in advance.

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• How to make new file permission inherit from the parent directory?

  - by Wai Yip Tung

  I have a directory called data. Then I am running a script under the user id 'robot'. robot writes to the data directory and update files inside. The idea is data is open for both me and robot to update. So I setup the permission and owner group like this drwxrwxr-x 2 me robot-grp 4096 Jun 11 20:50 data where both me and robot belongs to the 'robot-grp'. I change the permission and the owner group recursively like the parent directory. I regularly upload new files into the data directory using rsync. Unfortunately, new files uploaded does not inherit the parent directory's permission as I hope. Instead it looks like this -rw-r--r-- 1 me users 6 Jun 11 20:50 new-file.txt When robot tries to update new-file.txt, it fails due to lack of file permission. I'm not sure if setting umask helps. In anycase the new files does not really follow it. $ umask -S u=rwx,g=rx,o=rx I'm often confounded by Unix file permission. Do I even have a right plan? I'm using Debian lenny.

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• What is wrong with my Basic Authentication in my Browser?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, i'm trying to goto the following url :- http://user1:pass1@localhost:1234/api/users?format=xml nothing to complex. Notice how i've got the username/password in the url? this, i believe, is for basic authentication. When I do that, the Request Headers are MISSING the 'Authorize' header. Er... that's not right :( I have anonymous authentication only setup on the site. I don't want to have anon off and basic turned on .. because not all of the site requires basic.. only a few action methods. So .. why is this not working? Is this something to do with the fact my code is not sending a 401 challenge or some crap? For What It's Worth, my site is ASP.NET MVC1 running on IIS7 (and the same thing happens when i run it on cassini). Update: If this is an illegal way of calling a resource using basic auth (ala security flaw) .. then is this possible to do, for an ASP.NET MVC website .. per action method (and not the entire site, per say)?

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• How do I copy or move an NSManagedObject from one context to another?

  - by Aeonaut

  I have what I assume is a fairly standard setup, with one scratchpad MOC which is never saved (containing a bunch of objects downloaded from the web) and another permanent MOC which persists objects. When the user selects an object from scratchMOC to add to her library, I want to either 1) remove the object from scratchMOC and insert into permanentMOC, or 2) copy the object into permanentMOC. The Core Data FAQ says I can copy an object like this: NSManagedObjectID *objectID = [managedObject objectID]; NSManagedObject *copy = [context2 objectWithID:objectID]; (In this case, context2 would be permanentMOC.) However, when I do this, the copied object is faulted; the data is initially unresolved. When it does get resolved, later, all of the values are nil; none of the data (attributes or relationships) from the original managedObject are actually copied or referenced. Therefore I can't see any difference between using this objectWithID: method and just inserting an entirely new object into permanentMOC using insertNewObjectForEntityForName:. I realize I can create a new object in permanentMOC and manually copy each key-value pair from the old object, but I'm not very happy with that solution. (I have a number of different managed objects for which I have this problem, so I don't want to have to write and update copy: methods for all of them as I continue developing.) Is there a better way?

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